Oral Path Exam 1

Front 1

usually caused by periapical inflammatory disease in overlying deciduous tooth

Back 1

Turner's hypoplasia

Front 2

Which teeth are most commonly affected by Turner's hypoplasia?

Back 2

-permanent bicuspids (due to periapical inflammatory disease in overlying primary molar)

-permanent maxillary centrals due to trauma of overlying primary centrals

Front 3

Enamel hypoplasia that affects the anterior and posterior teeth due to congenital syphillis

Back 3

Syphilitic hypoplasia

Front 4

Anterior teeth affected by syphilitic hypoplasia are called _________ ________.

Back 4

Hutchinson's incisors

Front 5

Posterior teeth affected by syphilitic hypoplasia are called _________ __________.

Back 5

Mulberry molars

Front 6

Hutchinson's incisors and mulberry molars are characteristics of ________ ________.

Back 6

syphilitic hypoplasia

Front 7

Anterior teeth with screwdriver shaped crowns that are more narrow incisally than they are cervically

Back 7

"Hutchinson's incisors" due to congenital syphilis

Front 8

Posterior teeth with disorganized occlusal surface anatomy resembling a mulberry

Back 8

"Mulberry molars" due to congenital syphilis

Front 9

Loss of tooth structure caused by tooth-to-tooth contact during occlusion and mastication

Back 9

Attrition

Front 10

________ may be accelerated by poor quality of absent enamel, premature contacts, intraoral abrasives and grinding habits.

Back 10

Attrition

Front 11

__________ is a physiologic process and is NOT pathologic.

Back 11

Attrition

Front 12

Why is pulp exposure and sensitivity rare in cases of attrition?

Back 12

Secondary dentin formed on the pulpal surface

Front 13

An amalgam restoration that has worn down and is equal with the surrounding tooth structure suggests _______

Back 13

Attrition

Front 14

A knife-edge lingual surface on mandibular incisors is characteristic of ________

Back 14

Attrition

Front 15

________ is a pathologic loss of tooth structure secondary to the action of an external agent; most commonly caused by tooth-brushing.

Back 15

Abrasion

Front 16

V-shaped grooves at the gingival margin are unaffected soft tissue are characteristic of ______

Back 16

Abrasion

Front 17

Loss of tooth structure caused by a chemical process (acid in food/drink or regurgitation)

Back 17

Erosion

Front 18

GERD causes

Back 18

Erosion of occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth

Front 19

Bullemia causes

Back 19

Erosion of lingual surfaces of teeth

Front 20

Acidic drinks cause

Back 20

Erosion of facial surfaces of maxillary anteriors

Front 21

___________ generally does not affect restorative materials (amalgam would be higher than surrounding tooth structure).

Back 21

Erosion

Front 22

What are the two possible causes of internal resorption?

Back 22

Injury to pulpal tissues due to

1) physical trauma or

2) caries-related pulpitis

Front 23

Rare and asymptomatic ; occurs due to inflammation of the pulp

Back 23

Internal resportion

Front 24

The most common pattern of internal resorption

Back 24

Inflammatory resorption: Pink tooth of Mummery (coronal pulp is affected)

Front 25

How is internal resorption diagnosed and treated?

Back 25

Diagnosed radiographically, treated endodontically.

Front 26

What are the histopathological featuers of both internal and external resportion?

Back 26

-Vascularized connective tissue

-Inflammatory infiltrate

Front 27

Is external or internal resorption more common?

Back 27

External

Front 28

List some causes of external resorption:

Back 28

-Cysts

-Trauma

-Ortho

-Periradicular inflammation

Front 29

"Moth-eaten" loss of tooth structure usually in the apical or midportions of the root

Back 29

External resorption

Front 30

Treatment for external resorption:

Back 30

-identify and eliminate cause

-endo

Front 31

Cessation of eruption after emergence due to anatomic fusion of cementum with the alveolar bone: PDL is absent

Back 31

Ankylosis

Front 32

What is the peak incidence for ankylosis?

Back 32

8-9 years of age

Front 33

What tooth is most commonly ankylosed?

Back 33

Mandibular deciduous first molar (may prevent eruption of permanent premolars)

Front 34

Occlusal plane is below adjacent dentition, no PDL, may cause occlusal and periodontal problems

Back 34

Ankylosis

Front 35

Why don't ankylosed teeth respond to ortho? What is treatment for ankylosis?

Back 35

Because they are fused to the alveolar bone; treated with extraction/ prosth

Front 36

Which is more common: hypodontia or hyperdontia?

Back 36

HYPOdontia

Front 37

Lack of development of one of more teeth often due to genetic or environmental factors; female predilection

Back 37

hypodontia

Front 38

Is the permanent or deciduous dentition more affected by hypodontia?

Back 38

permanent

Front 39

Which teeth are most commonly affected by hypodontia?

Back 39

3rd molars > 2nd premolars > lateral incisors

Front 40

A patient with anodontia should be evaluated for __________ ___________.

Back 40

ectodermal dysplasia

Front 41

Supernumerary teeth

Back 41

Hyperdontia

Front 42

Are permanent or deciduous dentition more affected by hyperdontia?

Back 42

permanent

Front 43

90% of cases of hyperdontia (supernumerary teeth) are in the ______ ________ region.

Back 43

maxillary anterior

Front 44

Which teeth are most commonly supernumerary (hyperdontia) ?

Back 44

maxillary incisors > maxillary 4th molars > mandibular 4th molars

Front 45

Unlike hypodontia, hyperdontia usually involves ....

Back 45

only a single tooth (hypodontia is often multiple missing teeth)

Front 46

Hyperdontia is positively correlated with _____________.

Back 46

macrodontia

Front 47

What is the sex predilection for hyperdontia?

Back 47

M>F

Front 48

___________ occurs more often in females, ____________ in males.

Back 48

hypodontia - females

hyperdontia - males

Front 49

What are the 3 clinical forms of hyperdontia?

Back 49

1) mesiodens

2) paramolars

3) natal teeth

Front 50

____________ are supernumerary teeth located in the maxillary anterior incisor region between #8 and #9

Back 50

Mesiodens

Front 51

____________ are supernumerary teeth located buccal or lingual to a molar tooth.

Back 51

Paramolar

Front 52

What teeth are most commonly microdonts?

Back 52

1) max lateral incisor

2) 3rd molars

Front 53

A single enlarged tooth in which the tooth count is normal when the anomalous tooth is counted as one

Back 53

gemination

Front 54

gemination is most common in the _________ _________ region.

Back 54

anterior maxillary

Front 55

A single enlarged tooth in which the tooth count reveals a missing tooth when the anomalous tooth is counted as one

Back 55

fusion

Front 56

Fusion is most commonly observed in the ________ ___________ region.

Back 56

anterior mandibular

Front 57

Union of two adjacent teeth by cementum alone without confluence of the underlying dentin; may be developmental or postinflammatory

Back 57

concrescence

Front 58

Concrescence is most common in the __________ __________ region.

Back 58

maxillary posterior

Front 59

The majority of talon cusps occur in ___________ dentition; usually on which teeth?

Back 59

permanent dentition; maxillary lateral incisor > maxillary central

Front 60

When talon cusps occur in deciduous dentition they are usually located on what teeth?

Back 60

maxillary central incisor

Front 61

What is the sex predilection of talon cusps?

Back 61

M = F

Front 62

Deep surface invagination of the crown or root that is lined by enamel and exists in 2 forms: coronal and radicular

Back 62

Dens in Dente (Dens Invaginatus) "tooth within a tooth"

Front 63

Which form of dens invaginatus is more common?

Back 63

coronal (>radicular)

Front 64

dens invaginatus most commonly affects which teeth?

Back 64

permanent lateral incisors > central incisors > premolars > canines > molars

Front 65

Radiographs demonstrate a dilated invagination lined by enamel

Back 65

dens invaginatus

Front 66

Treatment for dens invaginatus

Back 66

-seal opening

-possible endo or extraction

Front 67

non-neoplastic deposition of excessive cementum that's continuous with the normal radicular cementum

Back 67

hypercementosis

Front 68

hypercementosis may be due to

Back 68

- occlusal trauma

- adjacent inflammation

- unopposed teeth

Front 69

hypercementosis most often involves _________ ____________.

Back 69

mandibular molars

Front 70

What are the histopathologic features of hypercementosis?

Back 70

excessive deposition of cellular and/or acellular cementum (normal cementum just too much of it)

Front 71

An abnormal angulation or bend in the root of a tooth; majority arise after an injury from tumor or cyst that displaces the calcified portion of the tooth germ.

Back 71

dilaceration

Front 72

Hereditary (autosomal dominant) developmental disturbance of the dentin; may be associated with osteogenesis imperfecta

Back 72

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 73

Are the deciduous or permanent teeth more severely affected by dentinogenesis imperfecta?

Back 73

deciduous

Front 74

Are all teeth affected and abnormal in a patient with DI?

Back 74

yes

Front 75

Teeth have a blue-to-brown discoloration with a distinctive translucency; normal enamel chips away from underlying defective dentin.

When exposed, dentin exhibits marked ______.

Back 75

Dentinogenesis imperfecta; attrition

Front 76

Radiographs of teeth affected by dentinogenesis imperfecta are characterized by:

Back 76

- bulbous crowns

- cervical constriction

- thin roots

- obliteration of the root canals and pulp chambers (not visible in radiographs)

resemble TULIPS*

Front 77

Obliteration of the root canals is a radiographic characteristic of .....

Back 77

dentinogenesis imperfecta

Front 78

Treatment for DI usually involves

Back 78

CD or implants (if patient does not have osteogenesis imperfecta)

Front 79

Which type of dentin dysplasia looks normal clinically?

Back 79

DD2

Front 80

Which type of dentin dysplasia is characterized by an elongated, apically positioned pulp chamber in the permanent dentition?

Back 80

DD2

Front 81

"bow tie change in molars"

Back 81

DD2

Front 82

Is the root length normal in type 2 dentin dysplasia?

Back 82

yes, DD2 is "coronal dysplasia"

Front 83

Which type of dentin dysplasia is characterized by shortened root length?

Back 83

type 1 (radicular)

Front 84

What causes the shortened root length in radicular dentin dysplasia (type 1)?

Back 84

loss of organization of the root dentin

Front 85

is dentin dysplasia correlated with any systemic disease and/or DI?

Back 85

No

Front 86

Enamel and coronal dentin are normal; extreme tooth mobility and premature exfoliation

Back 86

radicular dentin dysplasia (DD1)

Front 87

How does DD1 of deciduous teeth present?

Back 87

little or no detectable pulp and short roots

Front 88

How does DD1 present in permanent teeth?

Back 88

no pulp with short roots to cresent or chevron-shaped pulp chambers with PULP STONES

Front 89

Are pulp stones a characteristic of dentinogenesis imperfecta?

Back 89

NO! Only of dentin dysplasia

Front 90

Are the roots normal or abnormal in DI?

Back 90

normal

Front 91

Exhibits numerous features of dentinogenesis imperfecta; normal root length

Back 91

coronal dentin dysplasia

Front 92

How does coronal dentin dysplasia (DD2) present in deciduous teeth?

Back 92

- blue/brown translucence

- bulbous crowns, cervical constriction, thin roots, obliteration of the pulp

(same as dentinogenesis imperfecta!)

Front 93

How do you distinguish between DI and DD2 in a child?

Back 93

Have to wait until permanent teeth come in; if they are normal then it's DD2, if they look the same as the deciduous teeth then it's DI

Front 94

coronal dentin dysplasia is characterized in the permanent dentition by ...

Back 94

-normal clinical coloration

-enlarged pulp chambers with apical extension (flame shaped)

-pulp stones

Front 95

Enlargement of the body and pulp chamber of a multirooted tooth with apical displacement of the pulpal floor and bifurication of the roots; affected teeth tend to be rectangular in shape

Back 95

Taurodontism

Front 96

Inflammatory cyst that arises at the apex of a nonvital tooth

Back 96

periapical cyst

Front 97

A periapical cyst that arises along the lateral surface of a nonvital tooth

Back 97

lateral periapical cyst

Front 98

What are the clinical features of periapical cysts?

Back 98

usually asymptomatic, swelling/mild sensitivity

Front 99

What is the radiographic presentation of periapical cysts?

Back 99

well delineated radiolucency, loss of lamina dura, root resoprtion

Front 100

What are the histological characteristics of a periapical cyst?

Back 100

lined by inflamed stratified squamous epithelium

Front 101

Where does the statified squamous epithelium that lines periapical cysts originate?

Back 101

epithelial rests of Malessez

Front 102

A well-defined radiolucency within the alveolar bone at the site of a previous tooth extraction

Back 102

residual periapical cyst

Front 103

What are the clinical features of a residual periapical cyst?

Back 103

same as a periapical cyst: usually asymptomatic, swelling/mild sensitivity

Front 104

How do residual periapical cysts present radiographically?

Back 104

may have hyperostotic border!

(radiolucency lined by radiopaque border)

Front 105

What are the histologic characteristic of residual periapical cysts?

Back 105

same as in periapical cysts (lined by inflamed stratified squamous epithelium from the Epithelial Rests of Malessez

Front 106

What is the most common developmental odontogenic cyst?

Back 106

dentigerous cyst

Front 107

Arises from accumulation of fluid between the reduced enamel epithelium and the tooth crown and is always associated with an impacted tooth

Back 107

dentigerous cyst

Front 108

Dentigerous cysts are always associated with ________ _______

Back 108

impacted teeth

Front 109

What causes dentigerous cysts to form around impacted teeth?

Back 109

accumulation of fluid between the reduced enamel epithelium and the tooth crown

Front 110

What is the most common location of dentigerous cysts?

Back 110

1. mandibular 3rd molars
2. maxillary canines
3. maxillary 3rd molars

Front 111

What is the most common age/sex for dentigerous cyst formation

Back 111

10 to 30 years old; male sex predilection

Front 112

Cyst that typically occurs from one side of the CEJ over the clinical side and terminates on the CEJ on the other side

Back 112

dentigerous cyst

Front 113

What are the radiographic characteristics of dentigerous cysts?

Back 113

unilocular radiolucency assocaited with the crown of an unerupted tooth

Front 114

What are the histopathologic features of a noninflamed dentigerous cyst?

Back 114

lined by 2 to 4 layers of flattened nonkeratinized epithelial cells

Front 115

What are the histopathologic featuers of an inflamed dentigerous cyst?

Back 115

lined by hyperplastic stratified squamous epithelium or ciliated columnar epithelium with or without mucous cells

Front 116

Where does the epithelium that lines dentigerous cysts originate?

Back 116

reduced enamel epithelium

Front 117

What is the soft tissue analogue of the dentigerous cyst?

Back 117

Eruption cyst

Front 118

Swelling of the gingival mucosa overlying the crown of an erupting deciduous or permanent tooth

Back 118

eruption cyst

Front 119

Which teeth are most commonly associated with eurption cyst formation?

Back 119

1. primary incisors (centrals)
2. first permanent molars

Front 120

What are the histopathologic features of eruption cysts?

Back 120

lined by thin layer of nonkeratinized stratified sqaumous epithelium

Front 121

What is an eruption hematoma?

Back 121

When blood accumulates in the cystic fluid of an eruption cyst

Front 122

Odontogenic keratocysts (OKCs) arise from cell _______ of the _______ _______

Back 122

rests; dental lamina

(Rests of Serres)

Front 123

OKCs tend to grow in an ________to________ direction

Back 123

anterior to posterior

Front 124

60 to 80% of OKCs involve the __________ __________

Back 124

posterior mandible

Front 125

When do the majority of OKCs arise?

Back 125

10 to 40 years of age (mostly in men)

Front 126

What are the radiographic features of odontogenic keratocysts?

Back 126

• Unilocular or multilocular radiolucency
• only associated with unerupted tooth less than 40% of the time
• root resorption less common that in dentigerous cysts

Front 127

What are the histopathologic features of OKCs?

Back 127

1. lined by uniform layer of stratified squamous epithelium
2. basal layer is composed of palisaded cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells that stand upright like tin soilders
3. parakeratinized luminal surface, no rete pegs

Front 128

Which cyst has the highest recurrence rate?

Back 128

Odontogenic keratocysts (30%)

Front 129

An autosomal dominant disorder characterized by multiple basal cell carcinomas of the skin and multiple OKCs

Back 129

Gorlin syndrome (nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome)

Front 130

40% of patients with Gorlin syndrome have ______ __________

Back 130

ocular hypertelorism

Front 131

Besides multiple basal cell carcinomas and OKCs, what else characterizes Gorlin syndrome?

Back 131

• rib and vertebral anomalies
• intracranial calcifications
• palmar and plantar pits

Front 132

What is the soft tissue counterpart of the lateral periodontal cyst?

Back 132

gingival cyst of the adult

Front 133

Gingival cysts and lateral periodontal cysts are both derived from what?

Back 133

rests of the dental lamina (Rests of Serre)

Front 134

Both gingival cysts and lateral periodontal cysts have a predilection for which region?

Back 134

mandibular canine and premolar

Front 135

What is the difference between lateral periapical cysts and lateral periodontal cysts?

Back 135

PA - NONVITAL

PD - VITAL!

Front 136

What is a Botryoid odontogenic cyst?

Back 136

variant of lateral periodontal cyst that is multilocular instead of unilocular and is recurrent

Front 137

What are the histopathologic features of ginigval cysts/lateral periodontal cysts?

Back 137

lined by thin,flattened epithelium with focal plaque like thickenings (ballooning up) that contain clear cells

Front 138

Where are calcifying odontogenic cysts (Gorlin cysts) found?

Back 138

mostly intraosseously but can present on gingiva; mandible = maxilla; most in incisor and canine region

Front 139

What is unique about the location of calcifying odontogenic cysts?

Back 139

Found in anterior jaw

Front 140

What are the radiographic features of calcifying odontogenic cysts?

Back 140

-unilocular or multilocular radiolucency or radiodensity (LUCENT & MIXED category)

-1/3 cases involve impacted tooth

Front 141

What are the histological features of COCs?

Back 141

• lined by odontogenic eptihelium
• basal layer is cuboidal or columnar
• GHOST cells (where calcification occurs)

Front 142

Ameloblastomas are derived from what?

Back 142

odontogenic epithelium

Front 143

What are the three different subtypes of ameloblastomas?

Back 143

conventional solid or mulcystic (86%), unicystic (13%), peripheral (1%)

Front 144

What age is associated with conventional solid/multicystic ameloblastoma?

Back 144

40 y/o; m=f

Front 145

85% of conventional solid/multicystic ameloblastomas occur where?

Back 145

in the molar ascending ramus of the mandible

Front 146

What are the radiographic features of conventional solid/ multicystic ameloblastomas?

Back 146

Unilocular or multilocular radiolucency; root resportion; associated with unerupted teeth

Front 147

What are the histopathologic traits of conventional ameloblastomas?

Back 147

follicular and plexiform patterns are most common

Front 148

Which type of ameloblastoma affects younger patients?

Back 148

unicystic; 2nd decade

Front 149

Where do most unicystic ameloblastomas arise?

Back 149

posterior mandible

Front 150

How do you tell a cystic ameloblastoma from a dentigerous cyst?

Back 150

YOU CAN’T without biopsy

Front 151

What are the histopathologic features of unicystic ameloblastomas?

Back 151

3 subtypes: luminal, intraluminal, mural

Front 152

Pedunculated gingival or alveolar mucosal lesion usually in mandible

Back 152

peripheral ameloblastoma

Front 153

Histopathological features of peripheral ameloblastoma

Back 153

islands of ameloblastic epithelium occupy the lamina propria underneath the surface epithelium

Front 154

What is the classic presentation of AOT?

Back 154

20 y/o female, anterior maxillary region, usually cuspid (6,11)

Front 155

What are two examples of mixed radiolucency/radiopacity?

Back 155

COC and AOT

Front 156

What is the radiographic presentation of AOT?

Back 156

well circumscribed UNILOCULAR radiolucency involving crown of unerupted tooth; two types: follicular and extrafollicular; may demonstrate fine calcifications

Front 157

What are the histopathologic features of AOT?

Back 157

whorled masses of spindle shaped epithelial cells and DUCT like structures; foci of calcificaiton

Front 158

What tumors are derived from both odontogenic epithelium and odontogenic mesenchyme?

Back 158

ameloblastic fibromas, ameolblastic fibroodontomas, odontomas

Front 159

Which tumor is the most differentiated?

Back 159

odontoma

Front 160

70% of ameloblastic fibromas arise where?

Back 160

posterior mandible of boys in 1rst of 2nd decade of life; mixed dentition!

Front 161

Ameloblastomas and ameloblastic fibromas both arise where?

Back 161

posterior mandible

Front 162

Radiographically, ameloblastic fibromas present how?

Back 162

unilocular or multilocular radiolucency often associated with unerupted tooth

Front 163

What are the histopathologic features of ameloblastic fibromas?

Back 163

cell rich mesenchyme resembling dental papilla admixed with proliferating odontogenic epithelium

Front 164

Ameloblastic fibroma may progress to what?

Back 164

ameoblastic fibrosarcoma

Front 165

During transformation from ameloblastic fibroma to ameloblastic fibrosarcoma which component undergoes malignant transformation?

Back 165

ameloblastic mesenchyme

Front 166

Average age of ameloblastic fibroodontoma?

Back 166

10; m=f

Front 167

Are ameloblastic fibro-odontomas most commonly found in maxilla or mandible?

Back 167

equally in both

Front 168

What are the radiographic features of ameloblastic fibro-odontomas?

Back 168

unilocular or multilocular radiolucency with variable amounts of calcification; often associated with unerupted tooth

Front 169

What tumor is a mixed-only lesion? (radiographically)

Back 169

ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

Front 170

What is the histopathology of ameloblastic fibro-odontomas?

Back 170

combination of an ameloblastic fibroma and an odontoma

Front 171

What is the most common odontogenic tumor?

Back 171

odontoma

Front 172

Average age of presentation of an odontoma

Back 172

14

Front 173

Where do odontomas most typically present?

Back 173

maxilla of 14 year old

Front 174

What are the two subtypes of odontoma and where are they found?

Back 174

compound: anterior maxilla

complex: posterior maxilla or mandible

Front 175

Which tumor probably represents a hamartoma? (proliferation of normal tissue in normal location)

Back 175

odontoma

Front 176

What is the radiographic classification of odontomas?

Back 176

opaque!

compound: multiple tooth-like structures

complex: calcified mass with the radiodensity of a tooth

Front 177

What is the histopathologic prototype of odontoma?

Back 177

compound: multiple tooth-like structures

complex: disorganized mass of dentin, enamel, cementum, and pulp tissue

Front 178

Which type of tumor often sits on the crown of a tooth preventing eruption?

Back 178

complex odontoma

Front 179

Which two tumor types are derived from odontogenic mesenchyme?

Back 179

1) myxoma

2) cementoblastoma

Front 180

Which two tumor types are radiographically opaque?

Back 180

1) odontoma

2) cementoblastoma

Front 181

Derived from odontogenic mesenchyme; average age 25-30 M=F; mandible>maxilla

Back 181

myxoma

Front 182

What are the radiographic characteristics of myxomas?

Back 182

-unilocular or multilocular radiolucency

-irregular scalloped margins

Front 183

What are the histopathologic features of myxoma?

Back 183

stellate or spindle-shaped cells in loose myxoid stroma with few collagen fibers

ground substance is an acid mucopolysaccharide: hyaluronic acid and chondroitin sulfate

Front 184

Spindle shaped cells are found in what two tumor types?

Back 184

1) adenomatoid odontogenic tumor (AOT)

2) myxoma

Front 185

derived from odontogenic mesenchyme; usually arrises in mandible (associated with first permanent molar) usually in people under 20 years old m=f

Back 185

cementoblastoma

Front 186

what are the radiographic characteristics of cementoblastoma?

Back 186

-radiopaque!

-mass fused to roots

-usually mandibular first molar

-sometimes surrounded by radiolucent rim (PDL)

Front 187

What are the histopathologic features of cementoblastomas?

Back 187

-mass of mineralized cementum containing plump cementoblasts

-radiating trabeculae at the periphery of the mass

Front 188

painful recurrent mucosal ulcers

Back 188

apthous stomatitis

Front 189

What is the pathogenesis of apthous stomatitis?

Back 189

immunologic basis (cytotoxic t-cells)

Front 190

What are some systemic diseases that might be associated with recurrent apthous stomatitis?

Back 190

-neutropenia

-anemia

-celiac disease

-crohn's disease

-AIDS

Front 191

What is pondrome?

Back 191

burning, tingling, itching

Front 192

What is the most common type of apthous ulcer?

Back 192

minor -80%

Front 193

What sex is more affected my minor apthous stomatitis?

Back 193

females

Front 194

What is sutton's disease?

Back 194

major type of recurrent apthous stomatitis;

Front 195

What are the three types of apthous stomatitis?

Back 195

minor

major

herpetiform

Front 196

which type of apthous stomatitis is common in adults, not adolesence?

Back 196

herpetiform (female predilection)

Front 197

which type of apthous stomatitis heals WITH scarring?

Back 197

major form - sutton's disease

Front 198

found on the soft palate, tonsils, labial mucosa

Back 198

major apthous stomatitis

Front 199

Which ulcer has the most lesions, smallest size and highest recurrence?

Back 199

herpetiform

Front 200

Where do apthous ulcerations due to Behcet's syndrome appear within the oral cavity?

Back 200

soft palate-oropharynx

Front 201

irregular, ragged deep-seated ulcers are characteristic of what?

Back 201

Behcet's syndrome

Front 202

List the histologic features of Behcet's syndrome

Back 202

- leukocytoclastic vasculitis

- neutrophilic infiltration

- karyorrhexis

- erythrocyte extravasation

- fibrinoid necrosis

- ulceration

Front 203

_________ arrises due to immunodysregulation folloowing antigenic exposure to mycobacterium.

Back 203

sarcoidosis

Front 204

Although oral involvement is rare in sarcoidosis, what might you expect to observe?

Back 204

-mucosal lesions

-submucosal swelling

-bone destruction

-periodontitis

-salivary enlargement

-sicca syndrome (xerostomia)

Front 205

What are the two subtypes of sarcoidosis?

Back 205

1) Heerfordt's syndrome (uveoparotid fever)

2) Lofgren's syndrome

Front 206

Heerfordt's syndrome is chracterized by:

Back 206

- parotid enlargement

- facial paralysis

- anterior uveitis

- fever

Front 207

Lofgren's syndrome is chracterized by:

Back 207

- acute transient form

- fever

- Hilar lymphadenopathy

-migrating polyarthritis

- erythemea nodosum

- acute iritis

- selflimiting

Front 208

- _____________ inflammation

- _____________ and _______ bodies

- negative for organisms and foreign material

-multinucleated giant cells

are histologic characteristics of what?

Back 208

-granulomatous infammtion

- asteroid and schaumann bodies

sarcoidosis

Front 209

What would you expect to see on biopsy of sarcoidosis?

Back 209

non-caseating granulomas

Front 210

What type of disease is sarcoidosis?

Back 210

a mutli-system granulomatous disease

Front 211

What are the clinical lab findings of sarcoidosis?

Back 211

elevated serum angiotensin converting enzynme

hypercalcemia

elevated serum alkaline phosphatase

eosinophila

kveim-siltzbach skin test

Front 212

What disease has respiratory tract infections, renal problems?

Back 212

Wegener's granulomatosis

Front 213

Strawberry gingivitis and bone destruction leading to tooth mobility

Back 213

Wegener's granulomatosis

Front 214

characterized by systemic necrotizing vasculitis and granulomatous inflammation

Back 214

Wegener's granulomatosis

Front 215

What are the signs of upper respiratory involvement in Wegener's granulomatosis?

Back 215

epistaxis

saddle nose deformity

bone destruction

Front 216

Red cell casts are characteristic of what?

Back 216

renal involvement in Wegener's granulomatosis

Front 217

What is the histology of Wegner's granulomatosis?

Back 217

-vasculitis in small arteries and veins

-transmural inflammation

-necrotizing granulomatous inflammation

Front 218

What is the classic clinical lab finding in the dx of Wegener's granulomatosis?

Back 218

cANCA (antineutrophil cytoplasm antibodies)

Front 219

Tx for Wegener's granulomatosis

Back 219

cyclophosphamide and steroids/immunosuppresive drugs

Front 220

Oral vesiculoulcerative lesions, burning pain, erythema, ulceration, chelitis

Back 220

allergic contact stomatitis

Front 221

chelitis

Back 221

perioral deramtitis

Front 222

Histology of allergic contact stomatitis

Back 222

lichenoid and perivascular pattern

Front 223

sex predilection for allergic contact somatitis

Back 223

females

Front 224

Oral mucosal antigenic sensitization

Back 224

-breif contact

-salivary dilution

-rapid dispersal

-rapid adsorption

-low density of Langerhans cells

-low density of T-lymphocytes

Front 225

What are the common sites for a contact reaction to cinnamon?

Back 225

buccal mucosa, lateral tongue

Front 226

Lesions caused by contact stomatitis from artificial cinnamon flavoring are

Back 226

erythematous, erosive, hyperkeratotic

Front 227

Lincheoid contact stomatitis form dental restorative materials can arise due to exposure to

Back 227

- metals (amalgam, gold, cobalt, chromium)

- impression materials

- denture adhesives

- mouthwashes

- acrylic monomer

Front 228

What is the most frequent antigen in a Lincheoid reaction to dental amalgam?

Back 228

Mercury

Front 229

What is the most common site for Lincheoid reaction to dental amalgam?

Back 229

buccal musoca, lateral tongue, gingiva (only where there is DIRECT contact)

Front 230

What is the congenital pathology of the redundant mucosal fold that characterizes "double lip?"

Back 230

sulcus pars glabrosa - villosa

Front 231

What is the acquired etiology of the redundant mucosal fold that characterizes "double lip?"

Back 231

parafunctional habits

trauma

Front 232

Double lip is associated with ___________ _________.

Back 232

Ascher syndrome (acquired form)

Front 233

Histology of Double Lip:

Back 233

• normal mucosal structures
• minor salivary gland lobules
• prolapsed adipose tissue

Front 234

In addition to Double Lip, what are some other clinical features of Ascher syndrome?

Back 234

• blepharochalasis (upper eyelid edema)
• non-toxic thyroid enlargement
• autosomal dominant inheritance

Front 235

Multiple yellow/white sebaceous glands on the buccal mucosa or upper vermilion.

Back 235

Fordyce granules

Front 236

Fordyce granules are most commonly found where?

Back 236

buccal mucosa or upper vermilion

Front 237

Histology of Fordyce granules

Back 237

submucosal sebaceous lobules with central duct emptying to surface

large follicular cells

Front 238

Complications of Fordyce granules might include

Back 238

hyperplasia, cyst formation

Front 239

Common, normal anatomical variation characterized by milky opalescent gray/white folds on _______ mucosa

Back 239

buccal;

Leukoedema

Front 240

Leukoedema is more common in _____ people and is worsened in ________.

Back 240

black; smokers

Front 241

What are two diagnostic features of Leukoedema?

Back 241

- diminishes with stretching of mucosa

- does not rub off

Front 242

Histology of Leukoedema

Back 242

• acanthosis
• intracellular edema
• parakeratinization

Front 243

Englarged tongue with crenated/scalloped lateral border

Back 243

macroglossia

Front 244

Complications due to macroglossia include

Back 244

• open bite
• malocclusion
• airway obstruction
• speech interference
• drooling

Front 245

Macroglossia can be either ______ or ______

Back 245

hereditary or acquired

Front 246

hereditary macroglossia is characterized by

Back 246

• Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
• vascular malformations
• Down syndrome
• cretinism
• neurofibromatosis
• multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome

Front 247

Besides macroglossia, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome also presents with

Back 247

• omphalocele
• visceromegaly
• gigantism
• maxillary hypoplasia
• visceral malignancies

Front 248

Acquired macroglossia can arise due to

Back 248

• edentulous
• amyloidosis
• myxedema
• acromegaly
• angioedema
• neoplasms -carcinoma

Front 249

What is ankyloglossia?

Back 249

a short thick lingual frenum that limits movement of the tongue

Front 250

ankyloglossia is more common in ____

Back 250

men

Front 251

Complications from ankyloglossia include:

Back 251

• open bite
• speech difficulties
• swallowing difficulties

Front 252

Presence of ectopic thyroid tissue at the base of the tongue due to failure of thyroid migration?

Back 252

Lingual thyroid

Front 253

Which gender is more affected by lingual thyroid?

Back 253

female

Front 254

What is fissured tongue?

Back 254

grooves or fissures on dorsal tongue; more common in men with an increasing prevalence and severity with age

Front 255

Histology of fissured tongue

Back 255

• grooves
• epithelial hyperplasia
• inflammation

Front 256

Fissured tongue associations

Back 256

• geographic tongue
• Melkersson-Rosenthal Syndrome
• Down syndrome

Front 257

What is Melkerrson-Rosenthal syndrome?

Back 257

A condition associated with fissured tongue characterized also by orofacial granulomatosis and facial paralysis.

Front 258

Arises due to keratin accumulation on the dorsal tongue surface

Back 258

Hairy tongue

Front 259

Histology of Hairy Tongue

Back 259

• elongated filiform papillae
• hyperparakeratosis
• microbial colonization
• staining/pigmentation

Front 260

dilated, torturous veins that appear sublingually or on lips/buccal mucosa in the aging population

Back 260

varicosities

Front 261

Does the formation of varicosities have anything to do with hypertension or cardiovascular disease?

Back 261

no

Front 262

Histology of varicosities

Back 262

dilated thin walled vein

Front 263

varicosities can result in possible __________ __________ which fomrs a calcified phlebolith

Back 263

secondary thrombosis

Front 264

localized cortical osseous protuberances with a non-neoplastic, reactive etiology

Back 264

exostoses

Front 265

What is the histology of exostoses, torus palatinus, and torus mandibularis?

Back 265

dense mass lamellar cortical bone

Front 266

An exotosis in the lingual mandibular cortex

Back 266

torus mandibularis

Front 267

Mandibular tori are bilateral ___% of the time

Back 267

90

Front 268

What is the ethnic predilection for tori?

Back 268

• asian
• inuit

Front 269

A focal lingual mandibular bone concavity

Back 269

Stafne defect

Front 270

Characterized by a pseudocystic radiolucent lesion

Back 270

Stafne defect

Front 271

Stafne defects are stable but can enlarge over time to form

Back 271

static bone cysts

Front 272

Gender predilection for Stafne defects

Back 272

Male

Front 273

What usually causes Stafne defects?

Back 273

submandibular salivary gland pushing up against bone

Front 274

Where are Stafne defects located within the mandibular angle?

Back 274

completely below the mandibular canal (and therefore, unlikely to be of odontogenic origin)

Front 275

Are Stafne defects usually unilateral or bilateral?

Back 275

unilateral

Front 276

Radiographic characterization of Stafne defects

Back 276

• well-circumscribed
• smooth corticated border
• radiolucent (pseudocystic)