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69 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How many secondary curves are there?
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2. the primary curve is a kyphosis. The secondary curves are the lordoses of the cervical and lumbar area.
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when does the cervical curve develop?
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child begins to hold its head up
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when does the lumbar curve develop?
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child begins to stand and walk
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What is the normal Ferguson angle?
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30-40 degrees
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Sagittal plane orientation of the facets favors which movements?
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F and E, not so much Rotation and SBing
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what percent of the population have congenital osseous asymmetry? And which one is most common? (sacralization, lumbarization, spina bifida occulta, facet asym)
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40% and facet asym
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what is facet asym?
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facet is in a different plane
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where is the most likely place on the vertebral body for a compression fracture and why?
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Anterior triangle becomes weak link for compression fracture due to lack of bone deposition. (wolfe's law points out bone deposition along line of stress, which this area does not usually have any).
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what is the batwing deformity?
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sacralization
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of the nucleus propulsus, the annulus is embryogically from ____.
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mesenchyme
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of the nucleus propulsus, the notocord (soon to be propulsus) is embryogically from ____.
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ectoderm
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what does the nucleus propulsus have a content of?
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water
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Decreased disc thickness causes an increased weight load on the ___ joint
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facet
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what position applies the greatest load possible to the IV disc?
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sitting with poor posture
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which ligament around the spine is broad and limits extension?
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ant longitudinal ligament
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which ligament around the spine is narrow and limits flexion?
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posterior longitudinal ligament
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superiorly, the ant longitudinal ligament continues on as what?
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atlanto-Axial ligament, running straight up
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superiorly, the post longitudinal ligament continues on as what?
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tectorial membrane, (runs just over the transverse ligament).
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the iliolumbar ligaments are commonly strained in traumatic injuries. What are their superior attachment points?
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transverse processes of L4 and L5
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what is the attachment point of the diaphragm's left crus?
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L1-L2
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what is the attachment point of the diaphragm's right crus?
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L1-L3
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what is the origin and insertion of Quadratus lumborum?
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Originates on inf. border of 12th rib and tips of lumbar transverse processes. Inserts on Iliolumbar ligament and iliac crest.
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what is the origin and insertion of Psoas major?
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Originates on transverse process of T12-L5. Inserts on lesser trochanter of femur.
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what is the origin and insertion of Psoas minor?
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Originates on transverse process of T12-L1. Inserts on Pectineal line.
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what is the origin and insertion of Latissimus dorsi?
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Originates on Humerus (intertubecular groove). Inserts on T7-12,Iliac crest, Thoracolumbar fascia.
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what is the origin and insertion of Gluteus maximus?
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Originates in Thoracolumbar fascia and on dorsal sacrum. Inserts on Iliotibial band and femur.
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what is the innervation of Quadratus lumborum?
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Innervation T12,L1-4 ventral rami
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what is the innervation of Psoas major?
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Innervation L1-3(2-4) ventral rami
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what is the innervation of Psoas minor?
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Innervation L1 ventral rami
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what is the innervation of Latissimus dorsi?
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Innervation: Thoracodorsal nerve (C6-8)
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what is the innervation of Gluteus maximus?
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Innervation: Inferior Gluteal nerve (L5,S1-2)
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what is the function of Quadratus lumborum?
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Extension and sidebending
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what is the function of Psoas major?
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Flexes and internally rotates hip
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what is the function of Psoas minor?
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Flexes hip
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what is the function of Latissimus dorsi?
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Humerus motion and raises body to arms during climbing
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what is the function of Gluteus maximus?
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Extends hip and stabilizes torso
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what are the dirty half-dozen coined by Phil Greenman for "failed back"?
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4S's, Type 2, and Psoas muscle imbalance. S's are 1. Shear - Pubic. 2. Shear - Sup inominate (as in pregos). 3. Sacrum ext. 4. Shorty leg
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in radiology, a "bulging" disc means what?
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an incomplete disc herniation, (not ruptured).
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Disc herniations occur most often in which direction and in what part of the spine?
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Posterio-lateral herniation most common. Why? narrow posterior longitudinal ligament. 98% will be in L4-L5-S1
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which Nerve Root exits the foramina inferior to the superior pedicle of L4's vertebral body and superior to the intervertebral disc of L5?
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L4
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L4-L5 compression will compromise which nerve root?
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L5. X+1 rule. Nerve root X will have already exited the foramina and will be unaffected
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What are the 3 things to test for in L4 neuro exam?
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1. Foot inversion (Tibialis anterior) 2. Patellar reflex 3. Medial aspect of foot sensation
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What are the 2 things to test for in L5 neuro exam?
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1. Great toe extension (Extensor Hallicus longus) 2. Dorsum of foot sensation
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What are the 3 things to test for in S1 neuro exam?
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1. Foot eversion (Peroneus longus and brevis) 2. Achilles tendon reflex 3. Lateral foot sensation
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Positive Babinski reflex indicates what?
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upper motor neuron problems, specifically pyrimidal tract.
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Positive Babinski reflex indicates a problem in the Upper motor neurons. What are three spots this could have occurred?
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cortical, subcortical, spinal cord.
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What is the origin and insertion of Piriformis?
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Originates on the anterior lateral border of the sacrum. Insertion is on the upper border of the greater trochanter.
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what is the function of piriformis?
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Action is external rotation of extended thigh and abduction of flexed thigh
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what is the only muscle to bridge the anterior SI joint?
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piriformis
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What is the innervation to piriformis?
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Innervation is L4-S3
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the Left Colon is innervated by?
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T12 - L2
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the bladder is innervated by?
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T12 - L2
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the prostate is innervated by?
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T12 - L2
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the lower extremity is innervated by?
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T12 - L2
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Ileus is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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sympathetics
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Constipation is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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sympathetics
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Abdominal pain is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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sympathetics
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Flatulence is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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sympathetics
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Distension is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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sympathetics
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Colitis is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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parasympathetics
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Crohn’s is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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parasympathetics
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IBS (both inc.) is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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parasympathetics
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Diarrhea is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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parasympathetics
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Vomiting is associated with an increase in parasymps or symps?
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parasympathetics
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In Straight leg raise test, doc raises leg to what degrees?
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70 to 90
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what is a good follow up test to the straight-leg test? What do you do? What does it indicate?
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Braggard's test. Lower leg and then dorsiflex foot. If negative, but Straight leg test was positive, you might have tight hamstrings.
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Whats the thomas test?
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knee to chest, monitor the back of knee for lift. (shortened psoas m.)
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Hipdrop test screens for the ability of what?
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the lumbar and lumbothroacic region to sidebend away from the side of the hip drop (meaning SB to the lifted leg). more specifically, the gluteus medius muscle on the weight bearing leg pull the hip up normally to shift weight closer to lifted leg and center of body. if this muscle is weak on the weight-bearing leg, then the body gravity line will be shifted to much to the weight-bearing side and lead to instability.
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what is a positive hip drop sign?
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the plane of the iliac crests drops less than 20 degrees and/or the lumbar and thoracolumbar spine does not side bend with a smooth lateral curve; named to the side being tested
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