Opp Sem 1 Test 2 Review

Front 1

___ ____ are mechanoreceptors in muscles that report muscle stretch

Back 1

Muscle spindles

Front 2

Chapman’s Reflexes are what type or reflex?

Back 2

Viscero-somatic reflex

Front 3

Chapman's reflexes are Approximately what length in diameter?

Back 3

2-3mm

Front 4

how long do you hold a person in counterstrain?

Back 4

90 seconds

Front 5

if you give a person a lot of steroids (7 days) and then cut them off, what happens?

Back 5

adrenal insufficiency. Tender points in lung, (untapered steroids), but the adrenal reflex caused this (lungs will be clear).

Front 6

indirect Muscle Energy - antagonist muscle is contracted to inhibit the agonist. Give an example of this.

Back 6

biceps are stuck in flexion. Push it further into flexion, patient passive, triceps become extended, (antagonist), which will inhibit the biceps (agonist) further until there is a release. Think of snap power outlet on desk as example.

Front 7

DIRECT TECHNIQUE When applied by the physician the final activating force is described in terms of what two properties?

Back 7

1. AMPLITUDE: the distance over which the force is applied. 2. VELOCITY: the speed with which the force is applied.

Front 8

What are the types of Direct Techniques?

Back 8

6 total. 1. soft tissue 2. articulatory 3. springing 4. myofascial release 5. muscle energy 6. HVLA

Front 9

is soft tissue directed towards skeletal or arthroidal?

Back 9

neither

Front 10

which technique (and what type) has the following characteristics? 1. Directed at tissues other than skeletal or arthrodial. 2. Usually involves lateral / linear stretching, and/or deep pressure, traction and/or separation of muscle origin & insertion while monitoring tissue response & motion changes by palpation. 3. Therapeutic goal: muscular & fascial relaxation.

Back 10

Soft Tissue Technique. (Direct passive)

Front 11

vert level: rib 2?

Back 11

Sternal angle – T4/5 disc (rib 2)

Front 12

vert level: Sternal angle?

Back 12

Sternal angle – T4/5 disc (rib 2)

Front 13

vert level: umbilicus?

Back 13

Umbilicus – L3-4

Front 14

vert level: Sup angle of scapula?

Back 14

Superior angle of scapula – T2

Front 15

Counterstrain: technique to treat ___ ____.

Back 15

tender points

Front 16

which technique requires taking a limb through it’s full range of motion with specific attention directed at the dysfunctional barrier(s)?

Back 16

direct passive articulatory treatment.

Front 17

____ is A technique in which the restrictive barrier is engaged repeatedly to produce an increased freedom of motion.

Back 17

springing

Front 18

Which type of muscle contraction maintains constant muscle length?

Back 18

ISOMETRIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION

Front 19

Which type of muscle contraction has muscle length shorten?

Back 19

ISOTONIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION

Front 20

Which type of muscle contraction has muscle length increase?

Back 20

ISOLYTIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION

Front 21

Hypotonic, reflexively inhibited muscles are frequently treated with ____ contractions.

Back 21

ISOTONIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION

Front 22

what type of muscle contraction is Used for the treatment of fibrotic or chronically shortened myofascial tissues?

Back 22

ISOLYTIC MUSCLE CONTRACTION

Front 23

Also referred to as short restrictors, what type of muscles are considered key in maintaining Type II, segmental dysfunctions?

Back 23

MONOARTICULAR MUSCLES

Front 24

Also referred to as long restrictors, what type of muscles are considered key in maintaining Type I, group dysfunctions?

Back 24

POLYARTICULAR MUSCLES

Front 25

what muscle receives intrafusal gamma motor innervation and sends afferents through Ia and II nerve fibers?

Back 25

muscle spindle - senses stretch, found parallel to each other.

Front 26

in resting position, scapula lies between which ribs?

Back 26

2 thru 7

Front 27

the ___ Relies on muscles rather than bones/ligaments for support

Back 27

shoulder

Front 28

the shoulder is Composed of 3 joints and 1 “articulation”: sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and glenohumeral joints. The articulation is _______.

Back 28

scapulothoracic

Front 29

Glenohumeral – type of joint?

Back 29

ball and socket between

Front 30

the Sternoclavicular joint has an intra-articular disc - what type of joint is this?

Back 30

saddle

Front 31

Acromioclavicular - type of joint?

Back 31

planar

Front 32

the subacromial burse reducaes tension between the coracoacromial arch and what muscle?

Back 32

supraspinatus

Front 33

what are the rotator cuff muscles?

Back 33

SITS - Supra, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, Subscapularis

Front 34

What are the ligaments taking care of the AC joint?

Back 34

Coracoclavicular ligament provides much of the weight baring support of the upper limb. Has two components, conoid, and trapezoid ligament

Front 35

The only bony attachment of the upper limb to the axial skeleton is at the _________ joint

Back 35

sternoclavicular

Front 36

There is a ___ to ____ ratio of glenohumeral to scapulothoracic motion during overhead reaching (flexion and abduction)

Back 36

2 to 1. When the arm is vertical at the side of the head (180 degrees of flexion or abduction) 120 degrees occurs at the glenohumeral joint while 60 degrees occurs at the scapulothoracic joint

Front 37

sympathetic innervation to the UE comes from what vert levels

Back 37

T2 - T8 of symp trunk

Front 38

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. ant delt. 2. coracobrachialis. 3. pec major 4. biceps

Back 38

Flexion

Front 39

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. anterior delt 2. supra spinatus 3. serratus anterior

Back 39

ABductors

Front 40

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. pec major. 2. lat dorsi. 3. teres major. 4. delt anterior

Back 40

Adductors

Front 41

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. lat dorsi. 2. teres major. 3. deltoid posterior. 4. triceps

Back 41

Extensors

Front 42

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. infraspinatus 2. teres minor 3. delt posterior

Back 42

External rotators

Front 43

The following muscles perform what function in the shoulder? 1. subscap 2. pec major3. lat dorsi 4. deltoid (anterior)

Back 43

Internal rotators

Front 44

what is the most common dislocation of the glenohumeral joint?

Back 44

inferior anteriorly

Front 45

pain the dermatome of C4 affects what area of sensation?

Back 45

shoulder

Front 46

pain the dermatome of C5 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?

Back 46

lateral elbow, biceps, biceps

Front 47

pain the dermatome of C6 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?

Back 47

thumb and index finger, wrist extensor muscles, brachioradialis

Front 48

pain the dermatome of C7 affects what area of sensation? Motor? Reflex?

Back 48

middle finger, triceps, triceps

Front 49

pain the dermatome of C8 affects what area of sensation? Motor?

Back 49

ring finger and pinky, wrist flexor muscles

Front 50

pain the dermatome of T1 affects what area of sensation? Motor?

Back 50

medial elbow, interossi

Front 51

in deep tendon reflex, whats a 4 out of 4 grade?

Back 51

brisk with clonus (0 to 4 scale)

Front 52

in muscle testing, whats a 5 out of 5 grade?

Back 52

Full ROM, against gravity, + Full resistance

Front 53

in muscle testing, whats a 2 out of 5 grade?

Back 53

Full ROM, with gravity eliminated. (just barely apparently since +3 means no resistance)

Front 54

adhesive capsulitis aka ___ ____

Back 54

frozen shoulder

Front 55

what is Erb-Duchenne’s Palsy?

Back 55

brachial plexus injury at C5 to C6. birth trauma. Paralysis of deltoid, external rotators, biceps, brachioradialis and supinator

Front 56

in relation to the gravitational line, the lateral malleolus is ____

Back 56

posterior

Front 57

in relation to the gravitational line, the mid-knee is ____

Back 57

anterior

Front 58

the middle of which vertebrae is in the grav line?

Back 58

L3

Front 59

moment of inertia in humans is ___. They can turn readily.

Back 59

small

Front 60

in Adson’s test: the neck is ______, turned toward _____ side (TOS test)

Back 60

extended, affected

Front 61

what test narrow's interscalene space?

Back 61

adson's

Front 62

what test Checks patency of ipsilateral artery passing between scalene triangle?

Back 62

adson's

Front 63

Wright’s maneuver: shoulder is in _____ rotation, a_duction beyond 90 degrees

Back 63

external, abduction

Front 64

what does the wright's manuever compress?

Back 64

compresses below pec minor insertion

Front 65

what technique narrows costoclavicular space?

Back 65

Halstead maneuver - exaggerated military posture

Front 66

exaggerated military posture is part of what maneuver?

Back 66

Halstead maneuver

Front 67

what type of scoliotic Curve is reduced with side bending, rotation or forward bending?

Back 67

functional

Front 68

what are the degree ranges for mild moderate and severe scoliotic curves?

Back 68

5>15. 20>45. 50 on.

Front 69

a cobb angle higher than what degree has a high probability of requiring surgical correction?

Back 69

greater than 50 degrees

Front 70

which is a confirmation for scoliosis? Cobb or ATR?

Back 70

COBB. ATR (Angle of Trunk Rotation or Axial Trunk Rotation) is really a screening test. Referral for a radiologist after 7 degree ATR usually gives a 20 degree Cobb.

Front 71

What is a Cozen's test?

Back 71

tests for lateral epicondilitis - have the patient extend against resistance. (extensors are affected. Tennis Elbow. Medial epicondilitis would be the flexors. Golfer's Elbow.)

Front 72

Colle's fracture is also known as what?

Back 72

dinner fork fracture. distal fracture of the radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist

Front 73

what is a colle's fracture?

Back 73

distal fracture of the radius in the forearm with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist