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137 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the daily limit of caffeine intake per day?
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450mg / 3-4 cups of coffee
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Amount of crew rest after an 18 hour day?
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15 hrs
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After a 12 hour flight, how much time are you allotted by NATOPS for uninterrupted sleep?
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8 hrs
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A C.O. may extend a NATOPS checkride date during the last __ days of deplyment for no more than __ days after return.
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90, 90
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A grade of UQ is allowed how many days to re-fly the event?
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30
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How many days may elapse from the date of testing until completion of the checkride?
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60
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A UQ in any critical area or sub-area results in an overall grade of ___.
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UQ
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A unit NATOPS evaluation shall be conducted every __ months. Due to deployment cycles it may be extended to no more than __ months.
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18 months, 24 months
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CRM requirements are found in what publication?
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OPNAV 1542.7
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List the seven CRM skills.
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Decision Making
Assertiveness Mission Analysis Communication Leadership Adaptablility/Flexibility Situational Awareness |
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Ground time between flight operations should be sufficient to allow flight crew to eat and obtain __ hours of uninterupted rest.
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8 hours
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Aircrew should not be required awake for more than __ hours.
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18 hours
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If required awake for more than 18 hours __ hours of rest should be provided.
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15 hours
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Maxiums flight time for P-3 crewmen are as follows:
_____ per day _____ per week _____ per month _____ per quarter _____ per year |
12 hr per day
50 hr per week 120 hr month 320 hr per quarter 1120 hr per year |
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Pregnant crewmembers may request to fly up to the ___ trimester.
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Up to the 3rd trimester
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Alcohol is prohibitted within __ hours of flight planning.
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12 hours
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Blood donations in a shipboard/combat enviroment downs you for __________.
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4 weeks
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Following simulator sickness you should not be scheduled to fly for __ hours.
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12 hours
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NASTP is required every __ years and may be performed __ days early without rebasing the qual.
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4 years, 60 days
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How many months without flying requires retraining prior to resuming flying?
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18 months
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NAVFLIRS are kept in maintenance for __ months.
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3 months
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Five basic sections of the engine
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Intake; Compressor; Combustion chamber; Turbine section; Exhaust
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One radar range mile
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12.36 microseconds
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Purpose of the Weight and Balance
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Provides flight crews with accurate base line weight and center of gravity data
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Afterburners
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burning of the remaining unused air in the exhaust section to create additional thrust
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Physical Characteristic of the P-3 aircraft
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4 Engine, low wing A/C designed for patrol, anti-sub warfare and fleet support.
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How much SHP does one engine have on a P-3
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4,600 at take off
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How is the P-3C readily identified?
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sonobuoy chutes
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How is the P-3 all weather
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Its de-ice and anti-ice systems.
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Engine bleed air from the 14th stage of the compressor is used for what?
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Deice the wings and anti-ice the engines airscoop, compressor inlet and torquemeter shroud assembly.
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How are the props and empennage deiced or anti-iced.
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Electrically
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Mission Commander
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Naval Aviator or NFO that is properly qualified.
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(PPC) Patrol Plane Commander
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Responsible for the effectiveness of the aircraft and crew for all matters affecting safety of flight.
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(PPP) Patrol Plane Pilot
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Assist the PPC and is a backup for the PPC
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(PPCP) Patrol Plane Copilot
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Is a relief for the PPC or PPP during extended flight operations
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Navigation Communication Officer
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Maintain an accurate record of present and past positions
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Acoustic Operators (SS1/2)
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Responsible to detect, classify and report sonobuoy contact data.
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Electronic Warfare Operator (SS3)
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Support the mission by utilizing RADAR, ESM, MAD/SAD, IRDS, and IFF systems and subsystems, as directed by the TACCO.
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General arrangement of the P-3 as stated on the NATOPS Flt Man.
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Fuselage is pressurized from the forward bulkhead of the flight station to the aft bulkhead in the cabin. Entrance to the cabin is by way of the door in the port side of the fuselage. The flt station is entered from the cabin. An electromechanical folding ladder, which stows in the cabin, can be used for personnel loading and unloading at stations where external loading ramps are not available. Emergency ext hatches are located over each wing in the sides of the fuselage, aft of the pilot side windshield panel, and in the top of the flight station. Lavatory, galley, and other convenience facilities are located in the aft fuselage.
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IFF
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Five modes 1&2 are used exclusively by the military for identification. Mode 3A is used by both military and civilian ATCs.
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ADF
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Automatic Direction Finder operates on AM signals in the 190-1750Khz ARN-83
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ISAR
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Inverse Synthetic Aperture Radar
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IRDS
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InfraRed Detection System - converts infrared radiation emanating from a heat source and converts it to a black and white television image at SS3 nose radom
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ESM
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Electronic Suppport Measures - a passive system doesn't admit any waves can be displayed at SS3 and TACCO
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ISAR
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Invers Synthetic Aperature Radar - radar system that generates true, recognizable, two-dimensional images of any selected ship target.
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DFW has a minimum of what total requirments?
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Complete 1 DFW per month with a min of 6 landings
Complete 1 night DFW per quarter with a min of 6 landings Complete 1 Instructor DFW per quarter which includes a 3 engine, 2 engine, and no flap landing, etc. |
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Crew training does what?
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Improves the effectiveness of the crew's ability to complete the mission due to better cordination.
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Condition 1
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Battle - all stations are manned
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Condition 2
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High altitude operations you can move about the cabin
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Condition 3
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Operation check all stations manned by primary operators who will op ICS
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Condition 4
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Aircraft inspection all designated areas will be inspected and reported to in person to pilot and FE
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Condition 5
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Landing and Take Off
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How long are you down after immunizations?
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12 hours
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how long are you down after simulator sickness?
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24 hours
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What is the delay of the onset of Simulator sickness?
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18 hours
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How long are you down after receiving an epidural or spinal shot?
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48 hours
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How long are you in a down status if you get dental work using injectable drugs (Novocain)?
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24 hours
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How long are you down after scuba diving?
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24 hours
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How long after HEEDS are you down?
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12 hours
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How long are you down after a hyperbolic chamber ride above 30,000 ft?
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12 hours (within 12 as a pax)
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Whater a BUMED 6410/1 and a BUMED 6410/2?
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Grounding notice and Clearance notice
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What is the minimum altitude over wilderness and noise sensitive areas?
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3000 ft.
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Whenever practical, fuel shall not be dumped below what altitude?
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6,000 ft
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What type of ice can a survivor eat?
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Blue Ice
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How much water does a solar still hold?
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2 pints
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How high can a MK-79 flare shoot?
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250-650 ft (10 mile visibility)
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How many chambers are in the LPA-2?
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2
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What frequency does the PRC-90 operate on?
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243.0 and 282.8 Mhz
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Life of the PRC-90?
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18 hours
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What is teh Anti-exposure suits requirements?
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OAT of 32 degrees F
Water 50 degress F Water 50-60 at the CO's discretion |
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At what altitude is supplemental oxygen required?
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10,000 ft.
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How much white reflective tape must the helmet be covered with?
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100%
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If you fail any portion of a NATOPS evaluation, how long do you have to re-qual?
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30 days
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What is the maximum time lapse between NATOPS exam and a NATOPS check ride?
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60 days
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When does the NATOPS 18-months qualification period begin?
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Date upon check-in
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Minimum hours to be a designated Aircrewman?
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50 hours or a CNO approved school.
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If an Aircrewman does not qualifiy in 18 months, when may he/she reapply for the aircrew program?
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2 years or next re-enlistment
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How long is an Aircrewman allowed to re-qual with less than 2 years out of platform?
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6 months
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When, if ever, can an Aircrewman fly again if he/she signs a Page 13?
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Never; must submit for rate change.
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What happens to a Aircrewman if he/she withdraws from flying?
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Minimum prescribed sea-tour
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What notice shall be given to an Aircrewman under DIFCREW orders that is involuntarily removed from flight status through no fault of their own?
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120 day notice
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Does the 120 day notice apply to performance, medical, disciplinary, or non-volunteer disqualification?
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No.
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Where can you find information on the 120 day notice to Aircrewman?
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BUPERSINST 1326.4
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WHat covers the maintenance of the NATOPS training jackets?
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OPNAVINST 3710.7
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A routine change in NATOPS goes to whom?
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Model Manager
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How should an Urgent change be sent?
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Via Priority Message
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What is the minimum passing score aon an Open Book NATOPS test?
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3.5
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How much time is allowed for the open book test?
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2.0 hrs.
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What is the minimum passing score on the closed book test?
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3.2
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How much time is allowed on the closed book test?
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1.5 hours
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How long does an EEBD last?
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15 min.
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A child must be how old to be listed as a PAX on naval aircraft?
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2 years
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Master flight files must be forwarded when?
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August 31
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What delay, if any, is afforded master flight files of less than one cubic foot?
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Forward the following next 12 months
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Master Flight Files can have up to what classification?
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Confidential
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Who can sign the MFF?
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CO or OIC
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Where do the MFFs get sent?
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National Records Center (Pensacola, FL)
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How many flight purpose codes are there?
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6
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What is the maximum airspeed below 10,000ft where FAR applies?
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250 kts
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When can maximum airspeed be exceeded?
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During drug interdiction flight / in warning area
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When shall position lights be displayed on aircraft?
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30 min. before sunset, 20 after sunrise, or less than 3 mile visibility
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Are landing taxi lights mandatory?
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No. Exercise good judgement
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Which department is NATOPS program under?
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Safety
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Flight suits will char at what temperature?
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700-800 deg F
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SDU-5 strobe light can last how long?
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8 hours (10 Mile Vis)
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What frequencies does that PRT-5 operate on?
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243.0 MHz and 836.4MHz
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What frequency does the URT-26 operate on?
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243.0 MHz
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How many individual entries can be made in the Flight Log Book?
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19 Flights
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How many extra pounds of optional survival gear can be added to the SV-2?
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5 lbs.
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What is the minimum age required for seat belts on board naval aircraft?
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2 years old
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What score is a NATOPS Conditionally Qualified score?
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2.0
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What time interval is required for Emergency Egress training?
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Annually
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How many time zones can interrupt the Circadian Rhythm?
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3
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What is the distance that a whistle can be heard?
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1,000 yds
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Number of people on a Flight Audit Board?
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3 - one must be the Supply Officer -- audit monthly
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What is the only required item for an Aircrewman?
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Dog Tags
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Who is responsible for safety procedures?
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All hands at all times
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When shall simulated emergencies not be conducted?
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Any time passengers are on board.
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What is the minimum flight gear required for passengers on fixed wing aircraft?
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Anti-exposure suits and LPP-1
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What is the minimum flight gear for a helicopter?
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Helmet and LPP-1
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What are the classifications of Mishaps?
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A - $1million or more/aircraft destroyed/loss of life or perm. disablility
B - $1million to $200,000 / perm. partial disability / 3 or more people hospitalized (inpatient) C - $200K to $20K / non-fatal injury or illness results in lost time from work (beyond day of incident) / |
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How often is Crew Resource Management training required?
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Annually
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How many CRM skills are there?
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7
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How many people can the LRU-12 accommodate?
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4
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How long are flight schedules kept for?
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3 months
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How far can you see a signal mirror
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up to 40 miles.
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What is the time limit to redo the SWIM quals after re-enetering CONUS?
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90 days
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What ist he visual acuity with NVG?
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20/40
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What is the NAVFLIR code for an Un-Qual crewman?
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T
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Who has access to the NATOPS jackets?
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The person, and those desginated by the CO
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What survival radio gives identity and position
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PRC-112
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How long is an Aircrewman required to participate in DAPA aftercare after an ARI?
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3 years
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Who can provide drugs to Aircrewman?
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Flight Surgeon
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What is the maximum flight time for a week?
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50 hrs
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What is the maximum amount of days you can be scheduled in a week?
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6 days
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How long is a med-up/down chit kept in the NATOPS jacket?
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Until the next annual flight physical
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What is the grade of a checkride if you recieve a grade of UQ in a critical sub-area?
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UQ (UnQualified)
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