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50 Cards in this Set

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What does TART stand for?
Tissue texture changes; Asymmetry; Restriction; Tenderness
What is the difference in physiologic and anatomic barriers?
physiologic - the amount that the pt can actively move the joint; Anatomic - the amount the physician can move the joint (passed the physiologic barrier) any movement beyond the anatomic barrier will cause injury
Name the TART findings in Acute somatic dysfunction.
Tissue Changes: edematous, erythematous, boggy with increased moisture; muscle hypertonic; Asymmetry: present; Restriction: present, painful with movement; Tenderness: severe, sharp
Name the TART findings in Chronic somatic dysfunction.
Tissue Changes: decreased or no edema, no erythema, cool dry skin, with slight tension; decreased muscle tone, flaccid, ropy, fibrotic; Asymmetry: present WITH COMPENSATION in other areas of the body; Restriction: present, DECREASED OR NO PAIN; Tenderness: dull, achy, burning
According to Fryette's laws, if the spine is in the neutral position, which way would sidebending and rotation go?
opposite directions (ie. NSlRr) - Neutral is Type I; sidebending precedes rotation in the neutral position; Left SB without flexion or extension will cause right rotation of ALL vertebrae - group dysfunctions
According to Fryette's laws, if the spine is in the flexed or extended position, which way would sidebending and rotation go?
Type II go to the same side; Left SB with flexion or extension will cause ONE vertebrae to rotate and sidebend to the same side - FRrSr or FSrRr - Single vertebrae
What segments of the spine do fryette's laws apply?
only to thoracic and lumbar - NOT cervical
How are somatic dysfunctions named?
for their freedom of motion
facet orientation will determine the motion of the vertebral segments. name the facet orientation for cervical, thoracic and lumbar regions.
Cervical - BUM backward,upward,medial; Thoracic-BUL backward,upward,lateral; Lumbar-BM backward and medial
describe isotonic contraction.
approximation of teh muscle's origin and insertion without a change in its tension; operator's force is less than the paitent's force
describe isometric contration.
muscle contraction that results in the increase in tension without an approximation of origin and insertion. Operator's and patient's force are equal - ie. pressing palms together
describe the difference in direct and indirect treatment.
INDIRECT: the DO "engages" the restrictive barrier - towards the barrier; INDIRECT: DO moves the tissues and joints away from the restrictive barrier into the direction of freedom - away from the barrier
What is the difference in active and passive treatment?
in ACTIVE: pt assists during tx (usually in the form of isometric or isotonic contraction); INDIRECT: patient relaxes while the Dr moves the body tissue
name the techniques that are direct with passive action.
Muscle energy(rarely indirect, but active not passive), HVLA, Lymphatic tx, and Chapman's relexes
Name the indirect techniques.
counterstrain, Facilitated Positional Release
Name the techniques that can be both direct and indirect.
myofascial release, cranial osteopathy, muscle energy (more likely direct)
what is the main motion of segment OA and describe the SB and rotation.
flexion and extention; SB and rotates to the opposite sides (SrRl)
what is the main motion of segment AA (C1 on C2) and describe the SB and rotation.
Rotation; SB and rotates to the opposite sides (SrRl)
what is the main motion of segment C2-C4 and describe the SB and rotation.
mainly rotation; SB and rotates to the same sides (SrRr)
what is the main motion of segment C5-C7 and describe the SB and rotation.
sidebending; SB and rotates to the same sides (SrRr)
what is the main motion of the thoracic spine?
Rotation
what are the "rule of three's" for the thoracic cavity?
T1-T3: the spinous process is located at the level of the corresponding transverse process; T4-T6: the spinous process is located 1/2 segment below the corresponding transverse process; T7-T9: the spinous process is located at the level of the transverse process of the vertebrae below; T10-T12: T10- follows T7-T9; T11 follows T4-T6; T12 follows T1-T3
Name the anatomical landmarks. spine of the scapula.
T3
inferior angle of the scapula corresponds with the spinous process of __.
T7
the sternal notch is level with ___.
T2
the sternal angle attaches to the __ rib and is level with ___.
2nd rib and level with T4
the nipple is at the __ dermatome.
T4
the umbilicus is at the __ dermatome.
T10
what does the diaphragm attach to, what's its innervation?
attaches to the xyphoid process, ribs 6-12 on either side, and bodies and intervertebral discs of L1-L3; Innervation phrenic C3,4,5
the external, internal, innermost and subcostal intercostals do what?
elevate the ribs during inspiration and prevent retractions during inspiration
name the secondary muscles of respiration.
scalenes, pectoralis minor, serratus anterior and posterior, quadratus lumborum, and latissimus dorsi
which ribs are typical and atypical?
typical: 3-10; atypical 1,2, and 11,12
which ribs are true, floating, false?
true ribs: 1-7 - attach to the sternum through costal cartilages; FALSE: 8-12 - do not attach directly to the sternum; FLOATING: ribs 11-12 (unattached anteriorly)
what are the 3 types of rib motion and which ribs belong to what group?
pump-handle motion (ribs 1-5), bucket-handle motion (ribs 6-10), and caliper motion (ribs 11 and 12)
in inhalation rib dysfxns the key rib is the ____ rib of the dysfunction.
lowest
in exhalation rib dysfxns the key rib is the ___ rib of the dysfxn.
uppermost
why is the lumbar spine more susceptible to disc herniations?
the posterior longitudinal ligament is 1/2 the width it normally is at L4 and L5
name the muscles of the erector spinae group from lateral to medial.
ILoveSex - iliocostalis, longissimus, and spinalis
Name the type of spina bifida. a herniation of the meninges through the defect.
spina bifida meningocele
Name the type of spina bifida. no herniation through the defect. only a physical sign of this anomaly is a coarse patch of hair over the site. rarely associated with neuro deficits.
spina bifida occulta
Name the type of spina bifida. a herniation of the meninges and the nerve roots through the defect. associated with neuro deficits.
spina bifida meningomyelocele
what is the main type of motion of the lumbar spine?
flexion/extension
a herniated nucleus pulposus worsens with what type of movement?
flexion - get a positive straight leg test - treated conservatively (<5% are surgical candidates)
A flexion contracture of the iliopsoas is often associated with a _____ dysfxn at what level?
nonneutral dysfxn of L1 or L2
in what position is spinal stenosis worse?
worsened with extension as when standing, walking, or lying supine
name the term for anterior displacement of one vertebrae in relation to the one below.
spondylolisthesis - increased pain with extension
name the term that describes an defect usually of the pars interarticularis without anterior displacement of the vertebral body.
spondylolysis - oblique views will identify the fracture as the "collar" on the neck of the scotty dog
name the term that describes the degenerative changes within the intervertebral disc and ankylosing of adjacent vertebral bodies.
spondylosis
with what type of x-ray can you diagnose a spondylolisthesis and a spondylolysis?
diagnose a spondylolisthesis with a lateral x-ray; diagnose a spondylolysis with oblique x-rays
name the pathology. pressure on the nerve roots of that cause saddle anesthesia, decreased DTR, loss of bowel and bladder control and is a surgical emergency.
cauda equina syndrome