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115 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
primary causes of third-trimester bleeding
placental abruption and placenta previa
classic ultrasound and gross appearance of complete hydatiform mole
snowstorm appearance on ultrasound; cluster of grapes on physical exam
chromosomal pattern of a complete mole
46, XX
molar pregnancy containing fetal tissue
partial mole
symptoms of placental abruption
continuous, painful vaginal bleeding
symptoms of placental previa
self-limited, painless vaginal bleeding
when should a vaginal exam be performed with a suspected placenta previa?
never
antibiotics with teratogenic effects
tetracycline, fluoroquinolones, aminoglycosides, sulfonamides
shortest AP diameter of the pelvis
obstetric conjugate: between the sacral promonotory and the midpoint of the line of the symphysis pubis
medication given to accelerate fetal lung maturity
betamethasone or dexamethasone x 48 hours
the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage
uterine atony
treatment for postpartum hemorrhage
uterine massage; if that fails, give oxytocin
typical antibiotics for group B strep (GBS) prophylaxis
IV penicillin or ampicillin
a patient fails to lactate after an emergency C-section with marked blood loss
Sheehans syndrome (postpartum pituitary necrosis)
uterine bleeding at 18 weeks gestation; no products expelled; membranes ruptured; cervical os open
inevitable abortion
uterine bleeding at 18 weeks gestation; no products expelled; cervical os closed
threatened abortion
what is the definition of pre-term labor?
regular uterine contractions + concurrent cervical changes at <37 weeks gestation
Group-B strep prophylaxix
penicillin or ampicillin
what defines a post-partum hemorrhage?
>500mL with vaginal delivery or >1000mL with c-section
most common cause of post-partum hemorrhage
uterine atony
treatment for uterine atony protocol
1. uterine massage
2. oxytocin
3. methergine
4. prostin PGF2-alpha
when should the uterus be palpable above the pubic symphysis?
12 weeks
what does human placental lactogen do?
insulin-antagonist to maintain fetal glucose levels
what is the cut-off for anemia in pregnancy?
Hgb below 11.0mg/dL
what is the average WBC count during pregnancy? what about during labor?
10.5 during pregnancy, 20+ during labor
additional caloric intake required during pregnancy and breast feeding
300kcal/day for pregnancy, 500kcal/day during breast feeding
weight gain recommendations during pregnancy for the average woman
25-35 pounds
what is the triple screen?
maternal serum-AFP, estriol, beta-HCG
to who and when is the RhoGAM injection given?
to RH(-) mothers at 28 weeks
Naegles rule
LMP + 9 months + 7 days
what does a MS-AFP of >2.5 MoM's indicate?
neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, multiple gestation, fetal death, incorrect dating
what does trisomy 18 look like on triple screen?
all three are decreased
what does trisomy 21 look like on triple screen?
decreased AFP, decreased estriol, increased beta-HCG
what is a normal non-stress test?
2 accelerations of 15bpm above baseline in 15 seconds over 20 minutes
what do you do if the NST has no response?
biophysical profile
what is a biophysical profile and what do the scores indicate?
consists of fetal tone, breathing, movement, amniotic fluid volume, NST

score of 8-10 is reassuring, 0-2 indicates fetal asphyxia
what is an early deceleration and what does it indicate? and what do you do?
cephalic compression, no indication of fetal distress; no treatment necessary
what is a variable deceleration and what does it indicate? and what do you do?
due to umbilical cord compression, best to have mother change positions
what is a late deceleration and what does it indicate? and what do you do?
due to uteroplacental insuffiency/fetal hypoxemia; if repetitive/severe then deliver ASAP
what indicates a positive three hour glucose tolerance test?
two of more of the following
fasting >95
one hour >180
two hours >155
three hours >140
what is the criteria for gestational diabetes?
two of the following
fasting >126
random >200
glucose challenge test @24 weeks >140
hyperglycemia in the first trimester indicates what?
suggest pre-existing diabetes
what drugs are contraindicated for HTN control with pre-ecclampsia?
do not give ACEI or diuretics
what is the definition of pre-ecclampsia?
new-onset HTN + proteinuria at >20 weeks
what is the definition of ecclampsia?
new-onset HTN + proteinuria at >20 weeks + seizures
what the symptoms of pre-ecclampsia?
persistent headaches, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, hyper-reflexia
when should you suspect IUGR?
if there is a discrepancy of >4cm between fundal height and gestational age
pre-ecclampsia in the first trimester is pathognomonic for what?
hydatidiform mole
what do grape-like molar clusters indicate?
gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD)
what do you see on ultrasound with a complete hydatidiform mole?
snowstorm appearance on pelvic U/S
what does painful, dark vaginal bleeding that does not spontaneously cease indicate and what do you do?
placental abruption, expectant management
what does painless, bright red vaginal bleeding that spontaneously ceases in 1-2 hours indicate and what do you do?
placenta previa, do not do a vaginal exam and delivery by c-section
pregnant woman with intense abdominal pain with variable vaginal bleeding, what must you rule out?
uterine rupture
placental abruption + decrease in function of mother/fetus + early stage labor --> what treatment is indicated?
c-section
what is the most effective parameter for diagnosing suspected IUGR?
abdominal circumference
when can general/spinal anesthesia reduce uterine activity?
if administered during the latent phase
when should a GBS screen be performed?
get vaginal/rectal swabs at 35-37 weeks
what must you rule out with hyperemesis gravidarum?
must rule out Gestational Trophoblastic disease via beta-HCG screen
pregnant patient + persistent vomiting + weight loss + ketonuria = ??
hyperemesis gravidarum
treatment for chlamydia
azithromycin or clindamycin
copous vaginal discharge that is yellow/white, non-malorodous and not associated with any other symptoms = ??
physiological leukorrhea
initial test for infertile couples
semen analysis
HELLP syndrome at 34 weeks = what treatment?
immediate delivery
what do you do for a threatened abortion?
have a follow up ultrasound in one week, advise they abstain from sex and go on bed rest with some reassurance
what causes pre-ecclamptic LUQ pain?
stretching of the hepatic (Glisson's) capsule
why is MgSO4 given with ecclampsia?
to prevent more seizures
disappearance of N/V of early pregnancy + arrest of uterine growth = ??
must rule out missed abortion
post-partem fever + uterine tenderness + foul-smelling lochia = ??
endometritis
what bug causes endometritis?
usually polymicrobial
treatment for post-partem endometritis
IV clindamycin and IV gentamicin
epidural anesthesia can cause what bladder problem and how do you treat it?
can cause overflow incontinence due to loss of bladder sensation; treat with intermittent caths until the sensation returns
most common cause of a non-reactive non-stress test (NST)
sleeping baby
most important preventative measure for for HIV pregnant woman
zidovudine throughout the pregnancy and 6 weeks post-partum for the baby
what should you do with premature rupture of membranes with unknown GBS status?
treat with prophylactic antibiotics
what patient should you avoid using methylgonovine in?
one that is hypertensive
painful vaginal bleeding + uterine contrations = ??
placental abruption
what is placenta accreta?
the placenta attaches to deeply/tightly to uterus; usually diagnosed upon attempt to deliver after-birth
what is placenta percreta?
worse than placenta accreta, attaches through uterus to nearby organs such as the bladder
what is placenta previa? how does it present?
placenta attaches on or near the cervix; presents as painless vaginal bleeding
what are the signs of pregnancy on pelvic exam?
Chadwicks sign = bluish discoloration of vagina/cervix

Goodwills sign = softening and cyanosis of cervix at four weeks

Landins sign = softening of uterus at 6+ weeks
how is CMV transmitted? what precautions must a pregnant nurse take when treating a patient with CMV?
transmitted via direct contact with secretions; use standard precautions
best test to assess limb development and cardiac function
level II ultrasound
when is Rhogam given and to whom?
given to Rh+ mothers, Rh- mothers with Rh+ or unknown Rh-status fathers at 28 weeks; or given after procedures that risk mixing of blood such as CVS or aminocentesis
active herpes + patient is in labor = ??
deliver via c-section
incompetent cervix + history of recurrent painless spontaneous abortions = ??
suspect maternal exposure of DES
what does maternal exposure to diethylstilbestrol increase the off-spring risk for?
vaginal cancer
treatment for incompetent cervix
cervical cerclage
first line treatment for migraines in pregnancy
acetominophen
what is glucosuria indicative of in pregnancy?
nothing; it is a normal finding
first line treatment for prevention of ecclamptic seizures in pre-ecclamptic woman
MgSO4
what causes stress incontinence?
due to displacement of the urethrovesical junction
what tests are use to confirm rupture of membranes?
fluid in vaginal vault, nitrazine test, fern test
what do late decels indicate?
uteroplacental insufficiency
late decels + fetal bradycardia = ??
immediate c-section
most common cause of post-partum hemorrhage?
uterine atony
treatment protocol for uterine atony
uterine massage + oxytocin --> methylergonovine --> prostin (PGF2) --> DNC --> ex-lap --> hyst
pre-ecclampsia <20 weeks + snow-storm pattern on ultrasound = ??
complete molar pregnancy
treatment for molar pregnancy
DNC
which anti-HTN drugs are safe in pregnancy?
labetolol, methyldopa
is levothyroxine safe in pregnancy?
yes
pre-natal schedule for low-risk pregnancy
<28 weeks = q4-5 weeks
28-36 weeks = q2-3 weeks
>36 weeks = weekly until delivery
what are the four fetal measurements to assess fetal age
biparietal diameter, abdominal circumference, crown-rump length, femur length
what does maternal smoking put the fetus at risk for?
low birth weight
what does category A indicate?
well-controlled studies with no risk to fetus in first trimester
what test must you order to confirm the diagnosis of pre-ecclampsia?
UA - proteinuria
treatment for HELLP syndrome at >33 weeks
immediate induction of labor
what can an untreated UTI in pregnancy lead to?
in order of risk:
preterm labor
2nd trimester abortion
pre-ecclampsia
maternal anemia
amionitis
what is the most common cause of a UTI?
E coli
what is the treatment for symptomatic uterine bleeding?
IV estrogen and subsequent DNC
what test rules out pre-term labor at 22-34 weeks?
fetal fibronectin
most common cause of congenital abnormalities
fetal alcohol syndrome
treatment for asymptomatic bacturia in pregnancy
single 3g dose of amoxicillin
first step with a suspected placenta previa
confirm with transabdominal ultrasound
first step in management with suspected displaced IUD upon pelvic exam
pregnancy test
what is the fetus at risk for with a CVS performed <9 weeks?
limb abnormalities