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84 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The genital system develops from embryonic
mesoderm
The urogenital ridges give rise to elements of the
reproductive system
What part of the ovary comes to contain the developing follicles?
Cortex
The first indication of the sex of the embryo is the
formation of the tunica albuginea
The primordial germ cells can be identified during the fourth week of development in the
yolk sac
In the female, which of the following persists to form the major parts of the reproductive tract?
Paramesonephric (mullerian) ducts
The formation of the uterus and fallopian tubes
does not depend on the presence of ovaries
Absence of the ovaries
typically occurs in association with other anomalies
Which of the following results in the absence of the uterus?
Paramesonephric ducts degenerate
Which of the following results in the formation of a double uterus (uterus didelphys)?
Inferior parts of the paramesonephric ducts do not fuse
Which of the following results in the absence of the vagina?
Vaginal plate does not develop
Which of the following results in vaginal atresia?
Vaginal plate does not canalize
Which of the following arises from the urogenital sinus?
Urethra
Which of the following passes through an indeferent (undifferentiated) stage during development?
All of the above (Genital ducts, Gonads, and External genitalia)
The labia minora develop from the
urogenital folds
The labia majora develop from the
labioscrotal swellings
The clitoris develops from the
genital tubercle
Teh fallopian tube is derived from the
mullarian (paramesonephric) ducts
The vagina originates from the
urogenital sinus and mullerian ducts
In the female, the embryologic homolog of the penis is the
clitoris
The innominate bones are composed of fused ileum, ischium, nad
pubis
The false pelvis and true pelvis are separated by the
linea terminalis
The dimensions of which pelvis must be adequate to permit passage of the fetus during labor?
true pelvis
The false pelvis is separated from the true pelvis by the plane of the
pelvic inlet
Arrest of fetal descent occurs most commonly at the plane of the
least diameter
Which is the value of obstetric conjugate?
10.0 - 11.0
Which is the value of the transverse diameter of the pelvic inlet?
13.5
Which is the value of the bispinous diameter of the pelvic midplane?
10.0
Which is the transverse diameter of greatest diameter
12.5
Based on the Caldwell and Moloy classification, the most common pelvic type is the
gynecoid
Which of the following are found in the labia majora?
All of the above (sebaceous glands, sweat glands, and hair follicles)
Which of the following is NOT found in the labia minora?
Hair follicles
Bartholin duct is lined with what type of epithelium?
Transitional
Skene duct is lined with what type of epithelium?
Transitional
The urethra is lined with what type of epithelium?
Transitional
The vagina is lined with what type of epithelium?
Squamous
The endocervical canal is lined with what type of epithelium?
Columnar
Compared with the posterior wall, the anterior wall of the vagina is
shorter
The uterine (fallopian) tubes enter into which part of the uterus?
Cornu
The two main anatomic divisions of the uterus are the
corpus and cervix
In addition to the uterine arter, the uteris is supplied by teh
ovarian artery
The uterine veins enter the
internal iliac veins
The portion fo the fallopian tube that borders the ovary is the
infandibulum
Which of the following ligaments DOES NOT support the uterus?
Infundibulopelvic (supensory) ligament
Which of the following ligaments supports the ovary?
Broad ligament
Before puberty, the ratio of the length of the body of the uterus to the length of the cervix is approximately
1:1
The portion of the broad ligamnet between the ovaries and the fallopian tube is called the
mesosalpinx
The uterosacral ligaments
prevent prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
Oogonia cease to form after
birth
The blood supply to the fallopian tubes is from
both the ovarian and uterine arteries
Compared with the reproductive years, the size of the ovary of a menopausal woman is
decreased
The diploid number of chromosomes in humans is
46
At least what percent of first-trimester spontaneous abortions have a structuralor numerical chromosomal anomaly?
50%
Overall, what percent of live births have a chromosome abnormality?
0.6%
Which of the following chromosome abnormalities is the most common among live-born infants?
Trisomy 21
Chorionic villus sampling can be used for the detection of
trisomy 18
The most commmon chromosomal abnormality reliably diagnosed by amniocentesis is
trisomy 21
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of del(5) (cri-du-chat) syndrome?
Microcephaly, distinctive facial features
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Klinefelter syndrome?
Tall, eunuchoid habitus
Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 16?
No live births
Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)?
Severe mental retardation
Which of the following is a characteristic of trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)?
Multiple organic abnormalities
In autosomal dominant inheritance,
one half of the children born to an affected person are affected
If there is complete failure of testicular development following the formation of an XY zygote,
the individual will develop as a female with uterus, tubes, vagina, and vulva
The level of alpha-fetoprotein is normal in amniotic fluid in hwich of the following conditions?
Postmaturity
In which of the following will an afflicted individual typically live to at least 10 years of age?
Trisomy 21
Advanced maternal age as a screening test questioin fails to detect pregnancies with Down's syndrome in what percent of cases?
80%
Triple screen detects about what percent of fetal Down syndrome?
60%
Finding a fetal cardiac malformation on antepartum obstetric ultrasound examinations is associated with what percent chance of the fetus having a chromosomal abnormality?
40%
The most commonly used maternal serum screening test involves measurement of
maternal alpha-fetoprotein, human chorionic gonadotropin, and unconjugated estriol
The most common genetic cause of mental retardation is
fragile-X
In a woman who has a child with a neural tube defect, in subsequent pregnancies she should take a prenatal vitamin that contains how much folic acid?
4mg
Prenatal ingestion of an appropriate dose of folic acid daily acts to prevent
both the occurrence and recurrence of neural tube defects
The developing brain is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
3 to 16 weeks
The developing neural tube is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
2 to 4 weeks
The developing heart is most susceptible to teratogens during what specific period?
3 to 6 weeks
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors have which of the following teratogenic effects?
Intrauterine growth retardation, fetal hypotension, pulmonary hypoplasia
The antiepileptic drugs have which of the following teratogenic effects?
Skeletal defects, cleft palate
Cyclophosphamide has which of the following teratogenic effects?
CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects
Warfarin has which of the following teratogenic effects?
Nasal hypoplasia, vertebral abnormalities, CNS malformations
Accutane has which of the following teratogenic effects?
CNS and ear defects, cleft lip/palate, cardiac and great vessel defects
Thalidomide has which of the following teratogenic effects?
Limb reduction, phocomelia, ventricular septal defect, gastriointestinal atresia
Diethylstilbestrol has which of the following teratogenic effects?
Vaginal and cervical carcinoma, genital tract abnormalities
Tetracycline has which of the following teratogenic effects?
Staining of primary dentition