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257 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The process by which the ovum and sperm divide and mature.
Meiosis
By the time the zygote reaches the uterus, it should consist of 16-64 cells, called a ___.
Morula
HcG is produced by what cells?
Trophoblast cells (large cells that cluster on the perimeter of the morula, resulting in a fluid-filled space surrounding the inner cluster of cells, called a blastocyst)
After implantation, the corpus luteum continues to function. At this time, the endomedrium is called the ___.
Decidua
After implantation, the corpus luteum continues to function. At this time, the endomedrium is called the decidua. What are the three regions of the decidua?
Decidua basalis (the part resting directly between the embryo and the uterine wall); decidua capsularis (the portion of the endometrium that surrounds the surface of the trophoblast); and the decidua parietalis (the remaining portion of the uterine lining)
The placenta produces hormones that are vital to the survival of the fetus. What are they?
HCG, HPL (Human placental lactogen), estrogen, and progesterone.
This hormone prevents the normal involution of the corpus luteum at the end of the menstrual cycle. (If the corpus luteum stops functioning before the 11th week of pregnancy, spontaneous abortion occurs).
HCG
As the newborn breathes, the ___ closes as a result of the increased blood flow to the lungs and the decreased pressure in the right side of the heart.
Foramen ovale
The ___ closes when the blood from the umbilical cord stops.
Ductus venosus
The ___, a fetal shunt that connects the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta, closes after birth.
Ductus arteriosus
___ is a specialized connective tissue and extension of the amnion, which surrounds the blood vessels and spinal cord.
Wharton's jelly
The (chorion/amnion) is the inner of the two fetal membranes.
Amnion. The chorion is the outer of two fetal membranes
At ___ weeks, the embryo has a marked C-shaped body, accentuated by the rudimentary tail and the large head that is folded over a protuberant trunk.
Five weeks
At ___ weeks, fetal circulation begins.
Six weeks
The embryonic stage lasts from __-__ weeks.
0-8
At ___-___ weeks, lanugo begins to appear, and active movements are present.
13-16 weeks
The second trimester begins at ___ weeks.
16
The third trimester begins at ___ weeks.
28
The fetus is considered full term at ___ weeks.
38
T/F. It is important for mothers to be vaccinated against rubella during pregnancy, because it is a viral infection that threatens the baby's health.
False. Rubella is a live vaccine and its use is avoided in pregnancy. It is given in the postpartum period instead.
The most common effect of cocaine use during pregnancy is:
Low birth weight; note: Cocaine also reduces placental blood flow
The most common harmful effect of heroin on newborns is withdrawal, or _____.
Neonatal abstinence syndrome
Without antiviral therapy, approximately ___% of newborns of women infected with HIV will become infected with HIV.
15-40%
What is the TORCH screening panel?
Toxoplasmosis; Other infections (including hepatitis); Rubella; Cytomegalovirus; Herpes
The organs that produce gametes.
Gonads
What is the function of the secretions of the prostate, seminal vesicle and bulbourethral glands in reproduction?
These secretions along with sperm cells from the testicles form the semen. The secretions have the function of nourishing the sperm cells and serving them as a fluid means of propagation. The basic pH of the seminal fluid also neutralizes the acid secretions of the vagina allowing the survival of sperm cells in the vaginal environment after copulation.
In males, sexual activity is regulated by ___, ___, and ___.
Endocrine glands (pituitary), adrenals, and gonads (testicles).
FSH is stimulated by what gland?
Adenohypophysis
This hormone stimulates spermatogenesis.
FSH
This hormone stimulates the production of testosterone by the testes.
LH (Luteinizing hormone)
What is the acrosome of the sperm cell? How is it formed?
The acrosome is a structure that contains a great number of digestive enzymes, it is located in the anterior end of the sperm cell and it is formed by the union of Golgi apparatus vesicles. The function of the acrosome is to release its enzymes when the sperm cell meets the egg cell to break the external covering of the female gamete thus making fecundation possible.
Name the four bones that function in the female reproductive system.
The acetabulum, the sacrum and coccyx, and the sacro-coccygeal and sacroiliac joints
An oblique plane passing through the prominence of the sacrum.
Pelvic brim
These ligaments support the breasts.
Cooper's ligaments
___ secrete colostrum and milk.
Acini
T/F. Milk production is related to glandular tissue, size, and number of ducts.
False. Milk production is related ONLY to infant demand.
Loose skin covering the clitoris.
Prepuse
Almond-shaped area containing openings to urethra, Skene’s glands, vagina, hymen, and Bartholin glands.
Vestibule
Dome of the corpus of the uterus. The thickest part, where tubes enter and contractions start.
Fundus
This layer of the uterine wall produces prostaglandins and is what causes menstrual discomfort.
Endometrium
Layer of longitudinal smooth muscles in the uterus that expel a baby.
Myometrium
These uterine ligaments are transverse.
Cardinal ligaments
These uterine ligaments are under the tubes through the inguinal canal.
Round ligaments
These uterine ligaments are between the uterus and sacrum.
Uterosacral ligaments
A fold of peritoneum that covers the uterus and contains the Fallopian tubes.
Broad ligament
The _____ follicles contain the ova.
Graafian
When the egg breaks through the wall of the ovary, and discomfort occurs.
Mittelschmerz
This hormone allows the pregnancy to be maintained.
Progesterone
These cells produce testosterone.
Leydig's cells
These glands lie on either side of the male urethra, and secrete alkaline lubricant.
Cowper's glands
This gland secretes alkaline fibrinolysin, which liquefies semen after ejaculation to release sperm.
Prostate gland
Day 1 of menses is called the ___ phase.
Follicular phase (where FSH matures the follicle)
During the ovulation phase, there is a ___ surge.
LH
In women, ___ is considered "The Builder." ___ is considered "The Maintainer."
Estrogen; progesterone
The amnion forms from the (Endoderm/mesoderm/ectoderm).
Ectoderm.
The placenta is derived from the ___.
Trophoblast
An organ that connects the developing fetus to the uterine wall to allow nutrient uptake, waste elimination, and gas exchange via the mother's blood supply.
Placenta
An extraembryonic membrane that, in early development forms the outer wall of the blastocyst- from it develop the chorionic villa that enter the endometrium with implantation- gives rise to placenta.
Chorion
The innermost fetal membrane: a thin thansparent sac that holds the fetus suspended.
Amnion
The ___ is open between the right atrium and left atrium.
Foramen ovale
The ___ is an opening between the descending aorta and pulmonary artery.
Ductus arteriosus
At ___ weeks, all the organs are formed.
8 weeks
At ___ weeks, a fetal heartbeat can be heard with doppler.
9-12 weeks
At ___ weeks, a baby's sex may be able to be seen.
11 weeks
Estrogen is secreted by the ____. Progesterone is secreted by the ____.
Ovaries; corpus luteum
Obesity is defined as a body weight that is ___% over the ideal.
20%
___ is the principal carbohydrate in human milk and provides approximately 50% of the energy content.
Lactose
What is the function of oxytocin during breastfeeding in the post-birth period?
Oxytocin released during breastfeeding causes the uterus to contract, hastening the involution of the uterus to its pre-pregnant state.
Exclusive breastfeeding has been found to (encourage/delay) ovulation.
Delay. It acts as a natural birth control method. (p. 708)
The ____ glands, a combination of sebaceous and mammary milk glands, are located in the areola.
Montgomery glands
___ refers to the secretion and continued production of milk by the mammary glands.
Galactopoiesis
___ is the hormone produced by the pituitary gland that triggers milk production by stimulating the alveolar cells of the breast.
Prolactin
Oxytocin is produced by the (anterior/posterior) pituitary.
Posterior
The ___ is the release of milk from the breast and milk flow toward the nipple triggered by nipple stimulation or emotional response to the infant.
Let-down reflex
___ is the thin, watery breast milk secreted at the beginning of a feeding.
Foremilk
___ is the thick, high-fat breast milk secreted at the end of a feeding.
Hindmilk
___ is breast milk that contains 10% solids for energy and growth.
Mature milk
___ is the thin fluid present in the breast from pregnancy into the early post-partal period. It is rich in antibodies, which provide protection from many diseases, is high in protein, which binds bilirubin, and acts as a laxative, speeding the elimination of meconium, and helping loosen mucus.
Colostrum
A protein unique to human milk, called ___, provides a local control of milk synthesis.
Feedback inhibitor of lactation (FIL)
The baby’s mouth opens wide and the tongue is down and scoop-shaped when the bottom lip or chin is tickled.
Rooting reflex
An acute inflammatory disease of the GI mucosa commonly seen in the premature infant is called ___.
Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
What tool is useful in making it easier for the preterm infant to stay latched onto the breast and extract milk?
Silicone nipple shields
True/False. A mother must eliminate alcohol during breastfeeding to prevent tainting breast milk.
False. There is no need to completely eliminate drinking alcohol while breastfeeding.
Name some interventions that can reduce nipple tenderness.
Apply warm compresses after breastfeeding to promote blood supply and healing; express a little breast milk and massage it into the nipple; apply a warm saline solution to the affected nipples with cotton balls
An inflammatory condition of the breast, which may be accompanied by infection.
Mastitis
The dark green substance forming the first feces of a newborn infant.
Meconium
The introduction of solids should not be delayed beyond __ months of age.
Six
Citrus fruits should be avoided until ___ months of age.
Nine
Nagele’s rule calculation.
First day of the last menstrual period (first day of bleeding). Subtract three months. Add 7 days. = Estimated due date
Centimeter tape is used to measure distance from symphysis pubis to top of fundus.
Fundal height
At 20 weeks, the fundus should be where?
At the belly button
At 30 weeks, the fundus should be where?
Diaphragm
Up until ___ weeks, you can only use transvaginal ultrasound.
12 weeks
A pregnant woman; total number of pregnancies a woman has had regardless of their duration
Gravida; gravidity
Number of past pregnancies that have reached age of viability and are delivered regardless of number of children involved. Ex: Delivery of twins only counts as ONE delivery.
Parity
Refers to delivery after 20-24 weeks and 500 grams.
Age of viability
What is the GTPAL system?
G: Number of pregnancies (gravidity); T: Term delivery (>37 weeks); P: Preterm delivery (<37 weeks); A: Abortions (spontaneous of therapeutic); L: Living children
An ending of a pregnancy before 20 weeks.
Abortion
If I say a patient is G21001, what does this mean?
She has been pregnant twice, she has had 1 term delivery, no preterm deliveries, no abortions, and 1 living child. (It means she is currently pregnant.)
While you are pregnant, you will experience (increased/decreased) production of LH and FSH.
Decreased.
Softening of the cervix and uterus.
Goodell's sign
Cyanosis of the cervix due to increase vascularity and edema.
Chadwick's sign
What is the purpose of hyperactive mucus in pregnancy?
It is a plug to prevent bacterial infiltration of the cervix.
Painless dilation of the cervix prior to full term usually in the 2nd trimester after 12 weeks.
Incompetent cervix
During pregnancy, your cardiac output increases by __%.
40-50%; Will go from 3-5 L/min to 6-7 L/min
Protein in urine may indicate...
Preeclampsia
The "mask of pregnancy" is also called:
Chloasma
Nausea, missing a period is a __ sign of pregnancy.
Subjective/presumptive
Not had a period for a whole month is a ___ sign of pregnancy.
Objective/Probable
Detection of the heartbeat by ultrasound or doppler is a ___ sign of pregnancy.
Diagnostic/Positive signs
___ is a protein associated with mammalian embryos shortly after fertilization.
Early pregnancy factor; early conception factor
True/False. Women are encouraged to get the flu shot during pregnancy.
True. Pregnant women should get the flu SHOT as opposed to the nasal spray.
Genetic/NT screening is often used during __-__ weeks.
10-13 weeks
Name the four serum markers used in the quad screen at 15-20 weeks.
MSAFP, Unconjugated Estriol, hCG, Inhibin A
Best pelvis for delivering a baby.
Gynecoid
There are two types of measurements of a pelvis. What are they?
Symphysis pubis to the sacrum, and between the ischial spines.
The ___ pelvis is a combination pelvis.
Platypelloid
Prolonged effacement period followed by rapid dilatation once tissue softens. Occurs usually at time of birth.
Incompetent cervix
Placenta previa can be associated with ___ presentation.
Breech
Low-lying placenta may cause the baby to assume a ____ lie.
Transverse lie
How flexed is the baby?
Attitude
The relationship of the fetal long axis to the long axis of the mother.
Fetal lie
The leading or most dependent portion of the fetus.
Fetal presentation
The healthiest presentation of a fetus is the: A) Mentum; B) Sinciput; C) Vertex; D) Occiput
D) Occiput
The relationship of the presenting part to the specific area of the woman’s pelvis.
Fetal position
Posturing of the joints and the relationship of the fetal body parts (chest, chin, arms) to each other.
Fetal attitude
An example of a PRIMARY power during labor is...
Fetal contractions-- frequency, duration, intensity, resting tone, etc...
An example of a SECONDARY power during labor is...
Maternal pushing
A(n) _____ occurs when the biparietal diameter is at or below the inlet of the true pelvis.
Engagement
The relationship of the presenting part of the fetus to an imaginary line drawn between the ischial spines of the maternal pelvis.
Station
0 station =
Level of the ischial spines
-1 station =
1 cm above the ischial spines
+1 station =
1 cm below the ischial spines
Thinning and shortening of the cervix that occurs during labor.
Effacement
The latent phase of labor occurs from ___cm to ___ cm.
0cm - 3cm
The active phase of labor occurs from ___ cm to ___ cm.
4cm - 7 cm
The transition phase of labor occurs from ___ cm to ___ cm.
8cm - 10 cm
The second stage of labor occurs...
From fulldilatation to the birth of the baby.
The birth of the baby to delivery of placenta.
Third stage of labor.
The ___ stage of labor is up to 4 hours postpartum.
Fourth
___ is when the baby proceeds through the pelvic inlet. ___ is when he proceeds down the center of the true pelvis. ___ is when he turns himself around.
Engagement; descent; flexion
Name the seven steps of Cardinal Movement of labor.
Engagement; Descent; Flexion; Internal rotation; Extension; Restitution and external rotation of head; Expulsion
You can identify the yolk sack at ___-___ weeks.
5-6 weeks. (Remember, there are six eggs in a half dozen of eggs.)
Puerperium
Time after delivery – 6 weeks
Parturient
Woman who has given birth
True/False. Pregnancy may alter the response of a tuberculin skin test.
False
The (first/second/third) trimester screen can determine if the child is at risk for trisomy 13, 18, or 21.
First trimester screen
Refers to the normal subcutaneous fluid-filled space between the back of the fetal neck and the overlying skin.
Nuchal translucency; the more fluid that has accumulated, the greater the risk of abnormality
Nuchal translucency measures ___ mm or less.
3 mm
The quad screen is offered at ___ weeks.
15-19 weeks
A protein produced by the fetus' liver.
Alpha-fetoprotein
A protein produced in the placenta and in the fetus' liver.
Unconjugated Estriol
Amniocentesis cannot be done until ___-___ weeks of pregnancy.
15-16 weeks
Another name for a Level II ultrasound.
Targeted US
A targeted ultrasound can be obtained at ___-___ weeks.
16-20 weeks
Glucose, Hct and antibody screens can be obtained at ___ weeks.
28. Think 28 Days Later: SCREENING FOR ZOMBIE ANTIBODIES
A vaginal culture for Group B strep is obtained at ___ weeks.
36
Diabetes screening is done at ___ weeks.
24-28
A GTT greater than ___ is diagnostic for gestational diabetes.
200
Non-stress test: Two accelerations in ___ minutes is described as reactive.
20 minutes
A BPP score of ___ or higher with normal fluid: risk of asphyxia rare or normal fetus.
8
Normal range for Amniotic Fluid Index? (AFI)
5-25
An AFI score of <5 indicates:
Oligohydramnios
An AFI score of >25 indicates:
Polyhydramnios
Cause of oligohydramnios.
Poor placental flow, poor urine output of fetus, maternal dehydration, or poor diet.
Cause of polyhydramnios.
Diabetes, GI or renal problems.
___ maneuver involves applying counter pressure on the perineum.
Ritgens
Thick meconium at birth is a positive sign.
FALSE. If thick meconium, alert NICU or MD.
GBS positive mothers are typically treated with ___, unless they have an allergy, in which case they are treated with ___.
Penicillin G; Clindamycin or Erythromycin.
The transducer is placed over this part of the baby's anatomy.
Shoulder
Fetal (accelerations/decelerations) can be caused by maternal hypotension.
Decelerations
Severe bradycardia is described as a HR less than ___ bpm.
80 bpm
___ variability is variability between 6-10 bpm; ____ variability, 0-5 bpm; ____ variability, 6-25 bpm; ____ variability, 25+ bpm.
Normal; minimal; moderate; marked
What are the five P's of labor?
Passageway; passenger; powers; psyche; position
This is the ideal position for a baby.
Right occipitoANTERIOR
When a woman in active labor complains of continuous back pain, the fetus is most likely in a ____ position.
An occipitoposterior position!
What is "Tailor sitting"?
Sitting cross legged on the floor.
This intervention may decrease suprapubic discomfort and create space for the baby to descent.
Frequent voiding
Direct pressure to the sacrum or hips to counteract stretching of ligaments.
Counter-pressure
How often should you monitor FHT while a woman is in the bath during labor?
Every 15-30 minutes, or per protocol
What are ataractics? What can they be used for?
Antihistamines/anti-emetics. May be given for nausea, but are commonly used as narcotic adjuncts and for the anti-anxiety/sedative effects.
What are two commonly used ataractics?
Vistaril and Phenergan
T/F. During active labor, analgesia is effective in that it takes the edge off the pain.
True. It does NOT take all the labor pain away!
A crying mother in active labor begs for ANYTHING to take the edge off the pain. During the last FHR doppler, the MD detected that the FHR was 83. What might you say to the mother?
Sorry, toots. Giving a narcotic may sedate the baby. We can't as long as the baby is borderline bradycardic.
After delivering IV analgesia, how often should you monitor mom and baby?
Q15 minutes x4
Name three analgesics you might use on a woman in active labor.
Stadol (May cause withdrawal); Demerol (w/ Phenergan); or Nubain (not used as often because of FHR issues. Also may cause withdrawal)
What can happen if analgesics are given too early in labor?
If given too early, they may PROLONG labor.
What is the difference between an epidural and a spinal?
A spinal punctures the dura (obviously).
Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for regional or general anesthesia use?
A) Suspicion of neurologic dz
B) Hypervolemia
C) Coagulation disorders
D) Systemic infection
E) Low platelet counts (<100,000)
B) Hypervolemia. A contraindication might be HyPOvolemia.
A(n) (epidural/spinal) is the preferred choice during a C-section.
Spinal. It is usually given just before a c/s and produces relief within 1-2 hrs. An epidural can also be used, but setup is less dependable so a spinal is preferred.
What two drugs are usually used in an epidural?
Ropivicaine + fentanyl
What might a nurse do when anticipating an epidural?
Notify anesthesiologist; order pump and obtain supplies; start IV bolus 500-1000 cc LR or NS (to decrease hypotension)
How often should BP be measured during placement and induction of epidural?
Q2-3 minutes. Once all loading doses are given or pump is started and BP is WNL and stable, you may decrease BP frequency to q5". After 15-30 minutes, you may decrease to q15".
Which of the following is NOT considered a high risk pregnancy?
A) Multiple gestation
B) Rubella, CMV, herpes
C) Decreased hematocrit
D) Syphilis
E) SROM
C) Decreased Hct. A high risk pregnancy includes an ELEVATED Hct. (Slide 5, PPT Psychosocial Risk Assessment.)
A synthetic, potent, nonsteriodal estrogen used between 1948-1971 to treat and prevent pregnancy complications such as threatened abortion or history of spontaneous abortion.
DES (Diethylstilbestrol)
Ectopic pregnancy or molar pregnancy occurs most commonly in the (first/second/third) trimester.
First
Gestational trophoblastic disease; a disorder of the trophoblast that may be benign or cancerous in nature.
Molar pregnancy
Preeclampsia or cervical incompetence occurs most commonly in the (first/second/third) trimester.
Second
Placenta previa or PROM (premature rupture of membranes) occurs most commonly in the (first/second/third) trimester.
Third.
Pregnancy is considered a (maturational/situational) crisis.
BOTH! (Slide 18, Psychosocial Risk Assessment PPT.)
What are the four stages of acquisition in the Maternal Role Attainment Theory?
Anticipatory, formal, informal, and personal. (Slide 21, Psychosocial Risk Assessment PPT.)
In the ___ stage of the Maternal Role Attainment Theory, a mother develops her own methods of mothering which are not conveyed by a social system.
Informal
The taking on of physical symptoms of pregnancy by the man- nausea and vomiting, abdominal pain, weight gain and food cravings, Once the father becomes more involved in the pregnancy, these symptoms may go away.
Couvade
What are the three phases of a father's emotional response to pregnancy?
Announcement (discovers pregnancy); Moratorium (withdraws slightly); Focusing (becomes real)
The state of Texas considers viability to be ___ grams or ___ weeks.
350 grams or 20 weeks.
Nuchal translucency is usually done during the (first/second/third) trimester.
First
Fetal lie/number/presentation is usually detected during the (first/second/third) trimester.
Second
Gestational age and growth is usually detected during the (first/second/third) trimester.
Second
Fetus that falls below 10th percentile in ultrasound evaluation of weight at a given gest age.
IUGR
Weight greater than 4000g. Dx is imprecise with ultrasound biometry or palpation.
Macrosomia
True/False. Low AFP is cause for fetal monitoring.
False. High AFP is cause for fetal surveillance. (Slide 7, Antepartum Testing PPT.)
The ____ is done after 32 weeks to determine respiratory function of the placenta.
Contraction Stress Test.
True/False. Positive results in a contraction stress test indicate no fetal complications.
FALSE. Positive results are BAD! (Slide 16, Antepartum Testing PPT.)
Positive CST is characterized by...
Late decels with 50% or more of induced contractions.
Chorionic villus sampling is done transvaginally at ___-___ weeks.
8-12 weeks. Results usually come back within 1-2 weeks. Risk of infection and fetal loss.
Amniocentesis can be performed after ___ weeks for genetic diagnosis.
16
AFP test is performed during what invasive procedure?
Amniocentesis
Difficult labor or childbirth.
Dystocia
Disparity between the size of the maternal pelvis and the fetal head.
Cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD)
Malposition of the fetal head.
Asynclitism
In the case of shoulder dystocia... What is HELPERR?
H: Call for help; E: Evaluate for episiotomy, empty bladder; L: Legs back and open in McRobert's position; P: pressure over pubis toward the baby's face; E: Entry maneuvers Rubin and Wood's Screw; R: remove posterior arm; R: roll patient-- the Gaskin Maneuver
____ is defined as 1.2cm/hr nullipara or 1.5 cm/hr multipara.
Primary dysfunctional labor
Protraction or descent, a form of abnormal labor progress, is described as <__cm/hr nullipara, or <__cm/hr multipara.
<1cm/hr nullipara, or <2cm/hr multipara
____ develops around a depression in the fetus and is related to hyperstimulation of the uterus.
Constriction ring
Develops after excessive retraction of the upper segment. “Hallmark of neglected labor.”
Bandl’s retraction ring; Above the ring is THICK; lower segment below is paper-thin and can rupture.
Bandl's retraction ring generally occurs late in the (first/second/third) stage of labor.
Second
In ____, the mother is exhausted by painful contractions by the uterus doesn't dilate.
Hypertonic uterine dysfunction; Prolonged latent phase >20 hours in primipara, >14 hours in multipara
What are the five aspects of Bishop's score of cervical readiness?
Position; Consistency ; Effacement; Dilation; Fetal Station
What might a physician give a mother in labor to "ripen" her cervix?
Cervidil; Misoprostol; Laminaria; or a Foley bulb
If a fetus begins to exhibit signs of distress, how should you position the mother?
Lateral recumbent position
What medication can you administer once you stop Pitocin if the fetus is still in distress?
Brethine (terbutaline)
WHEN THE BIPARIETAL DIAMETER OF THE FETAL HEAD IS PARALLEL TO THE PLANE OF THE PELVIS
SYNCLITISM
You can use ___ forceps when fetal skull has reached the perineum. Scalp is visible between contractions.
Outlet forceps
You use ___ forceps when fetal skull is at +2 station or more.
Low forceps
Chignon, AKA ____, can occur with the use of a vacuum extraction.
Caput Succadaneum
Amniocentesis is usually done in early pregnancy for genetic studies. Why is it done near term?
Near term it is used to obtain samples for determining fetal lung maturity prior to delivery. (Slide 39, Intrapartum Variations PPT.)
What are the four types of cesarean incisions?
Pfannestiel (skin); Kerr (uterine); Selheim (uterine); Classical (uterine)
The ___ incision is the most common cesarean incision.
Low horizontal
The involuntary maternal urge to push.
Ferguson reflex
A ___ pushing position can help rotate a fetus that is in posterior position, and can slow a precipitous birth.
Lateral
Waiting for the urge to push referred to as :
"Laboring down"
True/False. Urge to push with epidurals may not occur until long after 10 cm.
True. (Slide 11, Intrapartum Second Stage PPT.)
True/False. A repaired lacerations is less painful than an episiotomy.
True. (Slide 14, Intrapartum Second Stage PPT.)
A __ degree laceration involves fourchette, perineal skin, vaginal mucous membrane.
First
A ___ degree laceration involves fascia and muscles of perineal body
Second
A ___ degree laceration extends into the anal sphincter.
Third
A ___ degree laceration involves the anterior rectal wall (tissue of the rectum).
Fourth
About how long does the third stage of labor last?
About 5-30 minutes. >30 minutes is abnormal.
Estimated blood loss for vaginal delivery is how much? Cesarean delivery?
Vaginal delivery: 500cc; Cesarean delivery: 1,000 cc.
In placenta ___, the placenta has grown into the myometrium of the uterus.
Accreta
In placenta ___, the placenta extends further into the myometrium of the uterus.
Increta
In placenta ___, the placenta penetrates uterine serosa, and may attach to adjacent structures.
Placenta Percreta
In uterine ___, the uterus is soft and poorly contracted. The uterus is displaced to the side, and the bladder will need emptying.
Uterine atony
What does APGAR stand for?
Appearance, pulse, grimace, activity, and respiration
___ is given after delivery of the placenta to increase uterine contractions and decrease bleeding.
Oxytocin
Of VDRL and FTA-ABS tests, which is the screening and which is the diagnostic test?
VDRL (venereal disease research laboratory) is the SCREENING test. Positive results require further testing. FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption) is a DIAGNOSTIC TEST for syphilis.
How can you tell the difference between a caput and a cephalhematoma?
The cephalhematoma is bleeding under the periosteum, whereas caput is just edema under the scalp. The cephalhematoma does not cross suture lines, because each bone has its own periosteum.