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171 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Endometriosis is one of the most common causes of a. infertility b. fetal anomalies c. pelvic inflammatory disease d. endometrial cancer e. ovarian cancer |
a. Infertility |
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Gartner duct cyst is located is the
a. cervix b. vagina c. ovary d. endometium |
b.vagina |
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Cervical stenosis can led to what Sonographic finding a. nabothian cyst b. cervical polyp c. pyometra d. endometriosis |
c. pyometra |
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The most common complication of STD’s in women is a. endometriosis b. pelvic inflammatory disease c. cervical polyps d. all of the above |
b. pelvic inflammatory disease |
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Conditions that mimic PID on ultrasound include all of the following EXCEPT
a. appendicitis b. endometriosis c. multicystic ovarian disease d. leiomyoma |
d. leiomyoma |
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Oophoritis is an inflammation of the a. ovaries b. fallopian tubes c. uterus d. cervix |
a. ovaries |
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Putting color Doppler on during a scan where you suspect PID may revile a. no color flow b. no change in doppler flow c. an increase in doppler flow d. a decrease in doppler flow |
c. an increase in doppler flow |
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To distinguish between a hyrosalpinx and normal pelvic anatomy one should look for a. peristalses b. fluid c. blood flow d. b and c e. a and c |
e. a and c |
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Thickening of the endometrium can be associated with a. PID b. polyps c. cancer d. A,B and C e. A and B |
d. A, B and C |
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PID will only effect mestrating females True or False? |
False |
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A 34 year old black female present with irregular, heavy periods. The sonographer notes a diffusely enlarged uterus containing multiple hypoechoic masses. This would be most consistent with a. adenomyosis b. endometrial carcinoma c. leiomyoma d. leiomyosarcoma e. endometrial polyp |
c. leiomyoma |
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Which fibroid usually is the most symptomatic? a. intramural b. submucosal c. subserosal |
b. submucosal |
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A transvaginal scan on a 64yo presenting with vaginal bleeding reveals a thickened endometrium. Which of the following would be the most likely diagnosis a. endometriosis b. submucosal fibroid c. endometrial carcinoma d. endometristis |
c. endometrial carcinoma |
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Which of the following will appear as a cyst in the cervical region a. cervical carcinoma b. a nabothian c. cervical polyp d. Gartner's duct cyst e. cervical myoma |
b. a nabothian |
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A 23-year-old female presents with a fever, severe pelvic pain, and a history of sexually transmitted disease. She also states that she has a vaginal discharge. This clinical history most likely reflects which of the following a. Endometriosis b. Pelvic inflammatory disease c. Follicular cyst d. Endometrial carcinoma e. Paraovarian cyst |
b. Pelvic inflammatory disease |
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A patient with a history of resolved PID presents for ultrasound because of infertility. Ultrasound reveals a normal uterus and ovaries. There is also a finding of a dilated tubular echo free structure in the left adnexa without evidence of blood flow on Doppler evaluation. This would be most consistent with a. hydrosalpinx b. pyosalpinx c. tubo-ovarian abscess d. chronic salpingitis e. fitz-hugh-curtis syndrome |
a. hydrosalpinx |
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The most common type of fibroid is a. submucosal b. subserosal c. intramural d. pedunculated |
c. intramural
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The CLASSICAL appearance of a fibroid is a. hypoechoic, homogenous in texture b. hyperechoic, homogenous in texture c. diffuse echogenicity d. none of the above |
a. hypoechoic, homogenous in texture |
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Sonographic findings of a fibroid are all of the following EXCEPT a. heterogenous uterus b. calcifications c. contour distortion d. small uterus |
d. small uterus |
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A patient presents with heavy bleeding during menses and a history of endometriosis. On ultrasound the sonographer notes a uniformly enlarged uterus. This could possibly be a. PID b. Endometrial CA c. Adenomyosis d. TOA |
c. adenomyosis |
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A sonogram from a patient who had persistent bleeding. From the following list which 3 facts and/or symptoms would be MOST helpful in making a diagnosis a. age of patient b. blood type c. all prior surgeries d. results from blood work e. last menstrual period |
a. age of patient c. all prior surgeries e. last menstrual period |
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The diagnosis of PID is usually initialy made by sonography True or False? |
False |
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Endometriosis is commonly diagnosed with sonography True or False |
False |
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Endometriosis is thought to be caused by a. multiple partners b. retrograde menstrual flow c. STD d. A & B e. A,B & C |
b. retrograde menstrual flow |
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With transvaginal scanning the patients bladder is ________ of screen a. on bottom b. upper left c. upper right d. lower left e. A,B & C |
b. upper left |
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The patient has a history of entometrosis and now complains of LLQ pain. Based on her history you might suggest
a. TOA b. chocolate cyst c. endometrioma d. A & C e. B & C |
e. B and C ( chocolate cyst and endometrioma) |
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Match the endometrial thicknesses to the time of a woman's cycle or life. Proliferative phase Post- menopausal Secretory phase Hormone replacement postmenopausal A. 8mm B. 15mm C. 4mm D 12-15 mm |
Proliferative = c. 4mm
Post- menopausal = a. 8mm Secretory = c. 15mm Hormone = d 12-15mm |
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Fibroids have no effect on pregnancy True or False |
False
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Your job as a sonographer is to make a definite diagnosis
Yes or No? |
No
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Match the following endometrial pathology Endometritis Endometrial Hyperplasia Endometrial polyp A. condition that can result from estrogen stimulation to the endometrium B. pedunculated well-defined mass attached to the endometrial cavity C. infection with the endometrium of the uterus D. Malignancy characterized by abnormal thickening of the endometrial cavity |
Endometrial Carcinoma = D Endometritis = C Endometrial hyperplasia= A Endometrial polyp = B |
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_________ myomas may erode into the endometiral cavity and cause irregular or heavy bleeding. a. submucosal b. intramural c. subserosal d. none of the above |
a. submucosal
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This type of leiomyoma may become pedunculated and appear as an extrauterine mass a. intramural b. fibroid c. subserosal d. submucosal |
c. subserosal |
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Tamoxifen therapy is most likely to affect which of the following structures
a. cervix b. ovaries c. myometrium d. endometrium e. fallopian tubes |
d. endometrium |
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Which of the following is a risk factor for ovarian cancer 1. premenopause 2. multiparity 3. family history of lung cancer 4. infertility 5. late menopause |
5. late menopause |
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Which is the most common classification of ovarian cancer 1. Brennor tumor 2. endometrioid tumor 3. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma 4. serous cystadenocarcinoma 5. teratoma |
4. serous cystadenocarcinoma |
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Which of the following is MOST suggesitive of the ovarian malignancy 1. thin sepations 2. thin walls 3. anechoic 4. papillary nodules 5. a & c 6. a & d |
4. papillary nodules |
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Which of the following types of ovarian cysts is associated with gestational trophoblast
1. follicular cyst 2. endometrial cyst 3. corpus luteum cyst 4. paraovarian cyst 5. theca lutiem cyst |
5. theca lutiem cyst |
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2.5 out of 2.5 points A 23-year-old female presents for pelvis ultrasound with a history of a right adnexal mass palpated on clinical exam. The sonographers identifies a mass in the right adnexa that is complex in appearance with an echogenic focus that casts a strong shadow. This would be most consistent with which of the following pathologies?
1. corpus luteum cyst 2. mucinous cystadenoma 3. endometrioma 4. cystic teratoma 5. fibroma |
4. cyst teratoma |
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Which of the following tumors is a secondary tumor with a primary neoplasm of GI origin?
1. Dysgerminoma 2. brenner tumor 3. krukenburg tumor 4. fibroma 5. endometroid tumor |
3. krukenburg tumor |
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The most common cysts found are? a. teratomas b. functional cysts c. non-functional cysts d. solid masses |
b. functional cysts |
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A functional cyst after ovulation is called ? a. corpus luteal cyst b. follicular cyst c. paraovarian cyst d. polycystic disease |
a. corpus luteal cyst |
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Paraovarian cysts are remnants of a. follicles b. wofiaan ducts c. corpus luteum d. ovaries |
b. wolfiaan ducts |
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A patient presents with weight gain and inability to become pregnant. Which of the following might you see on a pelvic ultrasound
1. corpus luteal cyst 2. follicular cyst 3. paraovarian cyst 4. polycystic disease |
4. polycystic disease |
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A 50 year old female presents with pelvic pressure and lost of bladder control. Pelvic sonogram shows a 25cm cystic mass with thin walls. This would be most consistent with which of the following pathologies?
1. Brennor tumor 2. Endometrioid tumor 3. Mucinous cystadenoma 4. serous cystadenocarcenoma |
3. mucinous cystadenoma |
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Meig's syndrome is commonly associated with the following a. corpus luteum cyst b. mucinous cystadenoma c. endometrioma d. fibroma |
d. fibroma |
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Serous cystadenocarcinoma and Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma are part of the group of cancers than come from
1. germs cells 2. epithelial cells 3. stromal cells |
2. epithelial cells |
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2 out of 2 points Partial or complete rotation of the ovarian pedicle on its axis defines a paraovarian cyst
True or False? |
False |
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A 15 year old patient presents with pain, nausea and vomiting. On ultrasound the right ovary appearances enlarged and hypoechoic . This is most consistent with
1. teratoma 2. fibroma 3. ovarian torsion 4. hemorrhagic cyst |
3. ovarian torsion |
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A 72-year-old female presents with bleeding. The sonographer notes that the endometrial thickness measures 12.0mm. This would be most suggestive of 1. a normal finding 2. endometrial cancer 3. a submucosal fibroid 4. hematometra 5. adenomyosis |
2. endometrial cancer |
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A 42 year old female presents with abnormal bleeding and a history of Tamoxifin therapy use. The ultrasound shows a endometrium of 18mm. This would be most suggestive of 1. endometrial hyperplasia 2. endometrial polyps 3. adenomyosis 4. a normal finding |
1. endometrial hyperplasia |
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A mucinous cystadenoma is all except which of the following? 1. large cystic mass with multilocular cystic spaces 2. unilateral 3. most common cystic tumor 4. with thick irregular walls and septate |
4. with thick irregular walls and septate |
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Fluid in the cul-de-sac may be present with 1. ovarian malignancy 2. ruptured ovarian cyst 3. hemorrhagic cyst 4. a and c 5. all of the above |
5. all of the above |
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Which pelvis organ is more involved with metastatic disease? 1. uterus 2. bladder 3. ovary 4. fallopian tube 5. a and c |
3. ovary |
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A tumor that may mimic gas or feces in the pelvis is a 1. leiomyoma 2. lipoma 3. granulosa 4. dermoid |
4. dermoid
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You are most likely to see other women with ovarian cancer at 1. the maternity ward 2. a deserted island 3. Wal-Mart |
3. Wal- Mart |
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Which tumors are associated with increases in AFP and hCG 1. epithelial tumors 2. stroma tumors 3. germ cell tumors |
3. germ cell tumors |
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Match the terms to their definitions Corpus Luteum cyst, follicular cyst, functional cyst, paraovarian cyst, theca-lutein cyst A. cystic structure that lies adjacent to the ovary B. result from the normal function of the ovary C. a struture that develops within a ruptured ovain follicle and secretes progesterone and estrogen D. benign cyst within the overy that may occur and disappear on a cyclic basis E. multilocular cyst associated with high levels of HCG |
Corpus luteum cyst= C Follicular cyst = D Functional cyst = B Paraovarian cyst = A Theca-lutein cyst = E |
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Match the term with the definition Dermoid tumor, Meig's syndrome, mucinous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, surface epithelial stromal tumor A. tumors that arise from the surface epithelium and cover the ovary and the underlying stroma B. begin tumor of th ovary that contain thin walled multilocular cysts C. beign tumor of the ovary associated with ascites and pleural effusion D. benign tumor composed of hair, muscle, teeth, and fat E. most common type of ovarian carcinoma; may be bilateral with multilocular cysts |
Dermoid tumor= D Meig's syndrome= C Mucinous cystadenoma= B Serous Cystadenocarcinoma = E Surface Epithelial Stroma Tumor= A |
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What is the ovariona mass that is most likely mistaken for bowel |
Dermoid |
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According to the speaker another name for dermoid is |
Teratoma |
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What statement about Meig's syndrome is false? 1. It is associated with fibroma. 2. It includes ascites. 3. It is associated with theca lutein cysts. 4. It includes pleural effusions. |
3. It is associated with theca lutein cysts |
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Simple ovarian cysts in postmenopausal women are not likely malignant when measuring less than _____ cm. 1. 1-2 cm 2. 2-3 cm 3. 4-5 cm 4. size doesn't matter |
3. 4-5 cm |
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Which statement about polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is false? 1. It includes amenorrhea. 2. It includes early pregnancy loss. 3. It occurs in the mid to late thirties 4. It includes hirsutism. |
3. It occurs in the mid to late thirties |
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It is uncommon to see cysts in postmenopausal woman True or False? |
False |
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The presence of a papillary projection means there is about a 50% chance that a tumor is malignant True or False? |
True |
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If you see multiple cysts on the ovaries you want to ask what question to the patient? a. Are you pregnant? b. Are you on fertility medication? c. Have you had pelvic surgery? d. When was your last LMP? |
b. Are you on fertility medication?
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One of the speakers spoke about using color on tumors. Is the color flow generally more or less within the ovaries a. More b. Less c. No change d. No color is seen |
a. more
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The speaker spoke about one way to scan to diagnosis hydrosalpix, what is that? |
TRV view near the fundus to see tube enter cornu of the uterus |
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What is the most likely age group for ovarian cancer a. 1-15 b. 15-30 c. 30-45 d. 45-60 |
f. 45-60 |
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Which types of vascularity are you likely to see with ovarian cancer a. torturous vessels b. straight vessels c. minimal flow d. bridges in vessels e. branching in vessels |
a, d and e |
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Which of the following intrauterine contraceptive devices has a T-shaped appearance? |
progestasert |
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5 out of 5 points A 35 year old multigravida presents for ultrasound with a history of an inability to palpate the string of her IUD. The ultrasound reveals an echogenic, T-shaped reflection that shadows in the upper portion of the endometrial canal. This would be consistent with
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a normally placed IUD |
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Males make up ________of inferitility cases in the US |
40% |
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All of the following may cause infertility except?
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nabothian cyst |
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The act of helping with reproduction is sometimes referred to as |
ART |
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Hyperstimulation syndrome is a complication of polycystic ovaries? True or False |
False |
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A sonographic finding in hyperstimulation syndrome may include all of the following except? |
Atrophic ovaries |
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An IUD on long axis shows multiple small echogenic components. This is representative of a
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lippies loop |
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Of all the IUD's avaliable the one that you are least likely to see is |
dalkon shield |
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When looking for an IUD NOT in the uterus sonography is the exam of choice True or False |
False |
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A hysterosalpiangogram will help determine abnormalities of the |
b and c |
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When looking at ovaries that are hyperstimulated the sonographers should also evaluate the |
RUQ |
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All of the following are indications for sonohysterography except |
Threatened miscarriage |
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History: 12 year old girl with pelvic pain for 1 week and palpable pelvic mass |
Hematometrocolpos |
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Precocious Puberty |
the onset of signs of puberty before the age 7 or 8 in girls |
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This patient is on hormone therapy because of infertility, you find multiple large cyst on both ovaries. The image presented is of her RUQ. You would make the suggestion that she has what medical condition. |
Hyperstimulation Syndrome |
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Which of the following is a relative contradiction for sonohystography |
active pelvic inflammatory disease |
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You are performing a sonogram on a 5 year old female for precocious puberty you might see the following |
a 7x5x4 cm uterus |
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The MOST common cause of hydrocolpos or Pyometra in children is |
Imperforate hymen |
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What is another term used for an anembryonic pregnancy? a. blighted ovum b. missed abortion c. spontaneous abortion d. incomplete abortion |
a. blighted ovum |
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A patient presents at 6 weeks gestation with bleeding and cramping. The ultrasound demonstrates a normal first trimester pregnancy. This would be termed a. inevitable abortion b. missed abortion c. incomplete abortion d. threatened abortion e. habitual abortion |
d. threatened abortion |
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A patient presents for ultrasound at 7 weeks gestation with spotting and acute pelvic pain. The patient also reveals a history of endometriosis. The sonographer identifies a uterus without any evidence of an IUP. This would suggest which of the following a. ectopic pregnancy b. threatened abortion c. incomplete abortion d. spontaneous abortion |
a. ectopic pregnancy |
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What is the MOST common patient presentation of an ectopic pregnancy 1. bleeding, pain, and adnexal mass 2. bleeding, shock, and low blood pressure 3. amenorrhea, pain, and palpable mass 4. history of infertility treatments and pain 5. bleeding, cramping and fever |
1. bleeding, pain, and adnexal mass |
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First trimester bleeding can be caused by which of the following 1. ectopic 2. trophoblastic disease 3. spontaneous abortion 4. a and c 5. a,b and c |
5. a,b and c |
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The discriminatory level of HCG is the level at which 1. the fetal heart will be seen 2. a positive pregnancy test occurs 3. an intrauterine pregnancy should be visible on TV sonogram 4. none of the above |
3. an intrauterine pregnancy should be visible on TV sonogram |
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An anembryonic pregnancy may show all of the following except 1. large GS 2. unusual shaped GS 3. small fetal pole 4. small GS |
3. small fetal pole |
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All of the following are spontaneous abortions except? 1. missed ab 2. complete ab 3. threatened ab 4. elective ab |
4. elective ab |
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A septic abortion can be caused by a spontaneous abortion only True or False? |
False
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From the following the most common site for an ectopic pregnancy is 1. fimbria 2. ovary 3. ampullary 4. abdomen |
3. ampullary |
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Which statement about ectopic pregnancies is NOT true 1. the most common clinical symptom is pain 2. If a patient has had a previous ectopic, she is at increased risk for a recurrent ectopic pregnancy 3. Interstitial ectopics are more serious than those located in the ampulla 4. The increased incidence of ectopic pregnancies is mostly attributable to sexually transmitted disease 5. The ovary is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancy |
5. The ovary is the second most common site for ectopic pregnancy |
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All of the following suggest an abnormal early pregnancy except 1. irregular sac shape 2. poor decidual ring 3. dialated cervix 4. fundal implantation 5. fluid around the sac |
4. fundal implantationq |
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A hCG of less than 1200 and no IUP seen on ultrasound would include a differential diagnosis of all the following except 1. early intrauterine preg 2. ectopic preg 3. missed ab 4. complete ab |
3. missed abortion |
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A hCG that decreases in 48 hrs is more likely to be produced by a 1. normal IUP 2. ectopic pregnancy 3. molar pregnancy 4. spontaneous pregnancy |
4. spontaneous pregnancy
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The double sac sign is 1. decidua capsularis and decidua parietalis 2. decidua capsularis and decidua basalis 3. decidua capsularis and chorion laeve |
1. decidua capsularis and decidua parietalis |
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When looking for an ectopic pregnancy you would look for blood in 1. the uterus 2. the fallopian tube 3. the cul de sac 4. the ovary |
3. the cul de sac |
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A follow up exam is of no value in the diagnosis of abnormal pregnancies True or False? |
False |
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The banana and lemon signs are associated findings of 1. the fetal abdomen 2. fetal demise 3. the fetal lungs 4. the fetal skeletal system 5. the fetal brain |
5. the fetal brain |
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The third ventricle is a midline intracranial structure surrounded by a hypoechoic region call the
1. corpus callosum 2. cerebral peduncle 3. cavum septum pellucidum 4. thalamus |
4. thalamus
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The three ossification centers of the spine are seen best in a transverse plane of section True or False? |
True |
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A neck mass is lymphatic in origin 1. cystic hygroma 2. nuchal thickening 3. thyriglossal duct cyst 4. epignathus |
1. cystic hygroma
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Cyclopia refers to 1. a soft tissue protrusion from the forehead 2. extra digits 3. a skull deformity with a prominent forehead 4. a single bony orbit |
4. a single bony orbit |
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Lateral displacement of the anterior horns of the lateral ventricles, upward displacement of the third ventricle, absence of the CSP, and associated neurological abnormalities describe 1. hydranencephaly 2. semilobar holoprosencephaly 3. non-communicating hydrocephaly 4. agenesis of the corpus callosum |
4. agenesis of the corpus callosum |
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During the first trimester the choroid plexus is seen filling the lateral ventricles True or False |
True |
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The fetal spine appears incomplete or splayed in a transverse imaging plane. The most likely diagnosis is 1. spondylosis 2. scoliosis 3. spini bifida 4. lordosis |
3.spina bifida |
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A 28-year old female presents for ultrasound with a history of an elevated MSAFP. The sonographer identifies an absence of the fetal calvarium and cerebral hemispheres and polyhydramnios. This suggests 1. acrania 2. anencephaly 3. Arnold Chiari II malformation 4. spina bifida 5. rachischisis |
2. anencephaly |
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Aqueductal Stenosis will cause dilation of which of the following 1. the lateral ventricles 2. the third ventricle 3. the fourth ventricle 4. a and b 5. b and c |
4. a and b |
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A defect in the cranium through which intracranial contents herniates is called 1. anencephaly 2. encephalocele 3. holoprosencephaly 4. a and b |
2. encephalocele |
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A epignathus is a tumor arising from the fetal
1. oral cavity or pharynx 2. posterior neck 3. posterior spine 4. occipital bone |
1. oral cavity or pharynx |
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__________ is characterized by mandibular hypoplasia causing a receding chin 1. Hypotelorism 2. Macro telorism 3. Micrognathia 4. Hypertelorism |
3. Micrognathia |
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An abnormal thickening of the tissue posterior to the cervical spine in the 1st trimester is called a nuchal fold True or False? |
False |
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The MOST common abnormality associated with nuchal thickening is 1. turner syndrome 2. trisomy 13 3. trisomy 21 4. trisomy 12 |
3. trisomy 21 |
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A reduction in the distance between the orbits is referred to as 1. anophthaimia 2. hypertelorism 3. hypotelorism 4. micrognathia |
3. hypotelorism |
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A group of abnormalities associated with the entrapment of fetal parts and fetal ampulations is 1. cystic hygroma 2. edwards syndrome 3. ethmocephaly 4. amniotic band syndrome |
4. amniotic band sydrowme |
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Teratogenesis can cause congenital abnormalities True or False? |
True |
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All of the following are possible teratogenics except 1. Alcohol 2. Oligohydramnios 3. infections 4. Polyohydramnios 5. heat |
4. Polyohydramnios |
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Aneuploid is a normal balanced set of chromosomes True or False? |
False |
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Which of the following abnormalities is characterized by agenesis of the cerebellar vermis, splaying of the cerebellar hemispheres and the posterior fossa cyst? 1. arachnoid cyst 2. Dandy-Walker malformation 3. Holoprosencephaly 4. hydrocephaly |
2. Dandy- Walker malformation |
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MATCHING hypertelorism, hypoplasia, hypotelorism, micrognathia, polydactyly A. Abnormally wide- spaced orbits usually found in conjunction with congenital anomalies and mental retardation B. underdevelopment of a tissue, organ or body C. abnormally closely spaced orbits: associated with holoprosencephly. chormosomal and certal nervous system disorders and cleft palate D. abnormally small chin, commonly associated with other fetal anomalies E. anomalies of the hand or feet in which there is an addition of a digit |
hypertelorism = A hypoplasia = B hypotelorism = C micrognathia = D polydactyly = E |
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While scanning a fetus you find the following: choroid plexus cyst, facial cleft and strawberry shaped head. What chromosomal abnormalities would be most likely? 1. Trisomy 18 2. Trisomy 21 3. Trisomy 13 4. Turner Syndrome |
1. Trisomy 18 |
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When determining lethal from non-lethal skeletal dysplasias all of the following criteria may be seen except 1. severe micromelia 2. severe hypoplastic thorax 3. polydactyly 4. innumerable fractures |
3. polydactyly |
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Sonographic findings of severe micromelia, hypomineralization of the skull, multiple fractures, small thorax suggest the following abnormality 1. achondrogenesis 2. osteogenesis imperfecta II 3. hypophosphatasia 4. osteogenesis imperfecta I |
2. osteogenesis imperfecta II |
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Which of the following is associated with polyhydramnios 1. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney 2. diaphragmatic 3. esophageal atresia 4. all of the above 5. b and c |
5. b and c |
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MATCH amniotic band syndrome, encephalocele, exstrphy, gastroschisis, omphalocele A. opening in the layers of the abdominal wall with evisceration of the bowel B. rupture of the amion that leads to entrapment or entanglement of fetal parts C. protrusion of the brain through the skull D. defect in lower abdominal wall and anterior bladder wall E. midline defect that results in herniation of intraabdominal structures into the base of the umbilical cord |
amniotic band syndrome = B encephalocele = C exstrophy = D gastrochisis = A omphalocele = E |
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MATCH multicystic dysplastic kidney disease, Potter's syndrome, Prune-belly syndrome, ureteropelvic junction, ureterovesical junction A. junction where the ureter enters the bladder B. junction of the ureter entering the renal pelvis; most common site of obstruction C. renal agenesis; oligohydramnios, pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies and malformed hands & feet D. multiple cysts replace normal renal tissue throughout the kidey usually causes renal obstruction E. dilation of the fetal abdomen secondary to severe bilateral hydro anf fetal ascites |
multicystic dysplastic kidney disease = D potter's syndrome = C prune-belly syndrome = E ureteropelvic juncton = B ureterovesical junction = A |
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The double bubble sign is a result of what abnormality |
duodenal atresia
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Duodenal atresia will cause a __________ in amniotic fluid volume |
increase |
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Which of the following fetal cardiac anomalies may ultrasound revel a VSD, overriding aorta and pulmonary artery stenosis 1. AV septal defect 2. Epstein's anomaly 3. Pentalogy of Cantrell 4. Tetralogy of fallot 5. Transposition of the great arteries |
4. Tetralogy of fallot |
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Which of the following anomalies would you consider if you saw the stomach and heart in the same transverse plane 1. congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation 2. congenital diaphragmatic hernia 3. duodenal atresia 4. multicystic dysplastic kidney 5. ovarian cyst |
2. confenital diaphragmatic hernia |
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Which of the following anomalies is described as a herniation of intestines through an open defect in the abdominal wall 1. amniotic band syndrome 2. body stalk anomaly 3. gastroschisis 4. ompalocele 5. pentalofy of Cantrell |
3. gastroschisis |
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Which of the following is also referred to as Patau syndrome 1. Trisomy 18 2. Trisomy 21 3. Trisomy 12 4. Trisomy 13 |
4. Trisomy 14 |
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Polydactyly is 1. bowing of the long bones 2. closed fists 3. extra digits of the hands or feet 4. shortening of the proximal extremities |
3. extra digits of the hands or feet |
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A 23year old female presents for ultrasound at 19 weeks with a history of diabetes and measuring small for dates. The ultrasound reveals severe oligohydramnios, no apparent bladder, and large echogenic structures in the renal beds. This is most consistent with 1. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease 2. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease 3. multicystic dysplactic kidneys 4. posterior urethral valves 5. renal agenesis |
2. autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease |
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Which structure in the fetal retroperitoneum might be confused for a normal kidney 1. spleen 2. psoas muscle 3. descending colon 4. adrenal gland |
4. adrenal gland |
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Which of the following statements regarding diaphragmatic hernia is NOT true 1. most diaphragmatic hernias occur on the right side 2. a differential diagnosis for a fluid dilled mass in the lung is CCAM type 1 3. severe diaphragmatic hernias include bowel and even liver 4. there is associated polyhydramnios with a diaphragmatic hernia |
1. most diaphragmatic hernia occur on the right side |
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Which of the following cardia cannot be detected with a four chamber view 1. hypoplastic left heart 2. transposition of the great arteries 3. VSD 4. a and b 5. b and c |
2. transposition of the great arteries |
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The most common cause of neonatal hydronephrosis is 1. UVJ 2. UIJ 3. UPJ 4. PUV |
3. UPJ |
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A large complex mass with calcifications is seen projecting from the sacrum area of the femal fetus on ultrasound. This most likely is a 1. fibroid 2. spina bifida 3. teratoma 4. none of the above |
3. teratoma |
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The shortening of the distal segment of the extremities is called 1. rhizomelia 2. mesomelia 3. micromelia 4.amelia |
2. mesomelia |
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Cyclopia, hypotelorism, proboscis, cebocephaly, and cleft lip/palate are 1. abnormal intracranial findings 2. abnoraml facial findings 3. associated with hydrocephaly 4. all of the above |
2. abnormal facial findings |
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A bell-shaped chest and multiple fetal fractures are indicative of 1. thanstophoric dysplasia 2. caudal regression syndrome 3. osteogenesis imperfecta 4. achondrogenesis |
3. osteogenesis imperfecta |
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MATCH placenta accreta, placenta increta, placenta percreta, succenturiate placenta, molar pregnancy A. growth of the chorionic villi superficially into the myometrium B. one or more accessory lobes connected to the placenta by blood vessels C. growth of the chorionic villi deep into the myometrium D. also know as gestional trophoblastic disease E. growth of the chorionic villi though the myometrium |
placenta accreta = A placenta increta = C placenta percreta = E succenturiate placenta = B molar pregnancy = D |
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The separation of a normally implanted placenta before term delivery is referred to as placental _______. 1. previa 2. accreta 3. abruption 4. vasa |
3. abruption |
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The risk of placenta accreta increases in patients with placenta previa and ________. 1. multiple pregnancies 2. male fetuses 3. uterine surgery 4. post dates |
3. uterine surgery
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_______ abruption results from the rupture of spiral arteries and is a high pressure bleed 1. marginal 2. retroplacental 3. complete 4. positional |
2. retroplacental |
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When the umbilical cord implants into the edge of the placenta insteead of into the middle of the placenta. This is called ______ placenta 1. vasa 2. circumvallate 3. battledore 4. circummarginate |
3. battledore
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The saying that is used to show the different stages of a short cervix on ultrasound |
Trust Your Vaginal Ultrasound (TYVU) |
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________IUGR is usually the result of a first trimester insult, such as a chromosomal abnormality or infection. 1. term 2. asymmetric 3. symmetric 4. unconditional |
3. symmetric |
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In IUGR the fetal ________ is one of the most severly affected body organs
1. head 2. abdomen 3. femur 4. orbits |
2. abdomen |
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Macrosomia is a common result of poorly controlled maternal 1. HNT 2. diabetes 3. weight gain 4. smoking |
2. diabetes |
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MATCH monozygotic, dizygotic, conjoined twin, poilyhramnios, oligohydramnios A. twins that araise from a single fertilised egg, which divides to produces two identical fetus B. Too little amniotic fluid C. occurs when the division if the egg occurs after 13 days D. Two much amniotic fluid E. twins that arise from two separately fertilized ova |
monozygotic = A dizygotic = E conjoined twins = C polyhydramnios = D oligohydramnios = B |
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A group of conditions in which hydrops is present in the fetus but is not the result of fetomaternal blood group incompatibility is ________ 1. cordocentesis 2. eclampsia 3. thrombocytopenia 4. nonimmune hydrops |
4. nonimmune hydrops |
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A rare anomaly occuring in monochorionic twins in which one twins develops without a heat and often without the upper part of the body is _____ anomaly 1. reverse 2. acardiac 3. conjoined 4. twin to twin transfer |
2. acardiac |
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The primary cause of placentaomegaly is 1. intrauterine growth restriction 2. fetal demise 3. maternal diabetes 4. cardiovascular disease |
3. maternal diabetes |
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A circumscribed complex mass protruding from the fetal surgace of the placenta is demonstrated on ultrasound. This most likely represents 1. succenturiate placenta 2. abruptio placenta 3. circumvallate placenta 4. chorioangioma |
4. chorioangioma |
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One of the growth problems of the diabetic fetus si 1. small for gestational age 2. macrosomia 3. microsomia 4. symmetric growth restriction |
2. macrosomia |
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An anechoic mass is noted within the umbilical cord during a routine sonographic examination. what is the most likely diagnosis? 1. hemangioma 2. vasa previa 3. chorioangioma 4. allantoic cyst |
4. allantoic cyst |
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The caudal regression syndrome is found most commonly in patients with 1. systemic lupus erytematosus 2. peremature rupture of membranes 3, diabetes 4. hypertension |
3. diabetes |
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In twin to twin transfustion syndrome 1. both twins are at risk of dying 2. is an arteriovenous shunting within the placenta 3. the recipient twin may demonstrate polyhydramnios 4 all of the above |
4. all of the above |
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Which of the following is NOT true regarding the sonographic look of a placenta accreta 1. the placenta looks heterogenous 2. there is a chaotic color flow pattern in the placenta 3. the placenta will look thinner 4. there may be a bladder buldge |
3. the placenta will look thinner |
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Can a TV scan diagnosis a placenta previa Yes or NO? |
Yes |
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Fetal abdomen wall anomalites will cause an increase in _____________ 1. hCG levels 2. unconjugated estroil 3. alpha fetal protein 4. hormone inhibin A |
3. alpha fetal protein |
