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87 Cards in this Set

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3 components of clot formation
a. Vasoconstriction
b. Platelet activation
c. Blood coagulation
Hemostasis
THe controlled activation of coagulation factors and platelets leading to CLOT formation, and subsequent CLOT LYSIS. It stops hemmorhage w/o excessive clotting = THROMBOSIS
What are the 4 steps of primary hemostasis?
1. Adhesion to collagen at site of vascular injury

2. Release of platelet contents

3. Aggregation of additional platelets

4. Provision of phospholipid surface
purpura(um)
bruise
Petechia(um)
bruises < 2 mm in diameter
Ecchymosis
bruises greater than 2 mm in diameter
Primary hemostasis
Carried out by platelets in 4 steps.
Formation of clot after vascular injury.
Secondary hemostasis
Series of complements that work together to form a clot.
1. INTRINSIC pathway -activated by trauma w/in vascular system itself (atheromatous plaque inside vessel, for example)
2. EXTRINSIC pathway - the baseball basher - external trauma
3. COMMON pathway
Primary hemostasis =
platelets
Secondary hemostasis =
coagulation cascade
What happens to call in secondary hemostasis:
Intrinsic + Extrinsic + Common pathways:
Disruption of endothelium exposes TISSUE FACTOR [THROMBOPLASTIN/FACTOR III], triggering the EXTRINSIC pathway by converting intrinsic factor 7 to 7a

Endothelium disruption also exposes COLLAGEN, activating the INTRINSIC pathway
tissue factor
triggers extrinsic pathway and platelets
trigger
activator
First component of clot formation:
VASOCONSTRICTION: smooth muscle action activated by TRAUMA. SMOOTH MUSCLES in walls of small arterial structures contract and STOP leakage.
Second component of clot formation
PLATELET ACTIVATION: leads to platelet aggregation [primary hemostasis]. Proper platelet activity - form clot as starting point for complete formal clot
Your liver is a manufacturing plant. It makes the majority of the proteins that circulate in bloodstream. ___________ -dependent factors
Vitamin K-dependent factors

During synthesis in liver, these factors are enzymatically modified by gamma-carboxylase, allowing for Ca+ binding, necessary for optimal enzyme activity. No good liver, no good factors = bruised and bleeding.
No vitamin ___, no synthesis by liver. No good liver, no vitamin __.
K
K
Third step of blood coagulation
secondary hemostasis
Extrinsic and Intrinsic factors - forms mature clot
Coumadin
inhibits vitamin K dependent gamma-carboxylation

Coumadin is Warfarin

Make certain pt not taking these meds or are managed before doing any deep tissue/myofascial work
3 components to clot formation
Vasocostriction
Platelet activation
Blood coagulation
Primary hemostasis:
1. ADHESION to collagen at site of vascular injury
Mediated by glycoprotein Ib on the platelet surface and von Willenbrand factor, released by endothelial cell
Primary hemostasis:
2. RELEASE OF PLATELET contents
Platelets release GRANULES

Synthesis of PROSTAGLANDIN THROMBOXANE A2 - promotes platelet aggregation! ~ a potent vasoconstrictor
Primary hemostasis
3. AGGREGATION of additional PLATELETS
Mediated by glycoprotein 2a/3b - integrin protein COMPLEX on platelet surface
Integrin molecules can then BOND FIBRINOGEN [bridging platelets together]
Primary hemostasis
4. PROVISION of PHOSPHOLIPID surface
Platelet phospholipid MEMBRANE is crucial for ORGANIZING and PROMOTING INTERACTIONS of clotting factors.
Platelets also help integrate the INTRINSIC pathway
4 FACTOR GROUPS in 2nd hemostasis:
1. ACTIVATORS
2. vitamin K- dependent factors
3. CO-factors
4. FIBRINOGEN
Explain the 2nd hemostasis factor ACTIVATORS
Tissue factor activates 7 - 7a (extrinsic)
Collagen activates the CONTACT phase proteins which activate factors 11 - 11a
Explain factor group VITAMIN K DEPENDENT factors of 2nd hemostasis:
Prothrombin is 12
During synthesis in LIVER, these factors are enzymatically modified by gamma-carboxylase, allowing for Ca+ binding = necessary for optimal ENZYME activity
Hepatocyte gamma-carboxylase requires Vitamin K as a COFACTOR
Coumadin (Warfarin) is for clotters. Coumadin INHIBITS vitamin K dependent gamma-carboxylase
Patient w/ advanced liver dz will be bruised and bleed easily b/c cannot construct proteins (fibrinogen to fibrin to make mature clot). Affects cascade and most extrinsic pathways.
Explain COFACTORS as a factor group in 2nd hemostasis
Required for optimal activity

*do not memorize factors (8,9,10)
Explain FIBRINOGEN as a factor in 2nd hemostasis
Conversion of fibrinogen to FIBRIN = allows polymerization of fibrin monomers to make a CLOT [gel-phase, stabilized by action of factor XIII]
What substances INHIBIT clotting?
TISSUE PLASMINOGEN ACTIVATOR ("Activase") TPA and components of the contact phase convert circulating plasminogen to PLASMIN

ANTITHROMBIN 3: naturally occuring coagulant. HEPARIN administered in hospital keeps clots from forming, going against other vitamin K dependent factors

PROTEIN C & PROTEIN S:
Leydin factor
Lab results for Platelet disorders number 1 check first?
PLATELET COUNT:
150,000 to 400,000/ul blood

**Less than 20,000/ul means SPONTANEOUS BLEEDING
Platelet count may be adequate, but the ________ may be impaired.
function
#1 reason for nosebleed
1. Kicking the nose!

2. Other trauma
3. Superdry mucous membrane
Bleeding time
nick in skin to see how long it takes to stop bleeding

Non-specific test
Repeat to clot in between 3-8 min
Platelet function analyzer
Platelet CLOSURE time:

mimics platelet clotting time
measures adhesion and aggregation time
INDEPENDENT of platelet numbers
****This test is REPLACING BLEEDING TIME TEST
What factors give you a prolonged closure time, similar to long bleeding time?
Platelet count below 100k
Hematocrit less than 30%
(see list)
Platelet aggregometry
Detects responsiveness of a platelet to different PLATELET ACTIVATORS to ***see if they are aggregating properly

(ie, collagen/exposed basement membrane, Ep, ristocetin, ADP, arachidonic acid) - ntq
Platelet Aggregation ASSAYS
storage pool deficiency test
Defects in T-A2
Von WIllenbrand's dz
If we really want to know what is happening with platelets, we look
into the marrow
Coagulation system laboratory tests

FIRST TEST:
1. PRO time = extrinsic pathway
{prothrombin time is 11-12 sec}. Tissue factor and Ca++ are added to plasma and time to form a fibrin clot is measured. EXTRINSIC pathway.

To find WHICH factor is the problem, mark each and assay them individually, ie Leiden factor V
What organ can cause extrinsic pathway to crash?
LIver

VItamin K because factor 7 havs shortest half-life of all the Vit K dependent factors and Prothrombin time is typically sued to monitor COUMADIN therapy
Coagulation time lab tests

SECOND test
APTT
Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time
(22-33 sec)
Evaluated INTRINSIC factors and COMMON pathway

Ca+ and activator added
Commonly used to assess affect of heparin - ntq
Coagulation time lab tests

THIRD test
THROMBIN time
Coagulation time lab tests

Specific Factor and PRotein assays detect
specific factor anomalies
Coagulation time lab tests

FIbrin degredation products (FDP) or Fibrin Split products FSP
d-dimer x assay

fibrinolysis and fibrinogenolysis
Disorders of Platelets may result in
spontaneous bleeding:
Petechiae, epitaxis, menorrhagia, intracranial brain bleed
ITP
antibodies against platelets = purpura

ITP = Idiopathic Thrombocytopenia Purpura
ITP lab data
Platelet count DECREASED
PT and APTT stay normal!
Bone marrow - normal to increased megakaryocytes
Anti-platelet antibodies = POSITIVE
DIC
Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

sys activation of coagulation w/ widespread thrombosis consumes platelets and fibrinogen, resulting in hemorrhage
Occurs in traumatic tissue damage = esp. head injury, sepsis, tumor, lysis, shock
Clotting in all organs then you've used up all your coagulation platelets so you bleed
DIC = trauma!

Disseminated INtravascular Coagulation
lab for DIC
Prolongation of PT, APTT increased

Platelet count decreased

Fibrinogen low

FSP/FDP increased
Von Villebrandn's dz
congenital
deficiency in vW factor - a cofactor necessary for factor 7 activity and platelet adhesion/aggregation
Blood glucose over _____ is required to confirm something is wrong.
100
Blood glucose test requires 2 tests that measure over 126
OR...
FBG over 126 accompanied by the _________
polys:
polyuria
polydypsia
polyphagia
Range b/w 100-126 fasting blood glucose
IMPAIRED fasting glucose
Two fasting blood glucose of ___________

OR _____________ is the diagnostic criteria for DIABETES.
1. TWO tests over 126

2. one test over 126 w/ POLYS
Glucose tolerance test is NOT used for plain old diabetes*** either type.

It IS used for?
1. pregnancy (gestational diabetes) **

2. hypoglycemia **

3. Impaired glucose metabolism of some description
You do not memorize the GTT procedure steps. It is a pain in the 'tookus'
There should be a rise, a peak and then a reduction in your blood sugar.
RISE
PEAK
FALL
Blood sugar
2 hour post-prandial test
2-hr PP:

140-199 mg/Dl = IMPAIRED GLUCOSE TOLERANCE
(this is NOT impaired fasting glucose, which means your body has NOT eaten anything and cannot maintain sugar)
Impaired glucose tolerance means you HAVE eaten and your body
still CANNOT manage sugar properly

[Glu-cola]
MACROSOMIA
babies of diabetic moms

before C-section, injured both mother and child because infant is HUGE from sugar diet
Hb HA1c
Gycated (Glycosalated) Hemoglobin test:

Index of how much HEMOGLOBIN is attached (GLYCATED) to our GLUCOSE

Gives idea of managing glucose by how much Hgb is glycated. If UP, then NOT managing glucose well.
regarding Hb A1c, above ___% IS diabetes.
6.5%

Know fasting glucose range too
Hb A1c EAG
Estimated Average Glucose**

a math calc where take A1c and convert it to average daily values of glucose
Complications of diabetes
1. macro vascular = heart attacks and strokes
2. micro vascular = kidney and eye
3. neurologic = sensory neural (polyneuropathy/glove and stocking)
Mononeuropathy Multiplex
subcategory of diabetic complications:
One or more SINGLE MOTOR PALSIES

ie, ptosis and lateral strabismus when they wake up one day. Can wake up with radial nerve palsey and cranial nerve palsey = more than one nerve involved at the same time (multiplex)
Brittle diabetic
no matter what is done, the diabetes type I just cannot be controlled
Autonomic complications
3rd subcategory of diabetic complications

erectile dysfunction
heart rate
respiratory rate
bowels
difference b/w vascular and neuropathic ulcer
SENSORY poly neuropathy of glove and stocking distribution is NEUROPATHIC sensory death - injuries cannot be felt, skin friable. Found at PRESSURE spots.

VASCULAR ulcer = small vessel complications. TIPS OF TOES, ANKLES, DORSUM OF FEET thin areas
diagnostic criteria of hypoglycemia
glucose below 50
resolution of sx w/ glucose administration
sx:
WHIPPLE'S TRIAD= Low blood glucose, Headaches, confusion, sweating, weakness, shakiness, lightheadness, rapid pulse, hunger, nausea
Type 1 lipid/lioprotein abnormality
IV: HYPER-TRIGLYCERID-EMIA 4 =

*FAT layer PRESENT on sample, even when fasting
Type IIa and IIb lipoprotein abnormality
II: HAMBURGER & FRIES

**Most easily responds to diet and exercise
Trigs are not an independent risk factor for ________ but are a risk for _____ disease.
atherosclerosis
heart disease
Type III, IV & V lipoprotein abnormality
III, IV & V: COMBINATION OF INCREASED TRIGS & CHOLESTEROL

***Don't respond as well to diet and cholesterol
Increased triglycerides are generally _____ significant than increased cholesterol.
less

*Increased trigs are often not treated but an independent risk factor in women
Increased triglycerides have an INVERSE correlation between trigs and ___________
HDL

*An increase in trigs can lead to PANCREATITIS
Which type of trig abnormality has a FAT LAYER on top of sample, even if they are fasting?
IV: HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA
All types of triglyceride abnormalities (types 1-4) respond to
somewhat to STATINS, DIET & EXERCISE
Trigs and HDL have an ________ correlation
inverse
Most cases of increased triglycerides are due to
DIET!!!
Secondary increases of increased triglycerides are due to
DRAM:
Diabetes Mellitus
Renal fail
Alcohol abuse

*first cause of inc. trigs = diet
The reference values of TRIGLYCERIDES are based on _________risk.
atherosclerosis

<200 mg/dl for cholesterol

LDL less than 130, less than 100 in peeps w/ identifiable risk factors
HDL above 40-45
Cardiac test interpretation is based on the _______________ diagnostic criteria
WHO AMI
WHO AMI cardiac criteria:
Must be 2 of 3:
1. History of prolonged characteristic chest pain
2. ECG changes
3. Typical pattern of serum cardiac enzyme rise, peak and return to reference range
What are typical CARDIAC markers
SERUM ENZYMES
& ISOENZYMES
What is a DIAGNOSTIC WINDOW for cardiac marker
each marker has its own characteristic initial rise, peak and return to normal