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177 Cards in this Set

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According to the principles of the USDA Food Guide, the foundation of a healthful diet should consist of:
A. dairy.

B. fruits.

C. nutrient-dense foods.

D. meats and alternatives.
C. nutrient-dense foods
Applying the principle of variety in food planning ensures the benefits of

A. moderation.

B. vegetarianism.

C. nutrient density.

D. dilution of harmful substances.
D. dilution of harmful substances
The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is most properly termed nutrient

A. enrichment.

B. restoration.

C. fortification.

D. mineralization.
C. Fortification
Which of the following is not descriptive of MyPyramid?

A. An education tool that illustrates the concepts of the Dietary Guidelines and USDA Food Guide

B. A graphic image designed to encourage consumers to make healthy food and physical activity choices every day

C. A multi-colored pyramid that illustrates variety, with each color representative of the five food groups, plus one for oils

D. A broad-based figure that conveys the message that grains should be abundant and form the foundation of a healthy diet
D. A broad-based figure that conveys the message that grains should be abundant and form the foundation of a healthy diet
Legumes are used as meat alternatives for all of the following reasons except

A. they are economical.

B. they can be graded as prime, choice, and select.

C. they can be processed to look and taste like meat.

D. they contribute the same key nutrients, including iron and protein.
B. they can be graded as prime, choice, and select.
Which of the following is the most calcium-dense food?

A. Whole milk

B. Nonfat milk

C. Low-fat milk

D. Cheddar cheese
B. Nonfat milk
Which of the following breads has the highest fiber content?

A. White

B. Refined

C. Enriched

D. Whole-grain
D. Whole grain
Which of the following is not characteristic of the USDA Food Guide?

A. It places most foods into one of five groups

B. Its nutrients of greatest concern include iron, chromium, and vitamin B12

C. It can be used with great flexibility once its intent is understood

D. It specifies that a certain quantity of food be consumed from each group, based upon energy intake
B. Its nutrients of greatest concern include iron, chromium, and vitamin B12
Approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains?

A. 20

B. 35

C. 50

D. 100
C. 50
The "5 to 9 a Day" food campaign promotes increased consumption of

A. fruits and vegetables.

B. fish and skinless poultry.

C. five to nine kcalories less per day.

D. food only during the hours between 5 a.m. and 9 p.m.
A. Fruits and vegetables
What mineral is added in the enrichment process of refined flours?

A. Iron

B. Iodine

C. Calcium

D. Magnesium
A. Iron
Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with

A. diabetes.

B. terminal diseases.

C. cardiovascular disease.

D. life-threatening obesity.
A. Diabetes
A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to ask in what order the ingredients should be listed on the food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label?

A. Sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring

B. Red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar

C. Dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar
A. Sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring
The most common causes of death today in the United States include all of the following except

A. cancer.

B. diabetes.

C. tuberculosis.

D. diseases of the heart and blood vessels.
C. tuberculosis.
How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set?

A. Low, to reduce the risk of toxicity

B. High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals

C. Extremely high, to cover every single person

D. At the mean, to cover most healthy individuals
B. High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals
All of the following are recognized, credible sources of nutrition information except

A. Who's Who in Nutrition.

B. the Food and Drug Administration.

C. the American Dietetic Association.

D. the United States Department of Agriculture.
A. Who's Who in Nutrition.
All of the following are minimum requirements for becoming a Registered Dietitian except

A. earning an undergraduate degree.

B. completing up to a three-week clinical internship or the equivalent.

C. completing approximately 60 semester hours in nutrition and food science.

D. passing a national examination administered by the American Dietetic Association.
B. completing up to a three-week clinical internship or the equivalent.
In the body, the chemical energy in food can be converted to any of the following except

A. heat energy.

B. light energy.

C. electrical energy.

D. mechanical energy.
B. light energy
All of the following are classified as macronutrients except

A. fat.

B. protein.

C. calcium.

D. carbohydrate.
C. calcium
Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?

A. Protein

B. Calcium

C. Vitamin C

D. Vitamin D
A. protein
Among the following, which is the major weakness of a laboratory-based study?

A. The costs are usually high

B. It is difficult to replicate the findings

C. The results cannot be applied to human beings

D. Experimental variables cannot be easily controlled
C. The results cannot be applied to human beings
Bob consumes about 2500 kcalories per day, which is apportioned as 150 g of fat, 140 g of carbohydrate, and 150 g of protein. What would be the appropriate revisions to help Bob adjust his nutrient intake so that it matches the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges?

A. 70 g fat, 156 g protein, 313 g carbohydrate

B. 140 g fat, 150 g protein, 150 g carbohydrate

C. 500 g fat, 750 g protein, 1250 g carbohydrate

D. 10 g fat, 20 g protein, 45 g carbohydrate
A. 70 g fat, 156 g protein, 313 g carbohydrate
Gram for gram, which of the following provides the most energy?

A. Fats

B. Alcohol

C. Proteins

D. Carbohydrates
A. Fats
All of the following features are shared by the RDA and the AI except

A. both are included in the DRI.

B. both serve as nutrient intake goals for individuals.

C. neither covers 100% of the population's nutrient needs.

D. neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.
D. neither is useful for evaluating nutrition programs for groups of people.
Approximately how much water (lbs) would be found in a 120-lb person?

A. 12

B. 24

C. 36

D. 72
D. 72
A diet provides a total of 2200 kcalories, of which 40% of the energy is from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbohydrate are contained in the diet?

A. 220

B. 285

C. 440

D. 880
A. 220
A child who developed a strong dislike of noodle soup after consuming some when she was sick with flu is an example of a food-related

A. habit.

B. social interaction.

C. emotional turmoil.

D. negative association.
D. negative association.
How much energy is required to raise the temperature of one kilogram (liter) of water 1° C?

A. 10 calories

B. 1 kilocalorie

C. 10,000 calories

D. 1000 kilocalories
B. 1 kilocalorie
A solution with a pH of 7 is how many times more alkaline than one with a pH of 6?

A. 1

B. 5

C. 10

D. 100
C. 10
The colonic fermentation of certain fibers produces all of the following except

A. gas.

B. water.

C. secretin.

D. vitamins.
C. secretin.
What is the substance that protects the stomach walls from digestion?

A. Tums

B. Mucus

C. Pepsin

D. Bicarbonate
B. Mucus
What is one function of the gallbladder?

A. Stores bile

B. Produces bile

C. Reabsorbs water and salts

D. Performs enzymatic digestion
A. Stores bile
Which of the following is not a component of pancreatic juice?

A. Bile

B. Water

C. Lipase

D. Sodium bicarbonate
A. Bile
What structure controls the release of material from the stomach to the small intestine?

A. Ileocecal valve

B. Pyloric sphincter

C. Diaphragmatic valve

D. Esophageal sphincter
B. Pyloric sphincter
The chief functions of cholecystokinin include all of the following except

A. triggering release of bile.

B. slowing GI tract motility.

C. triggering release of gastrin.

D. triggering release of pancreatic fluid.
C. triggering release of gastrin.
The hepatic portal vein empties into the

A. liver.

B. heart.

C. pancreas.

D. hepatic vein.
A. liver.
What are the usual consequences of removing a diseased gallbladder?

A. Inability to digest fats

B. Some damage to the pancreas

C. Inability to digest carbohydrates

D. Delivery of bile directly to the duodenum
D. Delivery of bile directly to the duodenum
Which of the following is most likely to result from insufficient intake of fiber?

A. Diarrhea

B. Bloating

C. Constipation

D. Pancreatitis
C. Constipation
What is the name of the projections on the inner surface of the small intestine?

A. Villi

B. Cilia

C. Mesenteric vessels

D. Vascular projectiles
A. Villi
Which of the following are found on the microvilli and function to break apart small nutrients into the final products of digestion?

A. Mucus

B. Micelles

C. Enzymes

D. Hormones
C. Enzymes
A peptic ulcer resides in the

A. stomach only.

B. duodenum only.

C. stomach or duodenum only.

D. esophagus and stomach only.
C. stomach or duodenum only.
After the pancreatic juices have mixed with chyme in the small intestine, which of the following describes the pH of the resulting mixture?

A. Very acidic

B. Moderately acidic

C. Strongly alkaline

D. Approximately neutral
D. Approximately neutral
Therapy for constipation would include all of the following except

A. increasing water intake.

B. decreasing fiber intake.

C. increasing physical activity.

D. responding promptly to the defecation signal.
B. decreasing fiber intake.
Immediately after absorption, what circulatory system carries the fat-soluble vitamins and large fats?

A. Vascular

B. Mesenteric

C. Lymphatic

D. Enterohepatic
C. Lymphatic
The process by which bile acts on fat so enzymes can attack the fat is known as

A. condensation.

B. emulsification.

C. enzymification.

D. phosphorylation.
B. emulsification.
After swallowing, in what order does food pass through the regions of the GI tract?

A. Jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum, rectum

B. Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, rectum, colon

C. Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon

D. Stomach, jejunum, duodenum, colon, ileum
C. Stomach, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, colon
Absorption of nutrients by intestinal cells occurs by all of the following mechanisms except

A. diffusion.

B. transmigration.

C. active transport.

D. facilitated diffusion.
B. transmigration.
Among the GI tract organs, which has the strongest muscles?

A. Stomach

B. Small intestine

C. Large intestine

D. Cardiac sphincter
A. Stomach
What is the primary function of insulin?

A. Raises blood glucose levels

B. Lowers blood glucose levels

C. Stimulates glycogen breakdown

D. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption
B. Lowers blood glucose levels
All of the following are properties of fiber except

A. it delays gastric emptying.

B. it provides a feeling of satiety.

C. it elevates blood glucose levels.

D. it contributes about 1.5-2.5 kcalories per gram.
C. it elevates blood glucose levels.
When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose?

A. Insulin

B. Glucagon

C. Epinephrine

D. Cholecystokinin
B. Glucagon
You have just arrived at a lunch buffet and are faced with many choices. Although each of the following portions provides about 200 kcalories, which is most nutrient dense?

A. 16-ounce soda

B. 6 slices of avocado

C. 8-ounce sports drink

D. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread
D. 3 slices of whole-wheat brea
What type of fiber is readily digested by colonic bacteria?

A. Lignans

B. Phytates

C. Cellulose

D. Fermentable
D. Fermentable
Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber?

A. Apples

B. Prunes

C. Potatoes

D. White rice

D. White rice
Which of the following enzymes does not act on simple sugars?

A. Lactase

B. Sucrase

C. Amylase

D. Maltase
C. Amylase
What is the composition of sucrose?

A. Two fructose units

B. One glucose and one fructose unit

C. One glucose and one galactose unit

D. One galactose and one fructose unit
B. One glucose and one fructose unit
Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?

A. Glucose

B. Lactose

C. Sucrose

D. Fructose
B. Lactose
According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day's total energy intake should be furnished by carbohydrates?

A. 10-15

B. 30-35

C. 45-65

D. 90-95
C. 45-65
How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 8

D. 12
B. 6
What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine?

A. Heart

B. Liver

C. Pancreas

D. Skeletal muscle
B. Liver
Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?

A. Muscle and liver

B. Pancreas and kidneys

C. Stomach and intestine

D. Brain and red blood cells
A. Muscle and liver
According to the American Dietetic Association, what is the recommended daily intake of dietary fiber?

A. 20-35 g

B. 40-50 g

C. 55-70 g

D. 75-100 g
A. 20-35 g
The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed

A. hydrolysis.

B. condensation.

C. gluconeogenesis.

D. homeostatic balancing.
A. hydrolysis.
Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the

A. mouth.

B. colon.

C. stomach.

D. pancreas.
A. mouth.
For most of the world's population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase?

A. Declines by 30-40%

B. Declines by 90-95%

C. Increases by 30-40%

D. Increases by 90-95%
B. Declines by 90-95%
Which of the following describes a relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health?

A. Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries

B. After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 50-60 minutes

C. Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries

D. Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of sugar in a doughnut
C. Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries
What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body?

A. Fiber

B. Starch

C. Glucose

D. Glycogen
D. Glycogen
All of the following are sources of dietary carbohydrates except

A. fish.

B. milk.

C. fruits.

D. legumes.
A. fish.
What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet?

A. Glucose

B. Lactose

C. Fructose

D. Sucrose
C. Fructose
What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates?

A. Mouth

B. Stomach

C. Small intestine

D. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
Which of the following is appropriate dietary advice for reducing fat intake?

A. Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat

B. Substitute crackers and cornbread for other starches because they are likely lower in fat

C. Consume foods with more invisible fat because this type of fat is not absorbed well from the digestive tract

D. Increase consumption of soups, such as cream-of-mushroom soup prepared with water, because the fat content is usually very low
A. Limit intake of all fried foods because they contain abundant fat
An omega-3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the

A. third carbon from the acid end.

B. first 3 carbons from the acid end.

C. third carbon from the methyl end.

D. first 3 carbons from the methyl end
C. third carbon from the methyl end.
All of the following foods contain liberal amounts of eicosapentaenoic and docosahexaenoic acid except

A. tuna.

B. salmon.

C. human milk.

D. soybean oil.
D. soybean oil.
Your roommate Bob has just come back from the doctor where he was subjected to a blood lipid profile analysis. The doctor provided him with dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Which of the following results is consistent with the diagnosis?

A. Low LDL and high HDL

B. Low HDL and high LDL

C. Low DLD and high DHD

D. Low LDH and low HDL
B. Low HDL and high LDL
All of the following are rich sources of polyunsaturated fatty acids except

A. palm oil.

B. fish oils.

C. soybean oil.

D. safflower oil.
A. palm oil.
Chylomicrons are synthesized within the

A. liver.

B. intestinal cells.

C. lymphatic system.

D. storage compartment of plant seeds
B. intestinal cells.
According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum daily intake of cholesterol on a 2500-kcalorie diet?

A. 50 mg

B. 150 mg

C. 300 mg

D. 1,000 mg
C. 300 mg
According to the Dietary Guidelines, what should be the maximum total fat intake as a percentage of energy intake?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 35

D. 50

C. 35
Important factors in the selection of a margarine product include all of the following except

A. it should be trans fat free.

B. it should be soft instead of hard.

C. it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids.

D. it should list liquid vegetable oil as the first ingredient.
C. it should contain primarily omega-3 fatty acids
What type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?

A. Saturated

B. Monounsaturated

C. Polyunsaturated

D. Partially hydrogenated
B. Monounsaturated
A person who regularly consumes fish such as shark, king mackerel, and swordfish is at risk for ingesting potentially toxic amounts of

A. EPA.

B. DHA.

C. mercury.

D. cadmium.
C. mercury.
What part of the gastrointestinal tract is the predominant site of dietary fat hydrolysis?

A. Mouth

B. Stomach

C. Small intestine

D. Large intestine
C. Small intestine
In comparison to a low-density lipoprotein, a high-density lipoprotein contains

A. less lipid.

B. less protein.

C. more cholesterol.

D. more carbohydrate.
A. less lipid.
Studies show that regular consumption of fatty fish leads to

A. lower blood pressure.

B. higher blood cholesterol.

C. greater tendency of the blood to clot.

D. decreased storage of omega-3 fatty acids.
A. lower blood pressure.
Which of the following describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids?

A. In nature, most double bonds are trans

B. Hydrogenation converts trans-fatty acids to cis-fatty acids

C. The conversion of cis-fatty acids to trans-fatty acids is inhibited by the presence of antioxidants

D. In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
D. In the body, trans-fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated fats
Which of the following contains the least cholesterol per serving?

A. Steamed fish

B. Steamed corn

C. Broiled chicken

D. Very lean grilled steak
B. Steamed corn
Bile is known to assist in the absorption of

A. fat only.

B. all nutrients.

C. carbohydrate and fat only.

D. carbohydrate, fat, and protein only.
A. fat only.
Which of the following lipids is an essential nutrient?

A. Lecithin

B. Cholesterol

C. Stearic acid

D. Linoleic acid
D. Linoleic acid
A high risk of heart attack correlates with high blood levels of

A. free fatty acids.

B. high-density lipoproteins.

C. low-density lipoproteins.

D. very low-density lipoproteins.
C. low-density lipoproteins.
How many hydrogen atoms are attached to each carbon adjacent to a double bond?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 4

D. 6
A. 1
Which of the following foods provide essential fatty acids?

A. Fish only

B. Beef only

C. Plants only

D. Fish, beef, and plants
D. Fish, beef, and plants
In the process of fat hydrogenation, hydrogen atoms are added to which part of the molecule?


A. Oxygen

B. Carbon

C. Glycerol

D. Other hydrogens.
B. Carbon
ll of the following compounds may be synthesized from cholesterol except

A. bile.

B. glucose.

C. vitamin D.

D. sex hormones.
B. glucose.
In which form are most dietary lipids found?

A. Sterols

B. Glycerols

C. Triglycerides

D. Monoglycerides
C. Triglycerides
Which of the following is not a destination for cholesterol?

A. Synthesized into bile

B. Excreted in the feces

C. Accumulates on walls of veins

D. Accumulates on walls of arteries
C. Accumulates on walls of veins
What is the function of lipoprotein lipase?

A. Synthesizes lipoproteins in liver cells

B. Synthesizes triglycerides in adipose cells

C. Assembles lipid particles into chylomicrons

D. Hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
D. Hydrolyzes blood triglycerides for uptake into cells
In the digestion of fats, emulsifiers function as

A. enzymes.

B. hormones.

C. detergents.

D. chylomicrons.
C. detergents.
A compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen with 3 fatty acids attached to a molecule of glycerol would be known as a

A. diglyceride.

B. triglyceride.

C. phospholipid.

D. monoglyceride.
B. triglyceride.
How is soluble fiber in the diet thought to help lower blood cholesterol level?

A. It denatures cholesterol in the stomach

B. It hydrolyzes cholesterol in the intestinal tract

C. It traps cholesterol in the intestinal tract and thus inhibits its absorption

D. It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
D. It enhances excretion of bile leading to increased cholesterol turnover
What is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range?

A. 50

B. 101

C. 199

D. 299
C. 199
The components of fitness include all of the following except

A. strength.

B. flexibility.

C. bone fragility.

D. cardiovascular endurance.
C. bone fragility.
The effect of regular exercise on heart and lung function is known as

A. muscle fitness.

B. muscle endurance.

C. cardiopulmonary adaptation.

D. cardiorespiratory conditioning.
D. cardiorespiratory conditioning.
Conditions associated with zinc deficiency include all of the following except

A. altered taste.

B. kidney failure.

C. abnormal night vision.

D. poor healing of wounds.
B. kidney failure.
What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis?

A. HDL

B. LDL

C. HDK

D. VLDK
B. LDL
Which of the following represents the most reliable dietary source of zinc?

A. Nuts and oils

B. Milk and yogurt

C. Fruits and vegetables

D. Meats and whole-grain cereals
D. Meats and whole-grain cereals
What disease accounts for the majority of deaths in U.S. women?

A. Diabetes

B. Lung cancer

C. Breast cancer

D. Coronary heart disease
D. Coronary heart disease
The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent

A. dehydration.

B. constipation.

C. osteoporosis.

D. hypertension.
D. hypertension.
Absorption of iron from supplements is improved by taking them with

A. tea.

B. meat.

C. milk.

D. whole-grain bread.
B. meat.
A child diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia would most likely benefit from increasing the consumption of

A. milk.

B. red meat.

C. fresh fruits.

D. yellow vegetables.
B. red meat.
What is the Cori cycle?

A. A process in the liver that regenerates glucose from lactate released by muscles

B. A sequence of coordinated muscle contractions of slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers

C. An exercise machine that allows development of both aerobic and anaerobic capacities

D. A group of enzymatic reactions that accelerate muscle glycogen repletion in trained athletes
A. A process in the liver that regenerates glucose from lactate released by muscles
Among the following, which does not contain the MFP factor?

A. Tuna

B. Spinach

C. Hamburger

D. Chicken leg
B. Spinach
According to the American College of Sports Medicine, which of the following would meet the exercise schedule to maintain an appropriate level of fitness?

A. 2 hours of aerobic exercise daily

B. 1 hour of strength training 4 times a week

C. 5 minutes of aerobic exercise 2 times a week

D. 20 minutes of any continuous activity using large muscle groups 3 times a week
D. 20 minutes of any continuous activity using large muscle groups 3 times a week
What is the major intracellular cation?

A. Sodium

B. Calcium

C. Phosphate

D. Potassium
D. Potassium
Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day?


A. Intake is higher

B. Excretion is higher

C. Intake and excretion are equal

D. Excretion is unrelated to intake
C. Intake and excretion are equal
All of the following are acceptable definitions of the term fitness except

A. the ability of the body to resist stress.

B. the ability of the body to perform physical activity without undue stress.

C. the ability to maintain a normal body composition and remain free of injury while performing strenuous physical tasks.

D. the ability to meet normal physical and emotional demands while maintaining an energy reserve sufficient to overcome an immediate challenge.
C. the ability to maintain a normal body composition and remain free of injury while performing strenuous physical tasks.
Which of the following is not among the recommendations by health professionals to treat hypertension?

A. Increase fiber intake

B. Eat foods high in potassium

C. If overweight, reduce weight

D. Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
D. Decrease intake of dairy products to avoid sodium
What nutrient becomes depleted most rapidly during physical exercise?

A. Iron

B. Water

C. Glucose

D. Glycogen
B. Water
What is believed to be the primary cause of type 1 diabetes?


A. Defect in insulin sensitivity

B. Excessive body weight gain

C. Defect of the immune system

D. Excessive intake of simple carbohydrates
C. Defect of the immune system
What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?


A. Processed foods

B. Unprocessed foods

C. Natural salt content of foods

D. Salt added during cooking and at the table
A. Processed foods
1. All of the following organs are required for the complete synthesis of activated vitamin D except
A. Skin
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Intestines
D
2. For every man who has type I osteoporosis, about how many women have it?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
D
3. A person seeking good sources of vitamin A would select all of the following except
A. Liver
B. Bananas
C. Apricots
D. sweet potatoes
B
4. What is a free radical?
A. An antioxidant substance that prevents accumulation of cell-damaging oxides
B. A substance in food that interacts with nutrients to decrease their utilization
C. A nutrient in excess of body needs that the body is free to degrade with no consequence
D. A molecule that is unstable and highly reactive because it contains unpaired electrons
D
5. Increasing the amount of polyunsaturated fats in the diet increases the need for vitamin
A. A
B. E
C. K
D. D
B
6. Which of the following is likely to induce vitamin A toxicity in adults?
A. Eating beef liver more than once a month
B. Consuming high-dose vitamin A supplements
C. Drinking 2 quarts of vitamin A-fortified milk daily
D. Consuming large amounts of dark green and deep orange vegetables
B
7. What type of foods should be controlled in individuals taking anticoagulant medicines?
A. Cold water fish
B. Processed soups
C. Enriched breads
D. Green leafy vegetables
D
8. Which of the following is most likely to occur from a prolonged dietary deficiency of vitamin A?
A. Osteomalacia
B. Osteoporosis
C. Xerophthalmia
D. Prolonged blood-clotting time
C
9. Jennifer has just had a baby. When she brings Thomas home, she regales you with the details of her hospital stay. She mentions that shortly after the birth, Thomas received an intramuscular injection of vitamin K, and she wondered why this was done, as it made him cry. You explained that it
A. was needed to prevent eye disease.
B. prevented possible bleeding events.
C. protected the baby from lipid oxidation.
D. was needed to promote good bone growth.
B
10. Which of the following is the most likely side effect for a person who regularly consumes large quantities of carrots or carrot juice?
A. Bone pain
B. Dermatitis
C. Skin yellowing
D. Vitamin A toxicity
C
11. What is prothrombin?
A. A storage protein for vitamin K
B. A transport protein for vitamin E
C. A protein needed for bone formation
D. A protein needed for blood clot formation
D
12. Which of the following is the name of the vitamin A compound that is active in the visual response?
A. Opsin
B. Keratin
C. Retinal
D. Carotene
C
13. Approximately what percentage of the body's calcium is found in the blood?
A. 1
B. 5
C. 12
D. 25
A
14. A child with bowed legs is likely deficient in vitamin
A. A
B. K
C. E
D. D
D
15. In which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur?
A. Adolescent women
B. Overweight adults
C. Those taking vitamin A supplements
D. Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily
C
16. All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except
A. Spinach
B. Almonds
C. corn tortillas
D. sesame seeds
A
17. How is vitamin E thought to play a role in reducing the risk of heart disease?
A. It inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol
B. It slows oxidation of low-density lipoproteins
C. It interferes with cholesterol synthesis by the liver
D. It speeds removal of blood cholesterol by the liver
B
18. John is looking to increase his dietary sources of vitamin C. However, he expresses a strong dislike for all citrus fruits. Which of the following shopping lists would you recommend?
A. Liver, yogurt, milk
B. Brussels sprouts, broccoli, strawberries
C. Banana, peanut butter, canned tuna fish
D. Whole grains, pork, fortified corn flakes
B
19. What is the major carrier of the fat-soluble vitamins from the intestinal epithelial cell to the circulation?
A. Albumin
B. Cholesterol
C. Chylomicrons
D. Liposoluble binding proteins
C
20. Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?
A. Bleeding gums
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Appearance of a cold
D. Hysteria and depression
A
21. Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?
A. A
B. E
C. K
D. D
C
22. Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following except
A. Obesity
B. female gender
C. moderate alcohol intake
D. having African American heritage
B
23. Which of the following are major sources of vitamin E in the diet?
A. Meats
B. Citrus fruits
C. Vegetable oils
D. Milk and dairy products
C
What of the following carbohydrate food is primarily sugar?
A. Pineapple Juice
B. Brown rice
C. Carrots
D. Whole grain bread
A
1. Which food below would provide only “empty calories” to the diet?
A. Milk
B. Whole grain bread
C. Honey
D. Broccoli
C
2. Which food would contribute most to an individual’s fiber intake?
A. Pasta
B. Lima beans
C. Apple juice
D. over cooked beef
B
3. A high protein diet results in an increased urinary excretion of Calcium.
A. true
B. false
A
4. What type of fat is considered to be the most risky in relation to the development of cardiovascular disease?
A. Trans Fat
B. Monounsaturated
C. Omega 3 fatty acids
D. Polyunsaturated
A
5. What dietary factor is thought to help lower blood cholesterol levels?
A. High intake of saturated fat
B. High intake of viscous fiber
C. High intake of Cholesterol
D. High intake of energy
B
6. Smoking will increase the need for Vitamin C.
A. true
B. false
A
7. How much sun exposure in the summer is thought to be adequate to produce sufficient Vitamin D precursors in the body?
A. 0-5 minutes
B. 5-10 minutes
C. 10-15 minutes
D. >20 minutes
B
8. What factor helps to develop peak bone mass and retain calcium stores throughout life?
A. Vitamin D intake
B. Exercise
C. Both Vitamin D intake and Exercise
C
9. Which food would contribute most to your calcium intake?
A. Yogurt
B. Banana
C. Egg
D. Chicken
A
10. What factor increases the absorption of iron in a meal?
A. Fiber
B. Vitamin C
C. Calcium
D. Zinc
B
11. Which vitamin is considered an antioxidant?
A. Vitamin C
B. Beta carotene
C. Vitamin E
D. All of the above
D
12. Which of the following food is LOW in sodium?
A. Chips
B. Canned Soup
C. roast beef
D. Pickles
C
1. Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of
A. Niacin
B. Folate
C. Vitamin C
D. vitamin B12
B
2. Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to
A. Heat
B. Acid
C. Alkali
D. Ultraviolet light
D
3. Which of the following describes the basic function of a coenzyme?
A. Attaches to RNA to assist in the synthesis of an enzyme
B. Attaches to cell membranes to assist in uptake of an enzyme
C. Attaches to an enzyme and allows a chemical reaction to take place
D. Attaches to an enzyme, which allows for transport of the enzyme through the circulation
C
4. The appearance of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may be delayed due to high intake of supplements of
A. Folate
B. Niacin
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin B6
A
5. General characteristics of the water-soluble vitamins include all of the following except
A. they must be consumed daily
B. toxic levels in the body are rarely found
C. they are absorbed directly into the blood
D. excesses are eliminated from the kidneys
A
6. Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin B12?
A. Pecans
B. Hot dog
C. Cauliflower
D. Whole-grain bread
B
7. All of the following are required for efficient dietary absorption of vitamin B12 except
A. Pepsin
B. intrinsic factor
C. hydrochloric acid
D. mucosal cobalaminase
D
8. Of the following, which is the richest food source of thiamin?
A. Lettuce
B. Soy milk
C. Cow milk
D. Refined rice
B
9. Tryptophan can be used in the body to synthesize
A. FAD
B. Biotin
C. Niacin
D. Inositol
C
10. Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect the vitamin content of
A. Folate
B. Thiamin
C. vitamin A
D. riboflavin
C
11. Forms of vitamin B6 include all of the following except
A. Pyridoxal
B. Pyridoxine
C. Pyrimidine
D. Pyridoxamine
C
12. Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of
A. vitamin B1.
B. vitamin B2.
C. vitamin B6.
D. vitamin B12.
C
13. What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins?
A. Bile
B. Kidney
C. Intestine
D. Perspiration
B
14. Which of the following foods is highest in folate?
A. Meats
B. Starches
C. Dairy products
D. Green, leafy vegetables
D
15. The vitamin deficiency disease pellagra means
A. "rough skin."
B. "paralyzed limbs."
C. "demented behavior."
D. “flattened erythrocytes.”
A
16. A general niacin deficiency is known to be manifested in abnormalities of all of the following organs/systems except
A. Skin
B. Skeletal
C. nervous system
D. gastrointestinal tract
B
17. Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake?
A. Milk
B. Potatoes
C. Orange juice
D. Peanut butter
A
18. Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy?
A. B vitamins are a source of kilocalories
B. Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased
C. Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells
D. Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts
D
19. Beriberi results from a deficiency of
A. Niacin
B. Thiamin
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B12
B
20. A similar type of anemia is produced when there is a deficiency of either
A. riboflavin or niacin.
B. vitamin B12 or folate.
C. thiamin or riboflavin.
D. vitamin B6 or vitamin B12.
B
21. Which of the following activities is shared by vitamin B12 and folate?
A. Both are required for nucleic acid synthesis
B. Both require intrinsic factors for their release from food proteins
C. Both are found in significant amounts in green leafy vegetables
D. Both are considered problem nutrients for strict vegetarians
A
22. Among the following, which would be the best source of Niacin Equivalents?
A. Milk
B. Broccoli
C. Chicken
D. Strawberries
C