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1160 Cards in this Set

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Where are growth hormones secreted
Anterior pituitary gland
Give s+s of acromegaly
excessive acral growth, facial features, sweating, HA, peripheral neuropathy, decrase energy osteoarthitis, depression, galactorrhea
Give physical exam of acromegaly
earliest most common: facial puffiness, broad nose, furrow brow, skin thickening
What is the Diagnostic for acromegaly
Definitive test is the oral glucose tolerance test: GH secretion should be suppressed by oral glucose load
What is the management of acromegaly
Co-mange with endocrinologist, cure is reduction in IGF-I to age adjust normal and suppressed GH after oral glucose testing to less than 1ng/ml. Somatostatin (octreotide) and dopamine agnonist (bromocriptine)
Agromegaly and patient education
life long chronic progressive disease, physical changes don't remit w/ therapy. But may slow down or stop just cant reverse.
Addisons (adrenal gland disorder): define
destruction or reduction in adrenal gland
S+S of Addison disease
N/V, hypotension, acute shock (trauma or illness). Chronic: n/v, dizzy, chronic abd pain, hyperpigment, lethargy weakness
PE how do patients with addison look
chronically ill, dehydrated
What diagnostic test are needed for Addison disease
Elevated ACTH and suppressed cortisol, hyponatremia, hypercalemia (CMP), CXray (exclude TB)
Management of Addison disease (chronic)
oral hydrocortisone 20-30mg/d (restore diurnal pattern) and fludrocortisone (0.05-0.2mg/d) correct renal and hypotension.
What is the management of acute adrenal insufficiency
IV hydrocortisone 100mg q 6hr for 24hr then taper. hypotension, hypovolemia, hypoglycemia ICU
What is patient education of Addison Disease
med adjust w/ fever and common illness (hydrocortison doubled quickly) never stop steroids quickly
Define Cushings (basic)
Over production of cortisol (adrenal disease)
What are S+S of chronic changes of Cushings disease
weight loss, loss of menses, libido, depression ,insomnia, bruising
What do you find on PE of Cushings disease
exogenous/central obesity, moon face, thickening facial fat, buffalo hump
What diagnostic do you perform for Cushings
24hr urine cortisol levels repeated 2-3x
What is the management of Cushings
Depends on source of hypercortisolism: pituitary resection, Chemo,
What do you find on PE of pheochromocytoma:
HTN >170systolic, arrhymias, tachy or brady
Initial eval of alcoholic would include what
CAGE
What part of an alcoholics life is usually affect last between family, health, realtionships, work.
Work is affected last
What are the 5 stages of Prochaska's change framework
1. Precontemplation: not interested in change
2. contemplation: consider change & pos/neg aspects
3. Preparation: makes some change to behaviors or thoughts but feeling of no tools to proceed
4. action: ready to make change
5. maintenance/relaps: learns to continue the change and deal w/ backsliding
What are the 3 steps for alcohol screening according to NIH
1. ask about use
2 assess for alcohol problems
3. advise appropriate action
4. monitor patient progress
How soon after stopping due alcohol w/ drawals begin, and peak.
begin in 12 hrs after last drink and peak 24-48hrs w/ abatement over few days.
What are sx of alcohol w/drawal
agitation, hallucination , disorientation, seizures
What medication is useful for alcohol w/drawals:
benzodiazepines: ativan.
also tx dehydration, malnourishment, infection
What are some inpatient detox criteria for the alcoholic?
other acute illness (infection, cardiac), alcohol related sx prior to detox, prior w/drawal sx of delirium tremors or seizures, coexisting mental health like depression
What benzodazapine should be used on an alcoholic w/ hepatic dysfunction
lorazepam (or other short acting)
if no hepatic deficiency then valium
What role do antipsychotic play in managing w/drawal of alcohol
no role, they are not used in alcohol w/drawals
What medication is used for the physical sx of alcohol w/drawal such as tachycardia or tremors?
beta blocker (propanolol, atenolol)
What do you use for nutritional deficencies in alcoholics
high dose B vitamin and supplement of thiamine, pyridoxine, folic acid and vit C
Which is more specific for hepatic damage: ALT or AST
ALT: more specific to liver due to limited concentration in other organs. U should ID the ration of AST/ALT in alcoholics
How many criteria must be met diagnose substance abuse?
three of the following:
-tolerance (need for increase intake to produce same result)
-Withdrawal (substance needed to stop w/drawal sx)
-use amount or duration of use greater than intended
-repeat attempts to stop w/o success
-to much time spent using, recovering or trying to obtain
-reducing or abandoning social, occupation, rec activities due to use
-cont use despite knowing it causes problems
Who have higher rates of misuse of prescription medication? men or women
women: thought to be due to higher use of health system
Which benzodiazapine has a higher abuse potential: short or long acting
rapid-onset or as needed basis increase abuse potential.
Name on benzodiazapine that has long half life and slow onset...which also decreases risk of dependence
clonazepam
What is the first dosing step to discontinue benzodiapine in a patient that is psycholigically dependent
reduce dose by 25% per week.
How quickly does the onset of w/drawals begin with benzos
a few days w/ shorter half life (lorazepam) and up to 3 wks w. longer half life (clonazepam)
What are physical sx of benzo w/drawals?
HTN, tachycardia, diarrhea, nausea, hyperthermia, restlessness, myalgia, lacrimation , rhinorrhea
What alpha-adrenergic antagonist help minimize opiod w/drawal
clonidine (also works on HTN)
What is a medication that is used in the tx of w/drawal of heroin but also has addictive qualities
methadone
What are risk associated w/ chronic marijuana use
COPD, driving impairment
What drug class is Rohypnol
benzodiazapines
What is the DSM-IV criteria for anorexia nervosa:
inability or refusal to maintain body weight
-85% normal weight for height
-intense fear of gaining weight and becoming fat,
-perception of body weight and shape
what r the 2 types of anorexia demonstrated:
restricting (intake) and no binge and binge-purge in cycles (not secretive like bulimia nervousa
Treating anorexia nervosa includes both
cognitive-behavioral and pharm
What medication can be used to increase appetite and reduce anxiety in anorexia
Cyproheptadine (Periactin)
DSM-IV criteria for bulimia nervosa
eating excessive for a discrete period w/ lack of control then binge, laxative, diuretic or fasting
Sx of bulimia
hypokalemia, dental enamel erosion, parotid gland enlargement
Sx of anorexia
lanugo, dysrhythmias, hepatomegaly, cheilosis, gum disease, dry skin, hypotension w/ bradycardia, hypothermia
What r the pharm tx of bulimia
antidepressants: SSRI
Wellbutrin should not be used may increase bingeing or seizure
What are the characteristics of binge eating and how does it differ from bulimia nervosa
lack of control over amount and type of food, at least 6 months, distress, self anger sham over amount eaten. There is no purging with this type they are usually obese
Depression diagnosis typically includes:
a. early morning wakening
b. unable to fall asleep
c. hyper state
d. none
early morning wakening
DSM-IV criteria for depression
5 or more sx for 2 wks:
-mood, diurnal variation (morning worse than later in day)
-interest: lack of former pleasure
-eating: increase or decrease w/ weight change
-sleep: waking at 3-4am w/ inability to fall back asleep
-motor activiy: agitated or retarted
-fatigue: lack of energy
-self-worth: inappropriate guilt
-concentration: difficulty, indecisiveness
-repeated thoughts about death or suicide
-depressed mood or decrease interest must be one of them
What are the difference between depression and dementia
dementia: cognitive changes slowly over years w/ depression much shorter
What would u consider the dx in a person taking benzo for anxiety but feeling worse
depression
psychomotor agitation w/ fidgeting and irritabilty found in patients w/ depression: what age group is this found
kids and adolescents and Type A adults
What are the combined approach for depression tx:
interpersonal therapy and pharm: interpersonal alone has 60% relapse
Dysthmia: define
low -level daily depression w/ at least two previously ID depressive sx in 2 years (adults) 1yr (child)
A change in feeling such as "feelig good to be alive for the first time" would be found in what dx
dysthmic
What is the dx of major depression (criteria)
depressed mood >3m after death or loss
What is the tx for adjustment disorder
interpersonal therapy
SSRI: Paxil what are the indications, A/Rxn,
: panic disorder, depression, OCD
A/Rx: sedating (HS best), constipation, antihistamine increase appetite,
comments: good if hepatic dysfunction, good in elderly due to short T1/2 life. use slow tapering to decrease w/drawal effect
SSRI: Zoloft: indication, adverse rxn
depression, panic, OCD:
Adverse: GI upset, sleep disturbance
comment: take w/ food to enhance absorption
SSRI: Celexa and Lexapro: indication, Adverse rxn
Depression,
Rxn: somnolence and insomnia, agitation and anorexia
comment: lexapro has better adverse rxn profile vs celexa
SSRI: Prozac: indication, rxn
depression, OCD, bulimia
rxn: energizing, anorexia common
comment: am dosing, long 1/2 life bad for elderly, weight loss not sustained
What is the mechanism of action of antidepressants
increase availability of selected neurotransmitter (serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine)
How long do SSRI S/E usually last.
2-6wks,
Tricyclics: Effexor: indication, rxn
depression
stimulant in larger amounts, need trazodone to help w/ sleep, Nausea at high dose, increase dystolic by 5
comment: SSRI in low doses, dopamine effect at high dose
What antidepressant is useful in those with substance abuse too
wellbutrin (dont use in anorexia)
What are some tricyclic antidepressants
nortriptyline, desipramine
Sx of SSRI w/drawal syndrome
dizziness, paresthesia, anxiety, nausea, sleep disturbance, insomnia
Serontonin activity on 5-HT1A receptor sites is used to Tx:
antidepressant, OCD, antipanic, antisocial
comment: action site basis of most antidepressant, antipanic
Which antidepressants should be used in place of tricyclics if there is risk of suicide
SSRI and atypcial antideperssants due to their increase safety profile
Required length of pharm intervention in depression per AHCPR guidelines
6-9m:
-acute phase tx to bring sx under control may last 3m
-cont med for minimum of 6m after depression remission
-relapse highest in first 2 m after discontinuation of therapy
consider maintenance as w/ any chronic illness
What are some risks in depression relapse
dysthmia preceding episode
-poor recovery between episodes
-current episodes >2yrs
-onset depression <20yrs or >50yrs
-FHx of depresssion
-severe sx such as suicide or psychosis
Seotonin receptor site: 5-HT1C, 5-HT2C: activity when stimulated
influence CSF production, cerebral circulation, regualtion fo sleep. perception of pain, cardio function
comment: reason tachycardia, dizziness, alteration of sleep pattern and change in pain perception occurs w/ SSRI
Serotonin receptor site: 5-HT1D activity when stimulted (triptans)
antimigraine activity; triptan preparation works by stimulating receptor site, TCA works at this site
Serotonin receptor site: 5-Ht2 activty when stimulated
agitation, akathisia, anxiety, panic, insomnia, sexual dysfunction, excessive upregulated in those w/ depression
receptor site highly stimulated in activating SSRI such as fluoxetine. causes sexual dysfunctioni n SSRI,
-nefazodone and trazodone antagonize action at this site and tx of anxious depression and have more favorable sexual profile
Serotonin receptor site: 5-HT3 activity when stimulated
nausea, GI distress, diarrhea, HA
stimulated w/ antidepressant w/ poor GI side effect profile. Zofran blocks activity at site (5-HT3 antagonist)
Which class has more side-effects: TCA or SSRI
TCA but are superior to SSRI when depresion is moderat to severe also w/ patients w/ pain
Depression w/ episodes of mania is dx w/:
bipolar I disorder
Mania:
-grandiosity or exaggerates selft esteem
-reduced need for sleep
-increased talkativeness
-flight of ideas or racing thoughts
-easy distractibility
-psychomotor agitation
-poor judgement
for at least 1 wk
Bipolar 1 disorder is most common in: Men or women
Women: onset around puberty
Dx of Bipolar 2 is made if
depression has episodes of mania lasting less than 4 days w/ little social incapacitation (remain productive)
Cyclothymic disorder includes:
mood disorder present 2yrs w/ episodes of mania lasting less than 4 days
If a TCA is given to a person with bipolar disord what do 15% develop?
mania
What is a classic sx of anxiety as it relates to sleep
difficulty initiating sleep (depression is waking early)
What is the onset rate of benzodiazepine:
rapid onset
Buspiorn (BuSpar) has: high, moderate or low abuse potential?
low abuse potential
New onset of panic disorder findings would include:
peak sx 10min, hx of agoraphobia, chest pain during attack
What med is used for panic disorder
Paxil (SSRI antidepressant)
Diagnostic criteria for generalized anxiety include
difficulty concentrating apprehension, irritability
According to the AHCPR tx guidelines pharm tx for anxiety should be continued for how long
6m AFTER remission is achieved
Which medication may mimic anxiety disorder:
sympathomimetic
Rapid w/drawal of lorazapam will result in what side effect
tremors and hallucinations
Risk of benzodiazepine misuse minimized if a: longer, shorter or rescue (PRN) dose is perscribed
longer duration of action
PTSD may report having:
agoraphobia (panic attack), feeling of detachment, hyperarousal
Pharm tx for PTSD include
Buspirone (BuSpar)
Pharm Tx for irritability and impulsiveness in PTSD
carbamazepine: Tegratol (anticonvulsant)
OTC herbal used for sx of depression
St. John Wart
Tx resistant panic disorder may respond to
monoamin oxidase inhibitor
Tx of pt w/ panic disorder using SSRI w/ the goal being?
reduction in number and severity of panic attacks is the goal
DSM-IV criteria GAD (generalized anxiety disorder)
-excessive anxiety or worry most days for 6m
-difficulty controlling worry, physical or mental distress
-problems cannot be attributed to med or alcohol, disease or other condition
-3 of the following: muscle tension, restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, irritability, difficulty initiating sleep
Depression w/ anxiety reports: which first
nervous feeling after onset of depressed mood
Cardinal presenting signs of anxiety disorder:
tachycardia, hyperventilation, palpitation, tremors, sweating, difficulty falling asleep
What mechanism of action do benzo have for anxiety disorders
enhance GABA function and products that enhance availablity of serotonin
Which benzo are more lipophilic and why is this important in tx of anxiety
valium or clonazepam: enter brain more rapidly and igniting effect promptly (may feel intoxicating)
note: longer half life left in fat.
Which benzo are more hydrophilic and why is that important
slower onset of action less intoxicating same therapeutic effect
Which benz may be better for tx anxiety in the elderly
Serax: short half life
When working to reduce amount of benzo used how much should you decrease it:
25% per wk
What are sx of w/drawal of benzo w/ rapid removal of med
tremors, hallucination, seizures, delirium tremors
What is the average onset age of panic disorders
27 years rare after 45 more common in women if also agoraphobia
What is the tx of choice for panic disorders
SSRI: low side effects better than TCA
What is the saying when starting SSRI treatment for panic attach
start low and go slow: Paxil is a good starting w/ low side effect
What medication is used in PTSD w/ hyperarousal:
clonidine and propanolol: trazadone for sleep
OTC Herb: St. Johns wort: Are similar to what medications
like MAOI/SSRI, TCA:
less anticholinergic effect, wieght gain than TCA
-similar potential for energizing such as fluoxeting (SSRI)
-TId or QID dosing needed; avoid concurrent use w/ SSRI, TCA or MAO
I
What does the BATHE Model stand for (used in emotionally distressed)
B: background
A: affect, anxiety
T:trouble
H: handling
E: empathy
What are the progestatinal effects when taking oral contraceptives
inhibit ovulation by suppressing lutenizing hormone (LH), thickening endocervical mucus and hampering implantation by endometrial atrophy
What are the estrogenic effects when taking oral contraceptives
ovulation inhibited by suppression of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and LH by alteration of endometrial cellular structure
How long after discontinuing oral contraception should you wait to conceive.
you do not have to wait
what are non-contraceptive benfits of oral contraceptives
1. lower rates of benign breast tumors and dysmenorrhea,
2. menstral volume reduced 60%,
3. decreased rates of Fe deficiency anemia,
4. decrease endometrail , ovarian, breast cancer if used >5yrs,
6. less PID due to increase endocervical lining,
7. acne, hirsutism, ovarian cyst, PMS, rheumatoid arthritis sx
What should you do if you vomit w/in 2hrs of taking oral contraceptive
retake dose
If you miss taking an oral contraceptive of 30-35ug, what should you do to ensure continued prevention of pregnancy?
if using 30-35ug
-1 or 2 active pill then: tak as soon as possible and continue taking daily (no additional protection needed.
-Missed >3d ro start a pack 3 day late: take active hormonal pill ASAP an dcontineu pills daily and use condoms or abstain until 7 days of active pills
If missed oral contraceptiv of 20ug or less ethinyl estrodiol
missed 1 active pill then:
take active pill ASAP and continue pills daily (no other protection)
Missed >2d or start 2d late then: take hormonal pill ASAP use condom for 7 d
A women with seizures would do better on what type of contraception
depo-provera: due to progestin protection against seizures.
What class of contraception have potassium sparing qualities
drospirenone in yasmin (progestin) use w/ caution in hepatic or renal dysfunction
What additional medication can reduce breakthrough bleeding when using depo
ibuprofen, naproxen BID for 3-5 days
what supplement should be encouraged when taking depo:
calcium at 1000-1500mg/day
What is the soonest that a diaphragm may be removed after sex
6hrs should use a spermacide with the diaphragm
A woman w/ recurrent UTI would or would not be a good candidate for a diaphrahm:
would not due to the need for spermacide
WHO precaution for OC
DVT, CHD, CVA, heart disease, breast cancer, prego, laction <6wk pp, hepatitis, HA w/ neuro sx, >35, smoker>20cig day known thromboic mutation factor V Leiden
What percentage of women experience hot flashes during menopause
80% have hot flashes and night sweat
Estrogen deficient vaginitis: what lab finding would u find
vaginal pH >5
53y/o on hormone therapy w/ conjugated euqine estrogen having vaginitis sx should also take what topical and where
topical estrogen to the vagina
relative contraindication to postmenopausal HT include:
seizure disorder, dyslipidemia, migraine headache
Absolute contraindication to postmenopausal HT
endometrial cancer
When advising perimenopausal women about HT you consider a benefit to include:
HT helps preserve bone density and reduce risk of osteoporosis
post menopausal HT effects on bones include:
reduction in frequency of spinal and hip fx
Progestin component of HT is given to:
minimize endometrial hyperplasia
Selective estrogen receptor modulator therapy (Evista) helps:
in the reduction of osteoporosis and breast cancer risk
during perimenopause sx will most likely:
be in the week before the onse to menses
What is noted in short=term <1-2yrs HRT use in post menoausal
HRT can minimize menopausal sx
What body area has highest estrogen receptor sights
vulva
What sx are tx when using black cohosh use in menopause?
decreased frequency and severity of hot flashes
Adding androgen to HT may well be suited for woman w/
sever hot flashes in spite of maximized estrogen therapy
typical HT regimen containts---of estrogen dose of oral contracetpive
1/4th
Black cohosh during perimenopause will likely do what physiologically:
bind to estrogen receptors decreasing side effects of premenopause
Why do menopausal women get hot flashes
Lutinizing Hormone surge/flucuations in estrogen in 80% of women. surgical menopausal women have more sever sx
What deficiency during menopause increase risk of osteoporosis
estrogen
Why do you use progestin during HT versus just estorgen:
endometrial cancer risk and breast cancer (contraindicated in hx of breast cancer)
Which of the following are absolute contraindication to postmenopausal estrogen therapy?
a. unexplained vag bleed
b. breast cancer
c. acute liver disease
d. all of the above
-unexplained vag bleed
-acute liver disease
-thrombotic disease
-endometrial cancer
-neuro-opthalmologic vascular
-breast cancer
What are relative contraindication to postmenopausal estrogen therapy
seizure disorder, dyslipidemia, migraine, thromobophlebitis, gallbladder disease. absolute: vag bleed, coagulation disorder until corrected
Tamoxifin is a SERM that locks out estrogen effects on what body part
breast
urge incontinence define and intervention
involuntary loss of urine: behavioral, voiding schedule
What medication is used for urge incontinence
terodiline (selective muscarinic receptor antagonist) relaxes smooth muscle and bladder pressure
urge incontinence: most common in elderly: what is the Sx, Tx
sensation need to empty bladder cant be controlled, involuntary loss
Tx: avoid stimulants, gental bladder stretch by delay void, reduce bladder contration w/ detrol or ditropan
What Sx, Tx of stress incontinence:
path: weak pelvic floor and urethral muscle.
Found in women rare in men:
Sx: sneeze, exercise, cough results in urine loss.
Tx: kegel, support w/ vag tampon, urethral stent, pessary use. Topical estorgen, phenylpropanolamin (alpha agonist)
Urethral obstruciton: of outflow (prostatic, stricture, tumor. Older men: sx tx
dribbling post-void and urge incontinence on presentation
Tx: treat urethral obstruction
transient incontinence results from what underlying process:
delirium, UTI, medication, restricted activity (bed ridden). tx underlying process, discontinue offending medication
What is common in women during reproductive years:
vag pH of 4.5 or less
-lactobacillus predominant vag organism
-thick, white vag secretion during luteal phase
What does vag discharge appear during ovulation?
stingy and clear
Vaginal itch w/ perineal excoriation, erythema, white, clumping discharge: microscope would reveal
hyphae (yeast in budding form)
Bacterial vag presents w/
malodorous discharge
tx of vulvovaginitis by Candida albicans:
clotrimazole cream (lotrimin) antifungal : tx thrush, ringworm, athletes foot
1wk thin, green-yellow vag discharge w/ perivag irritation; vag eryth, petechial hem on cervix, WBC, motile organ what is the dx
trichomoniasis
Tx of trichomoniasis
metronidazole (flagyl) antibiotic: Tx also C. diff, H. pylori other parasitic infection
Tx for bacterial vaginosis:
oral metronidazole (flagyl), clindamycin cream, oral clindamycin (Cleocin)
w/o sx but partner has dysuria w/o discharge, she has friable cervix covered in thick yellow discharge what is the infection
chlamydia trachomoatis
Tx for N. gonorrhoeae
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin), or cefixime (suprax): used also in ear and throat infections
Gonococal infections are symptomatic in most males: true or false
false: most are asymptomatic
Complications of Gonococcal and chlamydial GU infection in women include:
PID, tubal scarring, peritonitis
Initial complaints in women w/ HPV-2
painful ulcer, inguinal lymphadenopathy, thin vaginal discharge
Tx for HHV-2 genital infection
famciclovir: also used to tx herpes zoster (shingles)
What would you prescribe for chlamydia infection
doxycycline, erythtromycin, azithromycin (best) efficacy
What is the incubation of Gonnorrhea: how do women infected present
1-5days: dysuria, milky purulent blood tinged discharge
Lymphogranuloma venerum: clinical presentation and tx
vesicular or ulcerative leasion on external genitalia w/ inguinal lymphadenitis or buboes
Tx: doxycycline 100mg BID x 21d or E-mycin 500mg QID x 21d
nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis (not pregnant): PE and Tx
-PE: cervicitis, irritative void sx, mucopurulent discharge
-Tx: Azithromycin 1 g PO single dose or doxy 100mg BID x7d
alt: E-mycin 500mg QIDx7d or levofloxacin 500mg QD x7d
Gonococcal urethritis (not pregnant): PE and Tx
irritative void sx, purulent discharge
single dose for uncomplicated:
-cefixime 400mg po, cetriaxone 125mg IM or cipro
concurrently tx w/ Azithro 1g x1, doxy 100mg bid if chlamydial infection not ruled out. may consider spectinomycin
Pelvic inflammatory disease: PE and Tx
irritative void, fever, Cervical motion tenderness
TX: a: ofloxacin 400mg bid or levo 500mg QD w/ or w/o metronidazole 500mg BID x 14d
B: ceftriaxone 250mg IM plus doxy100mg BID x 14d w/ or w/o metronidazole 500mg bid x 14
trichomoniasis: PE and Tx
dysuria, itching, vulvovaginal irritation, dyspareunia, yellow-greeen vag discharge, cervical petechial hemorrhage (strawberry spots), motile organism and WBC on microscope
TX: metronidazole 2 g x1, metronidazole 500mg BID x 7 d
Bacterial vaginosis PE and Tx
clue cells, pos whiff test,increase volume discharge: thin, gray, buring, pruritis: pH >4.5, few WBC
-CDC: metronidazole (flagyl) 500mg Bid x 7d, 1 applicator 5g intravaginally QD x 5d or clindamycin cream 2%, 1 applicator intravag at HS x 7d
candidiasis: PE and tx
PE: itching, burning, thick white to yellow discharge, vulvovaginal excoriation, erythema: HYphae, pH<5
Tx: miconazole (antifungal), fluconazole, terconazole
chancroid: PE and tx
painless genital ulcer
Azithro (macrolide) 1g oral x1 or ceftriaxone (cephlasporin/Rocephin) 250mg IM x1, or cipro 500 BIDx3d or Emycin (Macrolide) 500tidx7d
Genital Herpes: PE and tx
PE: painful ulcerated lesion, lymphadenopathy, thin vag discharge if lesion near vagina or introitus.
- Tx: inital: acyclovir 400tidx7-10d or famciclovir 250tidx7-10d or valacyclovir 1g bidx7-10d
genital warts (condyloma acuminata): PE and tx
verruca-form lesions or may subclincial unrecognized
tx: podofilox 0.5% solution or imiquimod 5%:
cryotherapy, tricholroacetic acid, surgical
Pelvic inflammaotry disease presents w/
dysuria, cervical motion tenderness, diffuse abd pain abnormal vag bleed, GI, fever
Most common pathogen in pelvic inflammatory disease
c. trachomatits
Tx for Pelvic inflammatory allergic to PNC:
ofloxacin w/ metronidazole
What labs should be obtained w/ Pelvic inflammatory
elevated ESR or C-reactive protein, leukocytosis w/ neutrophilia
Tx of pelvic inflammatory may include
ceftriaxone 250mg IM x 1, followed by doxy 100bidx2wks
sequelae to genital condyloma may include
cervical carcinoma
Describe condyloma lesions
verruciform: Shaped like a wart or warts
tx for condyloma acuminatum
imiquimod (Aldara)
What HPV type cause condyloma
HSV 6 and 11
What strain of HPV most often in cervical cancer
HPV 16 and 18
% of anogenital and cervical cancer caused by HPV
95%
Mechanism of action of imiquimod (aldara)
immune modulator condyloma acuminatum
Sx usually present after how many weeks upon contact w/ syphilis
2-4 wks after contact
HPV type cause condyloma
HSV 6 and 11
what is present w/ primary syphilis
painless ulcer, palpable inguinal nodes, spontaneously healing lesion
HPV most often in cervical cancer
HPV 16 and 18
% of anogenital and cervical cancer caused by HPV
95%
What is present in secondary syphilis
generalized rash, arthraligia, lymphadenopathy
What is imiquimod (aldara) used for?
a. actinic keratosis
b. superficial basal cell carcinoma
c. genital and anal warts
d. all of the above
D. actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, genital warts:
It is an immune response modifier
What is present in tertiary syphilis
Gumma (lesions found on liver, heart, brain, skin)
Sx usually present after how many weeks upon contact w/ syphilis
2-4 wks after contact
what is first line tx of syphilis
penicillin
HPV type cause condyloma
HSV 6 and 11
what is present w/ primary syphilis
painless ulcer, palpable inguinal nodes, spontaneously healing lesion
HPV most often in cervical cancer
HPV 16 and 18
What is present in secondary syphilis
generalized rash, arthraligia, lymphadenopathy
% of anogenital and cervical cancer caused by HPV
95%
What is present in tertiary syphilis
Gumma (lesions found on liver, heart, brain, skin)
Mechanism of action of imiquimod (aldara)
immune modulator condyloma acuminatum
what is first line tx of syphilis
penicillin
Sx usually present after how many weeks upon contact w/ syphilis
2-4 wks after contact
what is present w/ primary syphilis
painless ulcer, palpable inguinal nodes, spontaneously healing lesion
What is present in secondary syphilis
generalized rash, arthraligia, lymphadenopathy
What is present in tertiary syphilis
Gumma (lesions found on liver, heart, brain, skin)
what is first line tx of syphilis
penicillin
What is the name of a fertilized ovum?
Zygote
What is the "baby" called up to 2 weeks postconception?
blastocyst: stage prior to embryo forming, lots of cell division
Stage: 8-12wks post conception is called
Embryo
A nongravida uterus would be the size of a
large lemon
An 8 weeks uterus woudl be the size of a
tennis ball/ orange
At 10 wks uterus would be the size of a
baseball
At 16wks the fundus of the uterus would be in what location
halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus
At 20 wks the fundus should be at what land mark
the umbilicus
What % of babies are in the vertex position by 36th wk of preg
95%
What is recommended weight gain durign pregnancy w/ normal BMI
25-35lbs
Normal BMI: what is the average daily intake ontop of normal calories during pregnancy
300 kcal
Normal BMI: waht is daily calorie requirement on top of normal diet when lactating:
500 kcal
Waht is the recommended Ca intake during pregnancy
1200-1500
Maternal Fe is greatest in what part of pregnancy
second and third trimester
What is the most common acquired anemia during pregnancy:
iron deficiency
Give an example of neural tube defect:
anencephaly, spina bifida, encephalocele
What is the leading causes of preventable fetal mental retardation
fetal alcohol syndrome
risk associated with Pica intake:
constipation, bowel obstruction, nutritional deficiency
How much does blood volume increase at 42 wks. 25%, 50%, 75%
50%
Drop in diastolic BP is most notable in what trimester
second
S1 heart sound become louder or quieter during pregnancy
Louder
What type of murmur becomes evident during pregnancy
physiologic systolic ejection
What happens to the renal collecting system during pregancy:
it dialates
Is it common to find physiologic glucosuria and proteinuria during pregnancy
Yess: it is common to find glucosuria and proteinuria
What happens to the transvers thoracid diameter and diaphragmatic contraction
it increases in size
What happens to the lower esophageal sphincter during pregnancy
the lower sphinchter relaxes
What happens to the intestines regarding motility during pregnancy
the intestine slows down
What happens to the gallbladder during pregancy
the gallbladder doubles in size
What happens to insulin levels during pregnancy
they increase 2-10 fold
What happens to fasting plasma glucose during pregnancy
It should remain the same, test for gestational diabetes
What is Hegars Sign in pregnancy
uterine isthmus become soft and compressible
What is Chadwicks sign
Cervix color and texture change becoming cyanotic
What is Goodwells sign
Cervix becomes less firm
What happens to the breast during pregnancy
nipples, areolae darken and increase in size. Venous congestion
What happens to breast tissue during pregnancy
increase nodules due to proliferation of lactiferous glands
What happens to the blood during pregnancy
volume increases by 40-50% peak at 32 wks, RBC production increase by 33%
Why does dilutional physiologic anemia occur during pregnancy
the RBC increase by 33%
What happens to the renal system during pregnancy
increased blood flow and GFR, dilation of renal collecting
Why does the physiologic glucosuria and proteinuria occur during pregnancy
The GFR increases so renal cant reabsorb glucose and protein
What happens to tidal volume and residual volume late in pregnancy
Tidal volume increases and residual volume is reduced
What happens to the digestive system during pregnancy
lower esophageal sphincter relaxes due to pressure, intestine and stomach slow to allow absorption on nutrients
What happens to the gallbaldder during pregnancy
it doubles in siz, dilute bile and increase risk of stones
What account for weight gain in a health pregnancy
first half: maternal weight change
Second half: components of pregnancy
When should the triple screen be done: wks
16-20 wks
How often are visits during 28-32 wks
every 2 wks
List the appropriate weight gain during pregnancy at
<19wks, 19-26, 26-29, >29wks
a. 28-40lbs
b. 25-36lb
c. 15-25lb
d:15+lbs
What prenatal care: first visit:
pap smear, rubella titer, PPD, VDRL, RPR, HIV, Blood type, antibody screen, GC/chlamydia, Hg electrophoresis (african, asian), UA urin C&s
Fetal loss occurs in 1 in ____ amniocentesis
1:200 deaths
What may be causes of an elevated Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)?
underestimated gestational age, open neural tube defect, meningomyelocele
What are some pregnancy test from 16-20 wks
24-28wks
28-32 wks
16-20: triple marker/screen US
24-28: 1-hr glucose load; if Rh neg, T&Screen
28-32: Hg, STI testing as indicated (HIV, HBsAg, GC, chamydia) RhoGram
What are the pregnancy care test: 32-36wks, 35-37 wks, 40-42wks, 41+wks
32-36 fetal presntation, kick count (fetal movements ?4 in 1 hr;>10 in 2 hr)
35-37: grp B stretpococcus culture (rectal and vag)
40-42: vag exam to assess cervical ripness, fetal station
41+ Nonstress test, biophysical profile
Edwards syndrome is from trisomy:
18
Edward syndrome most kids live a full life: true or false
false: most affected infants die during first year of life
what is a major risk factor for being born w/ down's syndrome
born to women older than 35yrs
Downs syndrome is from trisomy
21
What are the components of the triple screen test in pregnancy
AFP, hCG, unconjugated estriol
What are two test to assess for congenital defects in utero
amniocentesis or chorionic vilus sampling
What are the physical findings of edward syndrome
low birth weight, mental retartation, cranial, cardiac renal malformation
What are examples of neural tube defects:
meningomyelocele, anencephaly, spina bifida
Where is alph-fetoprotein synthesized in fetus
yolk sac, GI tract, liver
What can lead to misinterpreted AFP test: it can be higher in earlier pregnancy
underestimate gestational age
What is the most sensitive marker for detecting trisomy 21
increase hCG level: Low hCG indicates trisomy 18
Triple screen is not diagnostic they are used in pregnacy to...
assess for risk of nural tube defect
Medication most commonly pass through placenta via:
passive diffusion
What is the category for safe for use in pregnancy:
cat: a
Med that cause teratogenic in humans but benefit outweights risk of use in life threat assigned cat
cat: D
Which of medication is pregnacy risk D: Misoprostol, Captopril, Cefuroxime, regular insulin
Captopril (ACE-I) HTN HF med (capoten)
Drugs cause teratogenic in animals but not in human assign preg risk:
Cat: C
Preg at 38wks w/ UTI may tx w/
Amoxicillin w/ clavulanate
Preg w/ asthma; when may bronchospasm worsen?
29-36wks
Preg w/ acute bacterial rhinosinusistis may tx w/
amoxicillin, cefuroxime, azithromycine but NOT levofloxacin
according to IDSA duration for antibiotics for tx of UTI during preg is:
7 days
SSRI w/ drawal syndreom best characterized as
bothersome but not life threatening
The placenta is best able to transport what type of substance
Lipophilic
2nd trimester w/ migraine Ha best tx would be
Ibuprofen
SSRI during preg: study has shown the affects on infants later in life
had no observable difference
SSRI w/ longest half-life:
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Most commonly used medication during 1st trimester in pregnancy
antibiotics
Benzodiazipine w/ drawal risk includes
Seizures
Tx of chronic asthma in patients that are preg is:
short-acting beta agonist
24wks preg w/ acute asthma flare should be given:
montelukast (singulair): a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)
Drug know to be harmful to fetus given cat
X
Sertraline is preg risk cat;
cat: D (pos evidence of fetal risk) may is specific cases still be used. Doxy, ARB, ACE-I
Clonazepam in preg is cat: B,C,D,X
cat: D (pos evidence of fetal risk)
Bupripion (wellbutrin, zyban) during preg is cat:
cat: B (none in animal but no study in humans (PNC, cephalosporins, Acetaminophen)
Tricyclic antidepressants during preg are cat risk:
cat: D
Antimicrobial that is Cat B used in preg infection is:
erythromycin
PNC are preg cat risk:
Cat: B
What uropahtogens are capable of reducing urinary nitrates to nitrites
E. Coli, Proteus spp., Klebsiella pneumonia
In Preg asymptomatic bacteruria should be:
Tx to avoid complicated UTI
Common UTI organism in preg
E. Coli
Length of antimicrobial for preg w/ asymptomatic bacteria
3-7d
What does teratogenic?
substance that has potential to create a characteristic set of malformation in fetus
When is the teratogenic period:
between day 31 and 81 following last menstral period: organanogenis is taking place
What are three factors in drugs passing through the placenta
lipohilicity (higher the easier)
Molecular weight <500g/mol
maternal drug levels
Can a preg receive insulin or heparin?
Yes because they have higher molecular weight that can not pass through the placenta
Which is better during preg: benadryl or claritin (loratadine)
Claritin: more hydrophilic so causes less S/E to fetus
Define Preg Cat B, C, D, X
B is best , C w/ caution, D for danger, X (cross the drugs off the list)
Why is bronchospasm worse between 29-36 wks in preg?
increase esophageal irritation from GERD: esophageal sphincter loosens due to increase pressure
What cat are inhaled (and oral) corticosteroids and Beta agonist in preg: B, C, D, X
cat: C no proof human injury but some in animals
What is the preventative tx for N/V in preg
tx H. pylori, ginger, Ca antacid q2hr for 2-3d. B6 is preventative
What is the tx for migraines in preg
tylenol and nsaid (except term due to risk of antiplatelet effect)
What can be used for migraine during preg to attenuate HA sx
lidocaine 4% to affected nostril
What meds can be given to preg w/ major depression?
serotonin and dopamine receptor modulators, tricyclic and benzo
Bupropion (dopamine receptor modulator) is a cat B , SSRIs are cat C. Should you switch to bupropion during preg.
No. switching can increase depression
How do you taper down SSRI to prevent w/drawal syndrome
taper 25% of total dose over a week
What are the S/E of SSRI w/drawal:
jitteriness, nausea, sleep disturbance: worse w/ fluoxetine (longer half life)
How long can effects of SSRI last in fetus
30days may cause w/drawal such as irritability protracted crying shivering
Tricyclics and benz are what cat for preg
Cat D rarely prescribed during preg
Taper dose down all benzo prior to preg by 25% week to prevent
w/drawals of tremors, hallucination, seizures, delirium termens
What are sequela events that can occur from asymptomatic bacteriuria, in preg
acute cystitis, pyelonephritis, UTI
Why should a urine culture be obtain in all women early in preg?
Risk of UTI from asymptomatic bacteriuria.
Define Hales lactation risk cat:
L1 and L2
L1: safest (cromolyn, APAP, depo (1m post birth)
L2: safer, limited study: nitrofuratoin, cephalosporins, 2nd gen antihistamines, prednisone, SSRI
Define Hales lactation risk cat:
L3 and L4
L3: mod safe, no controlled studies or limited: TMP-SMX, Fq antibiotics, 1st gen antihistamines
Define hales lactation risk cat: L5
contraindiated: radioactive isotopes, cocaine
What wk in preg is preeclampsia noted?
20th
What are risk factors for preeclampsia?
age <16->40, first preg or first pre w/ new partner, pregestational diabetes, presense of collagen vascular, HTN, Renal, FHx,
What are sx of severe preeclampsia?
BP >160/110, proteinuria (>5), hepatic, renal or CNS damage
What are the components of HELLP in preeclampsia?
Hemolysis, elevated liver, low platelet and eclampsia
What is the most important intervention of preeclampsia?
High suspicion w/ high risk: the OB consult: rest,monitor, antiHTN, anticonvulsant
what is the definitive tx of eclampsia?
Birth
When does grp B streptococcus colonize typically in preg and when does it trnsfer to fetus?
during 1st wk of preg, and when water breaks or onset of labor
When should Group Beta Testing in preg occur?
35-37wks: trnsf to baby when labor begins
Define Chronic HTN vs Gestational HTN:
chronic: HTN prior preg, prior to 20th wk, persist >6wks post
gestational: HTN after 20 wk but resolving w/in 6wks post
Define:
Preeclampsia, Eclampsia
- PreEclampsia: HTN after 20wk w/ protein uria >300mg/24hr and edema
- Eclampsia: PreEclampsia sx w/ tonic-clonic seizures or alt mental status
HTN Cat in Preg:
HELLP
PreE w/ elevated hepatic enzyme levels and low platelets
What does the acronym BATHE stand for in domestic violence?
B:background: home work
A: affect, anxiety: feel
T: trouble: worries
H: handling: support, intervention
E: empathy:
define inevitable abortion?
US w/ viable preg but +vag bleed
define threatened abortion?
uterine contents process being expelled
Define incomplete abortion?
some portion of product remain in uterus but no longer viable
Quantitative serum HcG doubles every ___hrs the 1st wk of pregnancy?
48 hours
Where are 95% of ectopics located?
fallopian tubes
What is the classic triad of ectopic pregnancy?
abd pain, vag bleed, adnexal mass: but in only 50% of women w/ ectopic
What are the diagnostic for ectopic?
Urine, serum (neg r/o ectopic), see a decrease in expected quant number for age, also US.
What is salpingectomy (in ectopic preg)
opening of tube and removal of content
What is definition of spontaneous abortion
ending prior to 20 wks: 60% due to chromosomal defect
What is the longest part of labor?
latent phase (2-3days)
When does the first stage of active labor start?
at 3-4 cm cervix
When should a preg women be instructed to go the hospital?
when contractions r occuring q 5min.
What is the second stage of labor?
the actual birth
What is the third stage of birth
when placenta is delivered
How long is avg labor for first mother?
9hrs, 6 for 2nd and beyond.
What is a characteristic of type 1 DM: ie what is the blood glucose level and insulin
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis from lack of insulin (pancreas isnt makin it or enuff)
What is a characteristic of type 1 DM: ie what is the blood glucose level and insulin
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis from lack of insulin (pancreas isnt makin it or enuff)
What characteristic apply to Type 2 DM: think main risk factors
heredity and obesity
What characteristic apply to Type 2 DM: think primary risk factors
heredity and obesity
insulin G (Lantus) has a short or extended duration of action?
extended duration of action
insulin G (Lantus) has a short or extended duration of action?
extended duration of action
Lispro (humalog) onset of action occurs in what time:
less than 15min
Lispro (humalog) onset of action occurs in what time:
less than 15min
What diabetic med should be used w/ caution in sulfa allergy
glyburied (sulfonylureas)
What diabetic med should be used w/ caution in sulfa allergy
glyburied (sulfonylureas)
What is metformins (glucophage) Mech of action
increases insulin action in peripheral tissue reduces hepatic glucose production
What is metformins (glucophage) Mech of action
increases insulin action in peripheral tissue reduces hepatic glucose production
What is a characteristic of type 1 DM: ie what is the blood glucose level and insulin
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis from lack of insulin (pancreas isnt makin it or enuff)
How often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in asymptomatic >45yrs old
every 3 years
What characteristic apply to Type 2 DM: think main risk factors
heredity and obesity
How often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in asymptomatic >45yrs old
every 3 years
how often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in <45 years?
only if hx of high-density lipoprotein <35mg or other risk factors
What is a characteristic of type 1 DM: ie what is the blood glucose level and insulin
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis from lack of insulin (pancreas isnt makin it or enuff)
how often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in <45 years?
only if hx of high-density lipoprotein <35mg or other risk factors
insulin G (Lantus) has a short or extended duration of action?
extended duration of action
What is a criteria for dx of type 2 DM:
plasma glucose level 126mg or higher after 8hr fast on more than one occasion...also now A1C>6.5
What is a criteria for dx of type 2 DM:
plasma glucose level 126mg or higher after 8hr fast on more than one occasion...also now A1C>6.5
Lispro (humalog) onset of action occurs in what time:
less than 15min
What characteristic apply to Type 2 DM: think main risk factors
heredity and obesity
Rosiglitazones (TZD) thiazolidinedione mech of action
insulin sensitizer making cells more responsive to insulin: Avandia
Rosiglitazones mech of action
insulin sensitizer
What diabetic med should be used w/ caution in sulfa allergy
glyburied (sulfonylureas)
insulin G (Lantus) has a short or extended duration of action?
extended duration of action
Lispro (humalog) onset of action occurs in what time:
less than 15min
What is metformins (glucophage) Mech of action
increases insulin action in peripheral tissue reduces hepatic glucose production
What diabetic med should be used w/ caution in sulfa allergy
glyburied (sulfonylureas)
How often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in asymptomatic >45yrs old
every 3 years
What is metformins (glucophage) Mech of action
increases insulin action in peripheral tissue reduces hepatic glucose production
how often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in <45 years?
only if hx of high-density lipoprotein <35mg or other risk factors
What is a criteria for dx of type 2 DM:
plasma glucose level 126mg or higher after 8hr fast on more than one occasion...also now A1C>6.5
How often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in asymptomatic >45yrs old
every 3 years
Rosiglitazones mech of action
insulin sensitizer
how often does ADA guideline for testing type 2 in <45 years?
only if hx of high-density lipoprotein <35mg or other risk factors
What is a criteria for dx of type 2 DM:
plasma glucose level 126mg or higher after 8hr fast on more than one occasion...also now A1C>6.5
Rosiglitazones (avandia) (thiazolidinedione) mech of action
insulin sensitizer
Insulin: onset, peak duration of action:
Lispro, Humalog
O: 15min, P: 30-90min, D: <5hr
short-acting, rapid onset
Insulin: onset, peak, duration of action: Regular; Humulin R
O: 1/2-1hr, P: 2-3hr, D: 4-6hr
short-acting
Insulin: onset, peak, duration of action: Humulin N, NPH
O: 2-4hr, P: 4-10hr, D: 14-18hr
Intermediate acting
Insulin: onset, peak, duration of action: Humulin L, Lente
O: 3-4, P: 4-12 hr, D: 16-20: intermediate acting (medicinet.com)
Insulin: onset, peak, duratation of action: Lantus
O: hours, P: none, D: >24hrs
Insulin glargine
What medication can you consider when tx a HTN and DM:
ACE-I: like fosinopril : nephroprotective features
What should be monitored when prescribing biguanide; ie, metformin (glucophage)
creatinine
what percent of the body's insuline mediated glucose uptake takes place in the muscle
80%
Exercise reduces Insulin Resistance by _____% w/ effects lasting _____Hrs
40% and 48hrs
What amount of cholesterol does the ADA recommend
300mg or less
What is the Somogyi effect
when insulin induces hypoglycemia and triggers excess secretion of glucagon and cortisol which leads to hyperglycemia
What is the dawn phenomenon as it relates to diabetes?
reduced insulin sensitivity 5am-8am due to earlier spikes in growth hormone.
sulfonylureas act on what in diabetes
stimulate insulin release from functioning beta cells and enhance insulin sesitivity
What amount of weight loss is expected w/ metformin
3-5kg in first months of use
What is another advantage of metformin besides DM
It can help improve lipid profile (decrease LDL and triglycerids while increasing HDL)
What is the major adverse effect of metformin
GI upset: increase dose slowly
What indicated nephropathy in DM patients
Proteinuria: microalbumin (obtain in the morning due to false positive later in the day)
What is the goal of A1C and BP in DM, per 7th JNC report of joint national committe.
<7% and <130/<80
Sulfonylurea: M of action and caution
insulin secretagogue
sulfa allergy, renal dysfunction
Thiazolidinedion (TZD): M of Action and caution
insulin sensitizer
monitor ALT; hypoglycemia when used w/ sulfonyl or insulin but not solo
Biguanides (metformin): M of Action, caution
Insulin sensitizer and decrease live glucose production
Caution: Monitor creatinine lactic acidosis risk w/ eleveated CR, hypoglycemia when used w/ sulfony, GI side effect
A-gulucosidase inhibitors: M of action, caution (Precose, glyset)
delay intestinal carb absorption:
Taken w/ meals, help manage postprandial hyperglycemia, GI S/E
meglitinides: action caution
Short acting insulin secretagogue
Quick insulin burst, before meals, helps postparanal
Dipeptidyl peptidase -4 (DPP-4) inhibitor: Januvia, Onglyza: MoA?
increase level of insulin, increase sythesis and release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells and decrease release of glucagon from alpha cells.
Dose adjust for renal impair, little hypo risk, use w/ metformin
What are risk factors of lactic acidosis when using metformin?
renal insufficiency, dehydration, radiographic contrast dye
What are medications that causes secondary hyperglycemia
Niacin, corticosteroids, thiazide diuretics
How do meglitinide anaologs help w/ DM2:
prevent postprandial hyperglycemia
What is the most common adverse effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitor?
flatulance
Intervention in microalbumin for DM include:
improved glycemic control, strict dyslipidemia control, use of ACE-I or angiotensin receptor blocker.
ACE-I have some nephroprotection
Drugs whose names end in "-pril" and reduce efferent arteriolar pressure are from what class:
ACE-I:
What class of meds end in "sartan" and help preserve renal function in DM
Angiotensin receptor blockers
What medications increase your risk of heat stoke?
Med: tricyclic antidepressants (triptylines), beta blockers (lol), vasoconstrictors like decongestants.
Note: meds change the bodies ability to regulate core temp by negating increase CO and vasodilaiton
What lab should be gotten in a patinet w/ heat stroke
CK to assess muscle damage --> release of electrolyte tissue damage, hyperkalemia
What can heat stroke lead to..before death?
polycythemia due to volume constriction and hyponatremia w/ Na <120 and stress induced leukocytosis
Tx of Heat Stroke
cooling w/ tepid spray and fan vs ice (may cause vasoconstriction decrease ability to lose heat from core), Rhabdomyolysis-->acute renal failure, Ck, creatinine
62y/o HTN, smoke, Trigly:280, HDL:38, LDL:135 what med is best (class)
multi drug therapy is needed
46y/o HTN smoke, Trig: 110, HDL: 48, LDL: 192, on low-cholest diet what is next best step?
HMG-CoA (coenzyme A reductase inhibitor) (lipitor, zocor, pravistatin) statins
64y/o HTN DM2, Trig: 180, HDL 38, LDL: 135. Meds: sulfonylurea, TZD, biguanide, ACE-I, thiazide diuretic what next?
lipid-lowering drug therapy initiated.
What lab should be check w/ taking HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (Statin) ?
aspartate aminotransferase (liver function), CK
What changes are expected when taking fibrates?
increase in HDL: only medication that actually document increase in HDL
What changes are expected when taking Niacin?
Increase in HDL
When prescribing Zetia what should you expect to see?
reduction in LDL
What are risk factors for statin induced myostitis?
advanced age, low body weight, high statin dose
What is the average LDL reduction when only diet is modified in lowering cholesteral tx?
5-10%
When taking atorvastatin and cholestyramine advise the patient to take the medicaiton?
separeate cholestyramine from other meds by 2hrs (affect absorption)
What medication is most effective against lipoprotein?
niacin
What are secondary causes of hypertriglyceridemia?
hypothyroidism, poorly controlled DM or excessive alcohol
HMG CoA reductase inhibitor (statin)? Effect, comments
lower LDL by 18-55%
Increase: HDL by 5-15%
lower Trig by 7-20%
check AST prior to initiation, & periodically
check CK initiation. not needed further unless sx
A/E: rhabdo, myositis, increase when combined w/ fibrate, reanal impairment
Resin (cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam): benefits and adverse rxn
low LDL:15-30%
increase HDL: 3-5%
nonsystemic w/ no hepatic monitoring required, minimal effect on Trig (may increase if trig >400)
A/E: GI, constipation, decrease of other meds absorption take >2hrs after
Niacin (class: antihyperlipidemia): benifits, Use, adverse effects,
increase HDL: 15-35%
decrease Trig: 20-50%
decrease LDL: 5-25%
Highly effective against atherogenic lipoprotein
A/E: flushing (take ASA 1hr prior to reduce), hyperlgycemia, hyperuricemia, GI, hepatotoxicity
Contra: active liver disease, gout, peptic ulcer
Fibric acid derivatives: gemfibrozil (lopid), fenobribrate (tricor): what should you expect to see w/ tx and A/E
increase HDL
decrease Trig: 20-50%
decrease LDL 5-20% (if normal Trig) May raise LDL w/ high Trig
A/E: dyspepsia, gallstones, myopathy if taken w/ statin
Contra: sever renal or hepatic disease
What does Ezetimibe (Zetia) do and what are A/Rxn
decrease LDL-C
increase HDL-C
-minimal effect on Trig, prescribe w/ another lipid lowering agent to enhance LDL
A/E: few due to no limited systemic absorption
Sedondary hyperlipidemia:
What does inactivity result in
decrase HDL
Sedondary hyperlipidemia:
What does Alcohol abuse result in
increase triglycerides, increase HDL increase LDL
Sedondary hyperlipidemia:
What does DM result in
increase Trig, decrease HDL, increase total cholesterol
Sedondary hyperlipidemia:
What does Hypothyroidism result in
increase Trig increase Total TC
Secondary hyperlipidemia:
What does High dose thiazide diuretics result in
increase TC, LDL, Trig
Sedondary hyperlipidemia:
What does Chronic renal result in
increase TC and Trig
Metabolic syndrome dx includes:
abd obesity, trig levels higher than 150, HDL less than 40 in men and 50 in women
What is characteristic of Metabolic Syndrome related to insulin?
Insulin resistance is present
Describe plasminogen activator inhibitor:
increased levels in atherosclerotic lesion
-inhibits fibrin degradation by plasmin
-enhances clot formation
Define metabolic syndrome:
3 or more: obesity, blood pressure, dyslipidemia, glucose intolerance
What is insulin resistance:
a reduced sensitivity in the tissue to insulins action at given concentration -->subnormal effect on glucose metabolism
Metabolic syndrome Guidelines:
abd men >40 inches, W >35
-Trig >150, HDL<40
BP: >130/85
Fasting glucose >110
Insulin resistance is inversely related to decrease urine clearanc of what
Uric acid (gout)
Tx of insulin sensitizing medication for pt w/ polycystic ovary syndrome can lead to
resumption fo ovulation, fertility, reduced hirsutism
What are some disadvantages to apple shaped (central abd fat)
metabolically active fat, high insulin levels, IR, free fatty acids and high insulin (increase hunger)
IR contribute to prothromotic and proatherogenic state because
Plasminogen activator inhibitor: inhibits fibrin degradation enhancing clot formation
Seeing a gradual climb in glucose level over years you should consider risk for
metabolic syndrome and DM2
Insulin resistance leads to HTN by increase in:
renal sodium resabsorption-->expand cir volume and incrase vascular resistance
Insulin resistance leads to cardiovascular effects of:
Hypertension through an increase vascular smooth muscle, greater response to angiotensin II and greater sympathetic activation
Aerobic exercise can reduce IR by what percent
40% and last 48hrs, reduces BP and improves lipids
What medication improves insulin sensitivity and metablic parameters like lipids and BP
TZD (pioglitazone, rosiglitazone)
What does daily ASA do for BP, lipids
counter act proinflammatory and prothrombotic effects of IR
What does the WHO define as obesity ___kg/M2 or more
30 Kg/M2
What does orlistat do for weight loss
reduc dietary fat absorption by 30%. Results in diarrhea if you eat fats
What does Meridia due for weight loss
acts on brain control for mood an dwell being and appetite
When can someone consider Bariatric surgical:
100lbs or more over ideal or >40BMI
What are risk factors for pancreatitis:
hyperlipidemia, abd trauma, thiazid diuretic use, alcoholism, gallbladder stones,
What lab is obtained to determine acute pancreatitis
serum lipase level w/ amylase
What is the most reliable test for pancreatic cancer
MRI is the most reliable diagnostic.
What is care of pancreatitis
parenteral hydration , analgesia, gut rest, tx underlying cause
How does a pancreatic cancer present:
abd pain , weight loss, anorexia, N/v, jaundices
Amylase in Acute Pancreatitis will appear ______ and return back to normal ______. What % are due to cholelithiasis vs % due to alcoholic pancreas
* appears 2-12h after sx onset
* back to normal w/in 7d of pancreatitis resolution
* Amylase level >1000 U/L
*80%=Dx cholelithiasis
*6% = Dx alcoholic pancreatitis
Amylase: What effects amylase levels
Nonpancreatic amylase:
*salivary glands
* ovarian cysts
* ovarian tumors
* tubo-ovarian abscess
* ruptured ectopic preg
* lung cancer
Lipase in Acute Pancreatitis:
Lipase appear how soon after onset and peaks at what time frame
* appears 4-8h after sx onset
* Peaks at 24h, decreases 8-14d of pancreatitis resolution
What non pancreatic reasons would result in elevated Lipase?
* renal failure
* perforated duodenal ulcer
* bowel obstruction
* bowel infarction
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Characteristics (patho)
excessive energy release, rapid cell turnover
Hperthyroidism: signs and sx
Causes (disease names)
Graves, thyroiditis, metabolically active thyroid nodule
Hperthyroidism: signs and sx
Neurologic: sx
Nervousness, irritability, memory problems
Hperthyroidism: signs and sx
Weight
weight loss (modest only in 50%)
Hperthyroidism: signs and sx
Enviornmental response
Heat intolerance
Hperthyroidism: signs and sx
Skin
Smooth, silky skin
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Hair
fine hair w/ freq loss
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Nails
thin nails that break w/ ease
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
GI
frequent, low-volume, loose stools
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Menstrual
Amenorrhea or low-volume menstral flow
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Reflexes
Hyperreflexia w/ "quick out-quick back" action
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Muscle strength
Proximal muscle weakness
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Cardiac
Tachycardia
Hyorthyroidism: signs and sx
Characteristics: physiological
Reduced energy release, slow cell turnover
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Causes (disease state)
Post thyroididits >90%, primary pitutuary failure (rare), thyroid removal
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Neurologica
lethargy, disinterest, memory problems
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx:
Weight
Weight gain (5-10lbs)
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Environmental response:
chilling easily, cold intolerance
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Skin
Coarse, dry skin
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Hair
thick, coarse hair w/ tendency to break
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
nails
thick, dry nails
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
GI
constipation (slow down everything)
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Menstrual
Menorrhagia
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Reflexes
hyporeflexia: Slow relaxation phase, "hung up" reflex
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Muscle strength
no change
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Cardiac
bradycardia (in severe cases
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Hair
fine hair w/ freq loss
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Nails
thin nails that break w/ ease
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
GI
frequent, low-volume, loose stools
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Menstrual
Amenorrhea or low-volume menstral flow
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Reflexes
Hyperreflexia w/ "quick out-quick back" action
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Muscle strength
Proximal muscle weakness
Hyperthyroidism: signs and sx
Cardiac
Tachycardia
Hyorthyroidism: signs and sx
Characteristics: physiological
Reduced energy release, slow cell turnover
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Causes (disease state)
Post thyroididits >90%, primary pitutuary failure (rare), thyroid removal
Hypothyroidism: signs and sx
Neurologica
lethargy, disinterest, memory problems
Increased thyroid disorder risk increase in what age grp
elderly
What lab value for TSH fT4 is most consistent w/ hypothyroidism
normal fT4 and elevated TSH Levels (somthing is wrong w/ the thryoid and the pituitary is trying to compensate by giving more TSH)
what is Hashimoto's disease
hypothyroidism from an autoimmune response (most common) resulting in thyroidistis destroying large amounts of thyroid
What is the most common causes of hypothyroidism
autoimmune thyroiditis next is surgical
What lab value do you expect to find in Graves disease
Low TSH level (thyroid overproduction makes pituitary slow down in production of TSH w/ feed back mechanism)
What is a physical finding in graves related to the eyes
Eye LID retraction (appears eye are bulging)
What is the mechanism of action for radioactive iodine in tx of Graves
destroy overactive thyroid
What is useful in tx tremor in hyperthyroidism?
propanolol (beta blocker)
T4 for elderly dose should be what compared to middle age adult
75% or less
What do you suspect on thyroid scan that reveals thyroid mass (cold spot):
thyroid cyst
What lipid value do you find in untreated hypothyroidism
hypertriglyceridemia
U find painless thyroid mass and TSH level less than 0.1 (low) what is the causes
autonomously functioning adenoma
Fixed, painless thyroid mass w/ s of hoarsness and dysphagia what should you consider:
thyroid malignancy
What is cost effective to determine malignancy from benign thyroid nodules
fine-needle aspiration biopsy
What is a side effect of excessive levothyroxine (synthroid)
Bone thinning
When should TSH be reassessed when tx w/ synthroid (levothyroxine) is altered
6-8wks
U find 3cm round mobile thyroid mass, US reveals fluid filled structure dx is
thyroid cyst
A patient w/ downs syndrome should periodically be monitored for what endocrine disorder
hypothyroidism
What do you expect to find in elderly w/ hyper or hypothyroidism
atypical presentation: typically lab values identify disease
What is the purpose of thyroid hormone physiologically (basic)
assist cell in energy releasing activities
What medication can causes a alteration in iodine metabolism=hypothyroidism
lithium, amiodarone
What is the most sensitive and specific thyroid test
TSH (produced by anterior pituitary)
What is the negative feedback loop in thyroid pituitary function
TSH output is determined by amount of circulating T4
What is the most helpful test in confirmation of an abnormal TSH level
fT4- it reflects the function of the thyroid gland. So TSH first the T4 (usually obtained together) but too many things cause variation in T4 to for it to be significant by itself
Is TSH increase or decreased in hypothyroidism
Increased (it is trying to compensate due to decrease feedback of T4)
Is TSH increased or decreased in hyperthyroidism
Decreased (thyroid is putting off extra T4 so pituitary decreases amount of TSH)
How do you confirm hyperthyroidism if TSH is low or undetectable?
obtain fT4:
(if it is high then the feedback is decreased)
What medication is given w/ low T4 (hypothyroidism)
synthroid (levothyroxine)
What is the age of onset of Graves
20-40 years
(may have underlying like pernicious anemai, myasthenia gravis, DM)
What is the clinical presentation of graves?
diffuse thyroid enlargement, exophthalmos, nervousness, tachycardia, heat intolerance
What does a thyroid scan reveal in Graves?
Large (hot) gland w/ heterogeneous uptake
What are tx of graves:
Methimazole, propylthiiouracil or radioactive iodine or removal of thyroid
(then tx hypothyroidism)
What do you expect the lab values to be in hypothyroidism
Elevated TSH and normal fT4 (subclinical)
When should u initiate tx of hypothyroidism?
When TSH rise above 10mU/L (normal 0.5-4) even in presence fo normal fT4
What is the initial dose of synthroid in tx of hypothyroid
75-125 ug (75% or less in elderly)
What do you do if you find a palpable thyroid nodule:
watch and wait if no changes to TSH (may obtain fine-needle biopsy to determine malignancy)
BPH affects approx ___% of men by age of 60
50 (90% by 85y/o)
What are sx of BPH
increase frequency decrease force of output, nocturia, sensation incomplete bladder
What medication cause urinary retention in men complicating BPH
tricyclic, first gen antihistamines (anticholinergic effect)
What non pharm causes bladder irritation after intake of:
caffeine and artifical sweetners: do not use if incontence or bladder disorders
What class of med can be helpful in BPH:
alpha1 receptor antagonist (alpha blockers) (note: if HTN too then only added to existing therapy
What medication helps reduce the size of the prostate by blocking conversion of testosterone to dihydrtestosterone.
Finasteride
When should surgical intervention be considered in BPH.
recurrent UTI, recurent or persistent gross hematuria, bladder stones, renal insufficiency
Chancoid is a
(soft chanker) STI: from bacteria H. Ducreyi
Treatement of Chancoid is:
Azithromycin (macrolide)
ciprofloxacin (2nd gen fluorquinolone)
ceftriaxone (cephalosporin)
What other disease do you expect to find when testing for chancroid (STD)
herpes simplex
What does Chancroid look like?
vesicular pustular lesion painful, soft ulcer w/ necrotic base at point of inoculation.
What is the causative organism in lymphogranuloma venereum
C. trachomatis 1&3
What are the physical findings w/ lymphogranuloma venereum
lesions fuse and create multiple draining sinuses mainly in the groin
What is the tx for lymphogranuloma venereum
tetracycline
Chancroid: causative organism
presentation
H. ducreyi
painful genital ulcer, mult lesion, inguinal lymphadenitis
Chancroid Tx
Azith 1g oral or
Ceftriaxone 250 IM or
Cirpo 500 BID x 3d
Genital Herpes: organism, presentation
HSV2
Painful ulcerated lesion (w/ primary
Genital Herpes: Tx
Initial: acyclovir 400 Tidx7-10 or
famciclovir 250 tid x7-10,
episodic:
acyclovir 400 tid x 5d
famciclovir 125 bid x 5d
Suppression
acyclovir 400 bid
Lymphogranuloma venereum: oragnism presentation
C. Trachomatis:
vesicular ulcer lesion, external genitalia w/ inguinal lymphadenitis or buboes
Lymphogranuloma venereum: tx
Doxy 100 Bid x 21d
Nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis: organism presentation
C. trachomatis
cervitiss, irritative void, mucopurelent discharge
nongonococcal urethritis and cervicitis: tx
azith 1g PO or dox 100 bid x7d
Gonococcal urethritis: organism presentation
N. gonorroeae
irritative void, purulent discharge
Gonococcal urethritis: Tx
Single dose uncomplicated of Cefixime 400mg PO or ceftriaxone (rocephin) 125mg IM, tx w/ azith 1g single or doxy 100 bid x 7 in chlaymida not ruled out
What do you treat concurrently w/ gonococcal urethrits (GC)
Chlamydia (azith 1g or doxy x 7d)
Epididymitis (epidimymoorchitis) organism and presentation
N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis
irritative void, fever painful swell epidiymis and scrotum
epididymitis: tx
ceftriaxone (rocephin) 250mg IM PLus doxy 100mg bid x 10d
Trichomoniasis: organism presentation
T. vaginalis:
none or dysuria, strawberry cervix (punctate hemorrhages)
trichomoniasis: tx
Metronidazole (flagyl) 2g onetime
Genital warts (condyloma acuminata): orgnanism presentation
HPV
verruca form lesions or subclincial
Genital warts (condyloma acuminata): tx
patient applied: polofilox 0.5% or imiquimod 5% cream:
Provider: liquid nitrogen, tricholoacetic acid, surgical or podophyllin resin
Acute bacterial prostatitis <35y: organism presentation
N. gonorrhoeae, C. trachomatis
irritative void, suprapubic, perinal pain, fever, tender boggy prostate
acute bacterial prostatitis: Tx
Ofloxacin 400mg x1 then 300BIDx10d or
Ceftriaxone (rocephin) 250mg IM then doxy 100mg bid x 10
Acute bacterial prostatits: organism and presentation >35y
Enterobacteriaceae (coliforms)
void, suprapubic perinaeal pain, boggy prostate, leukocytosis
acute bacterial prostatis: tx >35
Ciprofloxacin 500mg bid or ofloxacin 200mg PO qD x 14
Chronic bacterial prostatis: organism presentation
enterobacteriaceae
void, dull,poorly localized suprapubic perineal pain
What is the difference in epididymitis in younger vs older men
older men: secondary to prostatitis
younger: STI: C. trachomatis or N. gonorrhoeae
What is Prehn sign in epididymitis?
reduction in pain when scrotum is elevated above symphysis pubis
What is epidiymoorchitis:
both testicles involved swelling so two cannot be distinguished
epidiymoorchitis: mainly caused by UTI: What is the diagnostic test to determine tx?
urine culture
37y/o w/ gram neg cocci, dysuria, urethral discharge what is likely organism:
N. gonorrhoeae
Tx option for gonococcal proactitis is
ceftriaxone, 125 IM
CDC recommends what single dose for uncomplicated urethritis by N. gonorhoeae?
cefixime (cephlasorin )suprax
Risk of transmission from infected woman to male is what percent if single coital act?
20-30%: 60-80% chance man to women
What is the incubation period of N. Gonorrhoeae
1-5d
Because gonorrhoeae produces beta-lactamase what is the best antibiotic
cephalosporin: ceftriaxone and cefixime
Tx of chronic bacterial prostatitis should consider treating a gram ____ _____ organism
gram negative rods (e. coli or pseudomonas)
What are sx of acute bacterial prostatitis:
perineal pain, irritative void, fever

Low back pain in chronic BP
What does the prostate feel like on exam w/ acute bacterial prostatitis
boggy
How long should the tx of chronic bacterial prostatitis last and what med is best:
ciprofloxacin for 4wks may need 12 wks.
What is the best diagnostic test to ID offending organism in bacterial prostatitis
urine culture
What does a digital rectal exam of prosate cancer find
prostatic induration
A PSA will ____ w/ prostate cancer
double in serial annual test w/ normal prostatic exam
Risk factors for prostate cancer
African, FHx, high fat diet
Average American __% life time risk of prostate cancer
40 %
What are the findings on testicular torsion?
scrotal pain unilateral loss of cremasteric reflex, swollen tender
What diagnostic test is used in assessing testicular torsion
doppler to determine blood flow: (will be decreased if severe)
What is orchiopexy and when is it used
Tacking the testicles low in the scrotum to prevent re-occurrence of testicular torsion
Variocele presents w/
"bag of worms" mass in scrotum dissappears when lying down
What is a lab finding w/ variocele
decreased sperm count w/ increase abnormal forms (similar to varicose veins in the legs...weak valves result in increase swelling of veins)
What is tx of variocele ( like varicose veins in scrotum)
scrotal support
Primary syphilis: presentation, tx
painless ulcer, indurated: lymphadenopathy.
PNC G 2.4m IM if allergy then
Doxy 100mg Bid x 2w
also tx for secondary syphilis or latent syphilis of <1yr
Secondary syphilis: presentation, Tx
diffuse maculopapular rash palms and soles, lymphadenopathy. fever, malaise
Tx: PNC G 2.4M IM allergey to PNC
Doxy 100mg BID or Tetra 500 QID x2wk
Later or tertiary: presentation, slide 3 tx
Gumma (granulomatous lesions involveing skin, mucous membranes, bone) aortic insufficiency, aortic aneurysm, Argly Roberttson pupil seizures
PNC G 2.4 M IM weekly x 3 wk or if allergic like secondary:
doxy 100mg BID x 2 wks
When do lesions present in syphilis
2-4 wks after sexual contact.
What is a sequelae of HPV
anorectoal carcinoma
What best describes a condyloma acuminatum lesion
verruciform
Tx w/ condyloma acuminatum:
imiquimod (aldara) or podofilox
What age should you receive HPV for colorectoal carcinoma prevention
13-18
What are common risk factors for ED
HTN, DM, smoking (anything): testosterone deficiency is NOT a risk factor
What is the result of using sildenafil (what is it)
Erection: although sexual stimulation will still be needed to achieve erection: (viagra)
What is the most probable cause of ED in 70y/o
some underlying cause
What medications can causes ED
anti HTN, antidepressants, cimetidine (tagament)
How does sildenafil or vardenafil work?
enhance effects of nitric oxide: chemical relaxes smooth muscle in penis and allows increase blood flow (take 1hr prior to sex)
What should not be taken w/ sildenifil (viagra)
a nitrate (NTG)
What drug can be injected into the penis for erection or what drug can be inserted in the urethra (ouch)
alprostadial (caverject) or Muse
Describe the effects of asthma on the airway
chronic airway inflammation w/ superimposed bronchospasm
What do you expect to find in an acute asthma flared managed in a primary care (physical exam not lung sounds)
hyperresonance on thoracic percussion
44y/o being tx w/ fluticasone w/ salmeteral (advair) 1puff bid and albuteral 1-2 x wk prn wheeze. Now w/ URI and wheeze what diagnostic should you obtain to assess air flow?
peak expiratory flow (PEF): maximum speed of expired air
24y/o asthma flare, using pulmicort and albuterol but cont to have wheeze. PEF 55% baseline you should adjust meds to include
adding a prednisone. For long term control a long acting beta 2 agonist can also be used
What do you expect to find on CXR during acute asthma attack?
Hyperinflation (think of wheeze trying to escape)
36y/o w/ asthma and HTN what med should you avoid when tx his HTN
beta blocker (propanolol)
Which sx is consistent w/ asthma
nocturnal cough, cough or wheeze after exercise, cold that "got to the chest" or tak >10d to clear
What is a corner stone tx of moderate persistent asthma
inhaled corticosteroid
29y/o female moderate intermittent asthma, not using inhaled corticosteroid but is using albuterol PRN to relieve her cough and wheeze> now using 2 puffs per day you should
discuss excessive albuterol use may increase risk of asthma death
In tx of asthma what should leukotriene inhibitors be used for:
inflammatory inhibitors
How long after inhaled corticosteroids or leukotriene do you expect to see results
1-2 weeks
Xopenex has what improved benefit over albuterol
greater bronchodilation w/ lower dose
What are the goals of of asthma care:
minimal or no sx like cough and wheeze especially at night
What is the normal circadian variation of PEF
10-15% from waking to night: w/ asthma it is >15% at night =nocturnal bronchospasm
What is the backbone of mild, moderate or severe persistent asthma therapy (3 slides)
use of inflammatory control drug: inhaled corticosteroids (symbicort, fluticasone), mast cell stabilizers (cromyln) and leukotriene modifiers (singulair)
note: Inhaled corticosteroids are the most effective and preferred
What are the rescue inhaler and why are they used
short acting-beta 2 agnoist (albuterol, levalbuterol) used to relieve acute superimposed bronchospasm
In asthma control what is the next treatment when giving a corticosteroid when sx control is not being met:
Add a long acting beta 2 agonist: salmetrol, formoterol
beta2 agonist have a "-terol" suffix what are some meds and what are their actions
albuterol short acting, and salmetrol long acting: Stimulate beta 2 site causing bronchodilation
Why should beta-adrenergic antagonist "lol" not be used in asthma?
They can precipitate bronchospasm ie propanolol
Corticosteroids have an "-one" or "-ide" suffix: examples
fluticasone (flovent), prednisone, budesnide (pulmicort)
Leukotriene receptor agonist (leukotriene modifiers) have "-lukast" sufix: examples:
montelukast (singulair)
Why is do you hear hyperresonance on percussion and hyperinflation in asthma
because of air trapping, decreased PEF
Asthma:
Inhaled Corticosteroids: MoA, indication (three slides)
inhibit eosinophilc action, potentate effects of beta2 agonist
controller drug, prevention of inflammation:
must be used consistently to help
Asthma tx:
Cromolyn (intal): MoA and indications (3 slides)
halts degradation of mast cells and release of histamine (MAST cell stabilizer)
Controler drug, prevents inflammation:
need consistent use but less effect than corticosteriods
Leukotrien modifier: (montelukast) singulair: MoA, indications
M of A: Inhibit action of inflammatory mediator by blocking receptor sites
Indications: controller drug, prevent inflam
less effective than corticosteroids
best when added on as 2nd tx w/ allergic rhinitis
Oral corticosteroids: MoA, indictations (3 slides)
inhibit eosinophili and other inflammatory actions
-tx of acute inflamation in asthma and COPD
>2wks tx adrenal suppression
Albuterol (ventolin, proventil,xopenex): MoA, indications
Beta2 agonist; bronchodilation via stimulation of beta2 receptors
-Rescue drug: acute bronchospasm: onset: 15min, duration 4-6hrs
Long acting beta2 agonist: salmeterol: MoA and indications
Beta2 agonist; broncholiation, through stimualation of beta2 receptors
Prevent broncho spasms:
Salmetrol: onset 1hr, druation 12hr.
Ipratropium (atrovent)
tiotropium bromide (spiriva): MofA and indications
anticholinergic and muscarinic antagonist, yielding broncholdiation
tx and prevent bronchospasm:
onset >30min
best use to avoid rather than tx bronchospasm
Theophylline: MoA and indications
mild bronchodilation, helps diaphram contract
prevent bronchospasm
Narrow theraputic not used often
what is the therapeutic action of inhaled corticosteroids when tx COPD
reduction in airway inflammation
What is consistent w/ dx of COPD
FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.70
What is found in the airway early stages of chronic bronchitis
excessive mucus production
What is found in the airway of emphysema patients
enlargement of air spaces distal to terminal bronchioles
What is the GOLD tx for COPD guidelines for stages II-Iv COPD
short-acting inhaled bronchodilators
What is the goal of using inhaled corticosteriods in stage III COPD
minimize risk of repeated exacerbations
Which cortiocsteriod is most potent:
methylprednisolone, 8mg
triamcinolone, 10g
prednisone 15mg
hydrocortisone 18mg
Prednisone
What is the typical organism in acute chronic bronchitis
H. influenzae...also Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Chlamydia pneumoniae, and Streptococcus pneumonia.
What is an appropriate antibiotic for a 72y/o HF, acute bacterial COPD who has failed amoxicillin
levofloxacin
What is the appropriate antibiotic for 52y/o w/ acute bacterial COPD exacerbation
azithromycin
What is the definition of chronic bronchitis:
report of excessive mucus for >3m per year fro 2 years absence of other causes 80% causes by smoking
What is considered the backbone of COPD therapy
Bronchodilators: Tioptropium bromide (Spiriva) and ipratropium bromide (atrovent) anticholinergic w/ stage II-IV COPD
What should you advise all COPD patients to avoid
noxious agents, smoking, irritants, obtain annual influenza and antipneumococcal vaccine
COPD: Stage Characteristic, treatment
Stage 0
cough, sputum production, no spirometric abnormalities
tx: COPD risk reduction
COPD: Stage Characteristic, treatment
Stage I Mild
FEV: FVC ratio <0.70
>FEV >80% of predicted
w/w/o sx
hort acting bronchodilator PRN
-albuterol, pirbuterol, levalbuterol
COPD: Stage Characteristic, treatment
FEV:FVC ration >0.70
-50%>FEV <80% of predicted
W or w/o sx
REg us of >1 long acting bronchodilator: tiotropium,salmeterol
-short acting bronchodilator PRN
-inhaled corticosteroids if repeated exacerbation
-pulmonary rehabilitation
COPD: Stage Characteristic, treatment:
Stage III
FEV:FVC ratio<0.70
-30%>FEV <50% of predicted
Reg us of >1 bronchodilator
-Tiotropium/salmeterol
short acting: albuterol
Corticoid if repeated
Pulmonary rehabilitation
COPD: Stage Characteristic, treatment
Stage IV
FEV:FVC ratio <0.70
-FEV<30% of predicted or resp failure or HF
>1 long acting broncho: triotriopium
- short acting: albuteral
-cortico if repeat exacerbation
-tx of complications
-long term o2 therapy
-surgical
Potency of corticosteroids:
Higher potency (equipotent doese):
Which is highe potency:
Dexamethasone 0.75mg
Betamethasone 0.6-.75mg
Betamethasone 0.6-.75mg
Dexamethasone 0.75mg
Potency of corticosteroids:
Medium potency (equipotent dose)
Methylprednisolone 4mg
Triamcinolone, 4mg
prednisolone 5mg
prednisone 5mg
Potency of corticosteroids
Lower patency (equipotent dose)
Hydrocortisone 20mg
cortison 25mg
acute bacterial: COPD: etiology and tx:
Gram-pos and neg respiratory pathogen, atypical
amoxicillin or doxy or cephalo, if failure then
fluoroquinolone or HD augmentin
Acute bacterial: Chronic bronchitis: what is the organism: what is the tx
Psuedomonas aeruginosa
Tx: Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin
5MM or larger w/ HIV or other immunosuppression or organ transplant or taking 15mg prednisone = pos or neg TB
positive TB
What is the dx after PPD: 10mm in high risk: immagrants, IV drug, health care, resident housing, correction, homeless, health:
Positive TB
15mm or larger in all others including those that appear to have no TB
Positive TB
Anergy testing in TB
giving skin test of substances other than TB determines weakened immune system
Bacille Calmette Guerin in TB
given in many countries: low risk of causing false-pos
Booster phenomenon in TB:
seen in elderly. first TB is neg but next year positive because previous infection long ago boost the immune response
Two step testing TB is used to:
distinguish booster rxn (caused by TB infection that occured years ago) from rxn caused by recent infection
What is chemoprophylaxis therapy for pos TB but no sx
isonizide therapy and periodic chest xray
Antibiotic for community acquired pneumonia: No comorbidity
azithromycin 5-7d
antibiotic for CAP pt cant take macrolide:
doxycycline
Antibiotic for CAP in 78y/o w/ COPD
amoxicillin w/ a macrolide
Antibiotic for CAP in 69y/o w/ HF and DM2:
respiratory fluoroquinolone
Antibiotic for CAP in 58y/o w/ dry cough, HA malaise no recent antibiotic:
clarithromycin (biaxin) macrolide, doxy
What is a quality of respiratory fluoroquinolone:
activty against drug resistant S. pneumonia (DRSP)
Drug resistant S. Pneumonia (DRSP) mechanism of resistance:
alteration in protein-binding sites
H. influenzae mechanism of resistance:
beta lactamase production
What is a characteristic of macrolide:
effective against atypical pathogen also beta lactamase (PNC is not effective against beta lactamase)
CAP should be tx w/ antimicrobial for how long according to american thoracic society
5-7days outpatient
What are modifying factors for P. aeruginosa
corticosteroid use, strucural lung disease, malnutrition
What is mechanism of transmission in atypical pneuomonia?
cough
Risk factors for pneuomina death:
renal insufficency, elderly, comorbidity, immunosupressed
What is an acceptable sputum specimen for gram staining?
few squamous epithelial cells and many WBC
52y/o smoker w/ CAP, 3rd day therapy w/o fever, hydrated, feeling better when do you get chest xray
7-12 weeks from now
62y/o hosp w/ CAP considers what about vaccination
influenza and antipneumococcal should be given now
Why is it labeled community acquired pneumonia?
pt resides in comunity not recently hosp and not nursing home
What is typical presentation of pneumonia?
Cough, dyspnea, sputum production, pleuritic chest pain,
What may CXR reveal in pneumonia pt
infiltrate patterns and areas of consolidation w/ S. pneuonia
If a smoker w/ pneumonia take CXR 7-12 wks after therapy to assess for ?
lung cancer
What is the main organism of smokers w/ pneumonia?
H. influenzae (tracheobronchial tree conlonized
How are mycoplasma pneumoniae and C. pneumonia transmited
via cough, in closed community
Tx of CAP:
no comorbidity:
macrolide: azithro or clarithro
Alt: doxy if macro intolerant
Tx of CAP:
w/ comorbidy : HF, COPD
Beta-lactam: cepodoxime, augmenten, ceftriaxone+cefpodoxime PLUS
macrolide or doxy or resp fluoroquinolone
What increases risk of death from pneumonia?
>65yrs, electrolyte or hem disorder (Na<130, absolute neutrophil <1000) other illness.
What organism is seen mostly in alocholics w/ pneumonia
Klebseilla. pneumonia
What increases Risk of CAP by P. aeruginos:
structual lung, corticosteroid, broad spectrum antibiotic in previous month, malnutrition
What increase risk of resistant microbes:
repeat exposure to given agent, underdosing, unecessary prolonged tx period
H. influenzae produces beta-lactamase: what antimicrobial is ineffective against this
penicillin
what antimicrobials are useful when beta-lactams are ineffective (atypical pathogens)
macrolides, tetracyclines, respiratory fluoroquinolones
What is the best preventative measure to prevent the most fatal form of pneumonia:
obtaining a pneumococcal vaccine
CNS: I, II, III: control or responsible for ?
Olfactory, Optic, Occulomotor (eye movement)
CNS: IV, V, VI
Trochlear (ear), Trigeminal (temp, pain, tactile), abducens (eye)
CNS: VII, VIII, IX
Facial (Bells palsy), auditory (vestibulocochlear, rinne test), glossopharyngeal (swallowing)
CNS: X, XI, XII
Vagus, Accessory (shoulder shrug), Hypoglossal: protrusion of tongue
What can be a complication of Lyme disease:
bells palsy (need to obtain a titer to verify)
What lab test should be obtained w/ bells palsy:
RPR, veneral disease test, HIV
Is Neuroimaging needed w/ bells palsy?
no due to unilateral CN dysfunction on typical of intracranial neoplasm
What is tx of Bells palsy:
may give corticosteroid if w/in 10days of sx
40y/o 5wk hx recurrent HA at night, last 1hr severe behind left eye w/ lacrimation, nasal discharge what is HA dx:
cluster HA
Prophylactic tx for migraines HA:
Propanolol (beta blocker)
55y/o woman hx of angina and migraine: best choice of acute HA tx (called abortive migraine therapy)
ibuprofen
Migraine HA typically presents as a _____ Pain
pulsating pain
Tension HA typically described as _____ type pain
pressing type pain
Tx options in cluster HA include:
NSAID, oxygen, triptans (imatrex, maxalt)
What has the most rapid analgesic onset?
naproxen, liquid ibuprofen, diclofenac, celecoxib (all nsaids)
liquid ibuprofen
What are limitations to Fioricet (butalbital w/ APAP and caffeine?
high rate of rebound HA
Why should neuroleptic meds in migraines be limited to 3x per week?
Their extrapyramidal movement risk:
What should the expectation be w/ prophylactic HA tx long term:
approx 50% reduction in number
48y/o monthly 4d premenstrual migraine, poor response to triptans (serotonin receptor agonist) and analgesic w/ hot flashes what next:
-use continuous monophasic oral contraceptive
-estrogen patch
-triptan prophylaxis
Prophylactic tx for prevention of tension type HA include
desipramine (Norpramin) tricylic antidepressant
68y/o w/ new HA, bilateral frontal to occipital worse on rising in am and coughing, better mid day. What is causing HA?
increased ICP
Clinical presentation:
Tension Ha
30min-7d w/ >2 of following
-press, nonpulsating
-mild to moderate
-bilateral
- >1 of following then migriane
Nausea, photophob,phonophob
clinical presentation : migraine w/o aura:
5 attacks w/:
B. last 4-72hrs
C.two: unilateral, pulsating, mod-severe, activity aggravates
-during HA >1 of following
N/V
photophob and phonophob
Clinical presentation:
Migraine w/ aura
HA w/ or after aura
-focal dysfunction of cerebral cortex or brianstem =>aura sx develop over 4min, =>2sx occur in succession:
-no aura sx last >1hr. then consider alternative dx
Clinical presentation:
Cluster HA
occur daily in grps (clusters):
-last wks-months, then dissappear m-yrs
-occur same time of year equinox, 1-8 episode/d. Mostly 1hr into sleep, (alarm clock) HA
-behind one eye w/ steady intense, crescedo pattern 15-3h: Suicide HA w/ lacrimation, conjunctival injection, ptosis, nasal stuffiness
In the absence of neurological exam MRI or CT is usually not indicated?
Yield little additional information compared to cost
Are Migrain w/ or W/o aura more common?
without an aura (effects 80% of migraine) assess for warning of agitation, jitteriness
What does SNOOP stand for in HA RED flags
S-systemic sx: fever, weight loss, HIV cancer
N-neuro sx: confusion, LOC
O- onset: sudden, abrupt
O- Old: new onset progressive, >50y/o
P- Previous: FHx, different, change in attack and freq, severity, presentation
Cluster HA are more common in what age
middle age men w/ heavy alcohol and tobacco (suicide HA) over several weeks w/ lacrimation, rhinorrhea
What is tx of cluster HA
remove trigger: smoking, alcohol, triptans, NSAID, oxygen
What form of migraine tx has rapid onset but more expensive
injectable: sumatriptona, dihydroergotamine: 15-30min. best if GI upset
What are triptans and why are they used in HA (migraine): Preventative therapy used daily: Imitrex
selective serotonin receptor agonist: increase uptake of serotonin which vasoconstrics blood vessels decrease inflammation. (CONTRindicated in Prinzmetal angina or CAD or pregnant, or recent use of ergots)
What are ergotamines and why are they used in HA (migraine but NOT tenstion)
vasoconstrictor effects: avoid in hx of CAD
NSAIDS are useful for what type of HA
tension and migrain: inhibit prostaglanding and leukotriene synthesis (use first sx of Ha)
Which has best relief w/ HA: NSAID or APAP/ ASA
NSAID due to improved analgesic effect
Fioricet w/ caffeine, butalbital and APAP: use and type of HA
enhances neurotransmitter action, dependency risk and rebound
Midrin (isomethepetene, APAP, dichloralphenzone: used in and caution
migraine and tension HA: Contraindicated if vasoconstriction concern
Excedrin Migraine: ASA, APAP, caffeine: OTC: type HA
migraine and tension: excessive use may causes rebound
Neuroleptics: adjuct therapy to what type HA
migraine: control N/V, sedating
What are some examples of neuroleptics used in migraine tx:
Compazine, phenergan: used >3xwk increase risk of extrapyramidal effects
What are the risks of Opiod use?
dependency (habit), sedating use sparingly, respiratory distress if OD
What receptor do most HA medication work on?
5HT2 receptor: 1-2m use is required to be effective prophylactic
What are some HA inducing medications:
estrogen, progesterone, vasodilators
HA due to ICP presents w/ c/o
worst on awaking but decreases throughout day.
Tension Ha present w/ c/o
worsen as the day progresses
18y/o c/o HA fever, + kernig and Brudzinski signs: Dx
meningitis
19y/o dx meningococcal meningitis: who should receive prophylactic tx
those w/ household type exposure: >4hr/wk exposure
Bacterial meningitis w/ show ____ on CSF
glucose at 30% of serum level
Viral or aseptic meningitis expect to find CSF___
predominance of lymphocytes
Describe Kernig sx
pt lying supine - hip flexed 90 degree; knee extension = resistance or pain to lower back or posterior thigh
Papilledema is what:
optic disk bulging caused by elevated ICP bilateral
Who should the NP obtain a CSF on as part of eval for Fever
younger child w/ altered neurologic findings
What do you expect to find in CSF (WBC) of meningitis:
Pleocytosis: WBC >5cells/mm whether: bacterial, viral, tubercular, fungal or protozoan
What do you expect to find regarding glucose and protein of CSF in bacterial meningitis
decrease normal glucose (<60%), elevated protein levels
What do you expect to find in glucose and protein of CSF in viral meningitis
normal glucose, normal protein but +lymphocytosis
What diagnostic should be performed prior to Lumbar puncture on suspected meningitis
MRI or CT scan
What are common pathogens in bacterial meningitis adult:
S. pneumonia, N. meningitis, staph and H.influenzae
Clinical presentation of bacterial meningitis:
classic triad: fever, HA, nuchal rigidity
What is brudzinski sign
Passive neck flexion in supine => flexion of knees and hips (meningitis)
What does absence of venous pulsation during eye exam indicated?
increased ICP
How many hr of exposure increase risk of passing meningitis:
> 4 hours, wk prior to sx
What is antimicrobial options in bacterial meningitis
rifampin (antituberculin), ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone
34y/o dx w/ MS what is the typical pattern
variable exacerbations and remissions
Tx options in MS to attenuate disease progression:
interferon B-1B
What is consistent presentation of parkinson
tremor at rest and bradykinesia
What are tx options (pharm) w/ parkinsons
levodopa, ropinirole, pramipexole
Pallidotomy is helpful in managment of parkinsion disease associated w/ refactory ______
dyskinesia
What are common sx of MS:
numbness of limb, monocular visual loss, dipolia, vertigo, facial weakness o rnumbness, sphincter disturbance, ataxia, nystagmus
How is MS classified, what are the stages?
1. relapsing remitting MS: no neuro effects after remission
2. chronic progressive: episodes do not fully recover and accumulative defest
MS typical progression:
relapsing-remitting for years later develop chronic progressive
Why is MS difficulty to dx:
sx of recurrent fatigue, muscle weakness and other nonspecific sx occur w/ mult illness
What are then name of maintenace therapy for MS: interferon B-1b
Betaseron: reduces exacerbations
What immunosuppresive therapy is used in MS
methotrexate or mitoxantrone
What are the six cardinal signs of Parkinson:
tremor at rest, rigidity, bradykinesia, flexed posture, loss of postural reflexes, mask like facies (tremor at rest or bradykinesia must be present)
What is typical in Parkinson gait:
rapid small steps, turning takes several steps move forward/back
What is the tx of choice in parkinsons and why
ropinirole (Requip) and pramipexole (Mirapex) dopamine agonist
What develops after taking levodopa for 5-10 yrs for parkinson
dyskinesia (tics of hands, face)
What is used to reduce dyskinesia
Symmetrel: may only be used 1yr.
Why is pallidotomy used:
surgical therapy management of dykinesia in parkinsons: removal of gladius pallidum
Describe absence seizure (petit mal)
blank staring 3-50 sec w/ impaired LOC
Describe simple partial seizure?
awake state w/ abnormal motor lasting seconds
Describe tonic-clonic (grand mal)
rigid extension of arms and legs then sudden jerking w/ LOC
Describe myoclonic seizure
brief, jerking contraction of arms legs or trunk
Tx for seizure include:
carbamazepine (tegratol) phenytoin (dilantin), gabapentin (neurotin), clonazepam, valproic acid (AED)
When taking phenytoin w/ ____ may exhibit toxicity
theophylline
What is the risk of giving phenytoin w/ other high protein bound properties:
may result in displacement from protein binding site => increased free phenytoin => toxicity
What are risk factors for TIA
Afib, CAD, oral contraceptive
Delirium has acute or insidious onset?
acute: usually w/ change to medication w/ anticholinergic
Pneumonic for delirium: DELIRIUMS
D: drugs
E: emotion
L: low oxygen
I:infection
R: retention urine or feces
Ictal or postictal state
U- Undernurished: b12, folate, dehydration
M: metabolic (DM, thyroid
S: subdural hematoma
What is the tx of demintia/alzhiemers
Cholinesterase inhibitor (Aricept)
Define Primary HA
not associated w/ other disease, Migraine, tension type
Define Secondary HA
Associated w/ or caused by other conditions, does not resolve until cause resolved: ICP, brain tumor, bleed, inflammation
When does the evidence suggest to obtain Neuroimaging w/ nonacute HA
Hx: dizzy, numbness, HA awakens from sleep, worse w/ valsalva, accelerating, new onset
What might be suggested if patients says "worst HA of my life"
Consider hemmorhage.
What are some lifestyle triggers for migrianes
Menses, ovulation, preg, BC, illness, intense activity, sleep to much to little, missing meal, bright light, odors, weather, altitude ,meds, stress
What dieatary triggers infleuence migraine
ripened cheese, liver, herring, MSG, chocolate, alsohol, caffeine ect
What strategy is used to slow decline of the Alzheimer type dementia patient?
Vit E 10000 IU Bid or selegiline 5mg BID
AAN: Alz dementia: strategy:
mild to mod, use of cholinesterase inhibit mainstay of tx: what r they
Donepezil (aricept), rivastigmine (Exelon), time limited benefit 6-12m. Increase acetylcholine in brain. Aricept only tx approved for all stages of alzheimers.
What are diff dx of dementia in older adults w/ similar sx:
depression, pain, infection
Physical finding in COPD include
decrease tactile fremitus, wheeze, prolonged expiratory phase of forced exhalation, low diaphram, increased AP diameter, reduced forced expiratory volume at 1 sec, reduction in Sats.
NAEPP-EPR-3 Goals of asthma care
1. minimal/no chronic sx of cough/wheeze
2. few/no ER visit/hospitalization
3. Minimize air remodeling(inflame)
4. Minimal/no prn short acting beta 2 agonist (<2d/wk w/ beta2 except for sprots
5. no limitation to activity
What is the most common reason for protracted asthma exacerbation
viral URI
Long term O2 therapy in COPD:
Goal
- increase baseline PaO2 at rest to >60mm/hg or SaO2 >90% or both
- Indication to intiate long term: PaO2 <55mm or SaO2 <88% w/ or w/o hypercapnia, HF, cor pulmonale, polycythemia
What is a risk specific to females of developing DM?
Hx of gestational diabetes
Dx of DM2 can be made by:
glucose of 126 and 136:, glucose >200mg and confirmed or glucose tolerance w/ 2 abnormals
Screening for DM2 should be while:
fasting
Undiagnosed DM may present as what in females
vaginal candidiasis (elevated glucose feed yeast)
What is most important screen for diabetic nephropathy
Microalbumin: earliest indicate of kidney damage. if + reassess 3-6m
Screen in all DM >12y/o
What is the earliest glycemic abnormality?
postprandial glucose elevation
What is the typical presentation of DM2?
Insidious onset w/ weight gain. found on screening for fasting glucose
DM1 typical acute onset
ADA: what is tx of DM2 after oral meds have failed?
intermediate or long acting insulin at bedtime or morning 1xd 10U or0.2/kg. Cont oral unless sulfon or meglit (d/c)
Elevated glucose evening meal indicates what in a DM
not enough AM intermediate insulin, increase dose to 2-3U at a time, check sugars 3 d after change. Cont increase 2-3 until at goal
sx that may present as DM2 inlcude:
fatigue, athletes foot (glucose), infected mosquito bites
Acanthosis nigricans due to:
obese insulin resistance
What should target HR be in new DM
120s to 70s, the lower the better (w/in reason)
When do you screen a new DM2 for renal nephropathy
at diagnosis
How soon can you determine anti-proteinuric effect of ACE-I
6-8wks
What is the next lab if a pos albumin screen?
spot albumin w/ creatinine ratio
what is the definition of renal neropathy?
>300mg/d of albuminauria on 2 occasion seperated by 3-6m
What are the target lipids for DM according to ADA
HDL >50
LDL <100
Trig <150
what increases A1C
glucose and alcohol
What is the relationship w/ triglycerides and A1C:
Triglycerides w/ increase w/ A1C
How does hyperthyroidism affect blood pressure?
increase systolic and diastolic, HR is typically >100
What are some endocrine causes of secondary HTN?
pheochromocytoma, Cushings, neuroblastoma,
What is the normal value of TSH?
5.0
What lab abnormality is common w/ hypothyroidism? not involving the thyroid or pituitary
hypercholesterolema
What is the most sensitive test for majority of hypthyroidism?
TSH only
45y/o female TSH 13 then 1m later 15 what is the dx:
hypothyroidism
Hx of tx for hyperthyroidism will now likely have?
hypothyroidism
Serum free T4 falls TSH will?
TSH will rise
Hypercholesterolemia is common when TSH is >than ____
10 mU/L: dont tx hyperlipidemia until TSH <10
What are common lab findings in hypothyroidism not associated w/ thyroid or pituitary?
hyponatremia, hyperprolactinemia, hyperhomocysteinemia, anemia, elevated creatinine
What are medication and disorders that can increase TSH
metoclopramide (reglan), amiodarone, adrenal insufficiency, pituitary, generalized thyroid hormone resistance
what are common sx of hypothyroidism?
fatigue, weight gain, dry skin, hair nails that break easily, cold intolerance, constipation, menstrual irregularities
Tx of hyperthyroid has an inverse result of?
destroying the gland ability to produce thyroid hormone T3 and T4
What may happen to TSH if synthroid is substitued by a generic med?
TSH will vary due to the different bioavailablities of generic meds
How do you determine amount of T4 to replace (synthroid) in a patient?
replacement based on weight in Kg and multiply by 1.6 for 1 day.
What do you expect to FSH to do in a menopausal women w/ hot flashes and no period for 12m
increase (follicle stimulating hormone) best diagnostic is PE: bleed change, hot flash, sleep disturbance, GU sx
How long before PAP smear should women not have sex, douch, or use tampon
48hrs prior to PAP
60y/o w/ small amount vag bleed, postmenopausal x 2 yrs dx would be?
atrophic vaginal mucosa (endometrial carcinoma is a concern but rare)
28y/o w/ primary dysmenorrhea OTC motrin, naproxen what next tx?
oral contraceptives
Dx of osteoporosis is made when what diagnostic test?
BMD bone mineral density 2.5 more from standard or T-score of -2.5 or less
What is the usual age recommendation for HPV test?
21yrs or 3years after first sexual intercourse
Primary risk factor for breast cancer is?
age
A localized tumor in prostate gland will have what sx?
none: but will be indurated on exam
Hematuria is uncommon clinical manifestation in what early male cancer?
prostate cancer
30y/o w/ lump to breast during menses what is the next step?
advise to return 3-20 days after menstation to reasses, if any concern then mammogram and US
DRE (digital rectal exam): it is not acceptable to perform while: standing, kneeling, lying on side, in lithotomy position
kneeling: best way is supine and legs in stirrups
A radical prostatectomy 6 m ago now urinary incontinence what is going on?
a common complication, subsides in 2yrs and/or develop ED
What med should be avoided in benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)?
nasal decongestant: may increase urge to urinate
What age should digital rectal exam be perfromed for prostate cancer, what age should PSA and dRE
40 for DRE and 50 for both
When should PSA and DRE be perfromed on blacks?
before the age of 50yrs, five yrs prior to other races
What is the most common cause of epididymitis in <35y/o.
Chlamydia trachomatois, in older men >35 UTI is most common
Why are truck drivers predisposed to noninfectious epididymitis:
reflux of urine into epidimyis from ejaculatory ducts and vas
Inguinal hernia is hernation of what
bowel or omentum into scrotum
How does an inguinal hernia present?
scrotal pain and a scrotal mass or scrotal swell (abd pain) bowel sounds in scrotum (w/ a stethascope??)
What is Hesselbach triangle?
inguinal ligament, rectus muscle and epigastric vessel: Inguinal hernia
patient dx w/ cluster HA should eliminate what?
triggers like nicotine and alcohol
Audible carotid bruits indicate?
Atherosclerosis: increase probability of death from CVA or CAD
Mini mental status exam assess?
mild alzheimers
Differential dx of suspected alzheimers also includes?
tumor, cerebral hemmorage, cerebral infarct
what is included in the mini mental exam?
orientation, short-term memory-retention, short-term recall, language, attention (does NOT dx alzheimers)
How long after initiating acetylcholinesterase inhibitor should you eval for efficacy
6-12m: assess caregiver feedback, repeat mental status, ADL, S/E cost
What increases the risk of and elder being abused?
decrease cognative due to caregiver strain, stress depression
What does the snell chart test?
distant vision and CNII
Giant cell arteritis: temporal arteritis is best dx by?
temporal artery biopsy
What is the typical complaint of temporal arteritis:
new onset HA, abrupt visual change, jaw claudication, fever or anemia elevated sed rate 72y/o
Where is carpal tunnel usually felt on the fingers?
thumb, index finger middle finger and radial side of ring finger
What structures are directly affected by carpal tunnel?
Medial nerve: inflammation of wrist tendeons, transverse carpal ligament
What are 4 prominent features of Parkinson?
bradykinesia, muscular rigitdity, resting tremor, postural instability
What is anosmia?
inability to smell, CN 1 olfactory nerve (peppermint or coffee)
What CN is responsible for hearing
CN 8
What CN is responsible for eye movement
III, IV, VI
What CN is responsible for facial sensation?
CN V (light touch test)
What may be an indicator of hemorrhagic stroke?
headache w/ stroke
What diagnostics does a pt w/ new onset TIA
CT and/or MRI, ECG, CBC, PTT< lytes, creatinine, glucose, lipids transcranial doppler US
What should you do w/ a new onset TIA?
immediate ER referal
Why is ASA used as an antiplatelet therapy?
ASA inhibits enzyme cyclooxygenase adn reduces thromboxane A2 production
Define Secondary prevention?
intervention to help prevent second occurrence of deleterious event. ex: ASA after a stroke
What is the criteria for migraine?
1. 4-72hrs
2. HA has 2 of following: unilateral, pulsating mod to severe, aggravated routine activity
3. photophobia, phono
4. 5 attacks which fulfill these criteria
5. no underlying illness
Which are most likely triggered by food: migraine or tension
migraine: sx nausea, worse w/ activity
Does Bell palsy present w/ pain.
NO: sx of sagging eyebrow, impaired blink, mouth drawn up
How long after a rubella should a pt avoid pregnancy
1 month (though no documented injury of offspring) safe when breastfeeding
What immunizations can be given in 1st trimester?
influenza, tetanus, diptheria
When should varicella be given in pregnancy?
Never, no live viruses should be given during pregnancy
What are classic sx fo ectopic pregnancy?
amenorrhea, vag bleed, abdominal pain
Due dates are used to:
Assess fetal growth provide accurate data for screen test if LMP cant be determined do an US to determine fetal age.
What does pregnancy test assess the prescence of...
beta hCG: best 1st void in am or anytime if serum
Tx of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnancy?
nitrofurantoin (Macrobid): prevents pyelonephritis, Ciprofloxacin (quinolone should be avoided in preg), Amoxicillin is poor coverage of E.coli.
17y/o pregnant should be assessed for
STD and HIV:
Should all pregnant pt be screened for hypothyroidism?
No: only if hx of or FHx or symptomatic
What are risk associated with intercourse during pregnancy?
STD, preterm labor due to lower uterine stimuli, Oxytocin released
Routine screen of gestation diabetes should occur?
at 24 weeks
When should a 1st trimester pt w/ chlamydia and Gonorrhea be tx and rescreened
Tx immediately rescreened later even if no sx
what are increased risk of ectopic preg?
prior hx of ectopic, IUD use, Hx of PID, abortion
What medication should be used for UTI in pregnancy?
Macrodantin safe and most efficacious?
What medication is associated with fetal tooth discoloration? ....really?
Doxycycline
Why is ciprofloxacin not recommended during pregnancy?
potential problems w/ bone and cartilage formation
What is myperemesis gravidarum
persistent vomit results in weight loss of >5% (morning sickness is milder)
What is Anhedonia
loss of pleasure in things that use to bring interest, screen for depression
What is the most common S/E of lithium:
nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, plyuria and polydyspia
What is searching behavior after the death of a loved one?
Imagined hearing or seeing deceased...should resolve in 6m no meds needed
CAGE used for
screen for alcohol abuse
CAGE stands for:
C" need to cut down
A: Annoyed by criticism
G: guilty about amount
E: need eye opener.
Usually 2 or more
What are physcial sx of alcohol abuse?
Macrocytosis, due to B12 deficienttremors, HTN, rhinophyma, peripheral neuropahty, telangiectasias, hepatosplenomegaly
What labs are elevated in alcoholics?
Liver enzymes: ALT and AST usually 2x higher than ALT
Which of the following is bulimia nervosa?
bing w/o purge
pruge must be present
loss of control
refusal to eat
loss of control: may involve purge and nonpurge
What are typical S/E of SSRI
Nausea, Ha daily
Elderly tx for depression w/ TCA exhibit?
cognitive changes and urinary retention
Bipolar disorder is associated with high rates of >>.
suicide
What med is indicated for acute mania?
Lithium
What should be monitored when taking valproate for manic sx
Valporic Acid, platelets, LFT. Assess for thrombocytopenia,
Target valproate levels: 50-125
Tx for depression w/ fluoxetine finds out shes pregnant what should the next step be>
Continue w/ medication, let OB and patient make this decision; it does cross placenta
What drugs are associated with a dry cough?
ACE-I
What would be part of the differential in cough?
CHF, GERD, Asthma, URI, ACE-I
How is M. and C. pneumonia respiratory pathogens spread?
via cough
Which patient needs a peak flow?
chronic bronchitis, emphysema, pneumonia, asthma
Asthma: measures peak expiratory flow; sensitive to resp tube changes.
What does FEV1 stand for:
forced expiratory volume in 1 sec. Used w/ emphysema; aveoli are stretched and contain trapped air.
What medications are use to tx COPD? clsasses
long acting bronchodilators (salmeterol), anti-cholinergic (tiotropium), steroids.
Which of the following is most important to assess w/ new onset asthma?
-smoker?
-how severe r sx?
-How often do sx occur
-do you wheeze?
How often do sx occur? Determines pharm management and frequency.
A 45 yr smoker will most likely have what respiratory disorder?
COPD
Why are narcotic contraindicated in COPD patients?
decrease respiratory drive and worsen hypercapnia
What is the most common pathogen in atypical pneumonia?
mycoplasma pneumonia
What is the most common pathogen in community acquired pneumonia?
Streptococcus pneumonia: usually post influenza in the very young and old
How many metered doses are in an metered dose inhaler?
200 doses
What is the next step for a pt that is using MDI >2x wks and needs a refill w/ daily maintenance steroid.
Increase the steroid and refill the albuterol. the pt is not well controlled and needs better maintenance
Which of the following is not common in acute bronchitis?
cough, pharyngitis, nasal discharge, fever
Fever.
Cough is the most common lasting >5d. If fever w/ cough then consider pneumonia.
What is the tx for acute bronchitis w/ purulent sputum?
anti-tussive only. Only antibiotics if pertussis. Purulent sputum is epithelial cells sloughing which results in colored sputum.
Which of the following meds are needed in acute bronchitis?
-steroids oral
-antibiotic
-decongestant and antitussive
-antibiotic and steroids
-decongestant and anti-tussive
tx the sx rarely bacterial
What is the recommended max amount rescue inhaler should be used w/ proper asthma maintenance
2xwk day or 2x month at night
Why should you NOT use Timolol (eye medication) in an Asthma patient?
It is a beta-blocker which may precipitate asthma exacerbation
what is essential in dx of COPD
PFT = FEV and FVC (forced vital capacity)
Why should ipratropium (atovent) not be used w/ beta blockers unless short of breath?
Beta agonist increase side effects like tachycardia and treemors w/o improved efficacy
Why is asthma not listed under COPD diseases?
Asthma is reversible COPD is not.
Which organism in pneumonia has rust colored sputum?
Strept pneumonia
What major lab is found in pneumonia?
leukocytosis: gram stain can be pos or neg: leukopenia is an omnious sign in elderly
What is a typical finding on xray w/ pneumonia?
inflitrates: w/ fever, CP, dyspnea, sputum
Mycroplasma pneumoniais present as what type of pneumonia and what are the sx and what does the xray reveal?
atypical pneumonia
varied sx
xray has: thickened bronchial shadow, streaks of interstitial infiltration and atelectasis
What antibiotic can be used empirically w/ pneumonia in otherwise healthy pt
azithromycin or augmentin
What are sx of trichomonas in males
no sx in males:
Females: itching and discharge
Tx w/ metronidazole (flagyl)
Chancroid is an STD from H. Ducreyi what is it a co-factor STD w/:
HIV and heals slower:
males have pain females dont
21y/o w/ HPV lesions on vulva what is the tx:
trichloroacetic acid: warts will slough off after 1 or more tx
What test are ordered after + HIV results?
CD4 and HIV RNA (viral load): norm CD4 500-1500, at 200 dx w/ AIDS
How often should viral counts (CD4) be monitored?
every 3-4 months (2-8 wks when changing therapy) Sx do not affect CD4 counts
What medications are used for trichomoniasis
metronidazole
Which risk factor has greatest impact on HIV transmission?
viral load
-type of sex
-presence of STD
-patient gender
Viral load
How long after a needle stick will seroconversion occure?
4-10wks
Pt neg for HIV but exposed 4m ago. When should she be retested?
no recommendation for futher testing. Window period is w/in 3 mnths of exposure if neg after then neg
What is the primary reservoir for HIV?
lymphatic tissue
If someone has persistent generalized lymphadenopathy what should be tested?
HIV
What clincal syndrome is from replacement of normal vaginal flora?
bacterial vaginosis
Male patients presents w/ dsyuria what is the likely STD?
Chalmydia and gonorrhea
Dx w/ genital herpes, what will be prescribed?
valacyclovir
Suspected of syphilis needs a _____ screening
serum assessmetn RPR
72y/o early renal insufficiency: what lab do you expect
serum creatinine is sligtly elevated: protein would not be specific for renal disease
A pt w/ a long hx of HTN dx w/ chronic renal insufficiency: What would dx test reveal?
clear urine & elevated creatinine: clear because kidney cant filter content.
What organ is responsible for erythropoietin production:
kidney
When is the only time asymptomatic bacteria treated?
During pregnancy to prevent UTI, or other immunosuppressive state
What diagnostic diagnosis a UTI
urine bacteria >100,000, midstream, clean catch
What is murphys sign
inspiratory arrest w/ deep palpation of upper right quadrant (cholecystitis)
Are males or females more likely to suffer from urolithiasis?
males: sx of fever, chills, RBC casts are mucoprotein complexes
24y/o female patient dx w/ uncomplicated UTI. What is important and is least important assessment?
Body temp, abd exam, CVA tenderness, vag exam
body temp, abd exam, CVA tenderness: Vag exam would not be indication unless vag discharge
How long should a UTI be tx w/ septra?
3 days
Male w/ sx of burning w/ urination. what assessment is least important?
abd exam would be least important: diff dx: urethritis, epididymitis, prostatitis, STD
Acute Mnt Sickness:
Onset, sx, PE:
1-6hrs-several days, rapid
Sx: Ha, cough, anorexia, nausea, weakness, insomnia
PE: increased HR, decreased BP, fluid retention
Acute Mnt sickness:
Tx, Prevention
Tx: descend >500m, acclimatize, acetazolamide (diamox), emetics, analgesics
Prevention: Ascend slowly, avoid strenuous exertion and rapid ascent, consider acetazolamide 1 day prior and 2 days after ascent, spend night intermediate altitude
High-altitude pulmonary edema:
tx
descent, rest evacuation, nifedipine (CCB), oxygen, hyperbaric bag
High altitude cerebral edema:
Tx
descent evacuaiton, dexamthasone, hyperbaric bag, BLS, seizure control
What immune response results in anaphylaxis?
immunoglobulin E (IgE): bronchospasm, hypoxemia, hypotension. basophil and Mast cells
What immune response indicates severe rxn?
facial angioedema, resp distress, vascular collapse
What is a biphasic reaction?
Primary rxn 1-45 min after exposure then sec rxn hrs after exposure.
What medication is used for anaphylaxis?
IM Epi (0.3-0.5 of 1:1000) q 15min
-0.01mg/kg children (vastus lateralis)
-diphenhydramine: 50-100mg Po or IM if severe,
-Ranitidine 50mg IV
-Hydrocortisone for delayed relief: 100mg q6hr for relapse prevention
What test can ID allergens:
RAST: radioallergosorbent
Mosquitoes, flies: presentation
pruritic, painful papule, secondary infection common
Bedbug, kissing bug: presentation
clustered, erythematous, purutic nodules
Fleas: presentation
pruritic grouped welts, papules, vesicles, secondary infection common
Lice: presentation
pruritus, nits in scalp, body or pubic hair
Centipedes: presenation
pain an ditching w. local necrosisi
millipedes: bite presentation
brown stain w/ blistering
Scabies: Presentation
burrow lesion w/ pruritus, secondary infection, usually in webs of fingers and hands
Chiggers: presentation
pruritic papules or vesicles, secondary infection
Ticks: presentation
pruritic papules w/ tick present
Tx of lice and scabies includes:
1% lindane lotion or Kwell, scbene shampoo 2 consecutive nights, consider permethrin for scabies also
What is a good repellent to prevent outdoor insect bites?
diethyltoluamide (DEET) or Indalone
Describe a Brown Recluse and tx:
length 5x width, yellow, brwn or black, thin legs, violin shaped marking, supportive tx, or surgical if >2cm
Describe a Black widow and tx
female most venmous, black, brwn, tan, may or may not have hour glass, tx: supportive, tetanus, pain relief (calcium gluconate)
What are presentation of coral snake bite sx?
salivation, dysarthria, diplopia, dysphagia, dyspnea, seizures- 6hr after bite.
What is the tx for snake bites and scorpion stings?
calm, immobilze, minimize physical activity, wipe bite, BLS, tetanus, antivenom for snakes. Observe for 12 hrs
What is the mainstay of GI decontamination in overdose or chemical ingestion?
activated charcoal 1-2 g/kg: DONT use in caustic acids, alkalis, alcohols, lithium or heavy metals
What is the tx for ethylene glycol
Ethanol 10% in D5W, over 30min, then maintain blood alcohol at 100-150mg/dl
Electric injury: Which is more dangerous AC or DC
AC alternating current = tetanic skeletal muscle contraction prevents letting go of engergized source
Acids (toilet cleaner, drain, hydrocholric, sufuric, batter acid)
Sx, Tx
Sx: burns of oral mucosa, drooling, odynophagia, abd pain
Tx: Sucralfate 1g PO
-copiously wash mouth. DO NOT induce vomiting, lavage or administer charcoal
Alkalis: Sx, Tx
Sx: caustic-burns
Tx: dilution w/ water, DO NOT induce vomit, lavage. Ingest large amounts of waster or milk, avoid emesis
Anticholinergic exposure: Sx, Tx
Sx: flushing skin, vlurred vision or mydriasis, tachy mucous membrane
Tx: physostigmine, 0.5-2.0 IV or IM
Carbon Monoxide: Sx, Tx
Sx: HA, cherry lips, altered consciousness, coma
Tx: Oxygen, 100% hyperbaric chamber
Ethylene glycol: Sx, Tx
Sx: cough, dizziness, HA, abd pain, dullness, N/V
Tx: Ethanol, 10ml/kg of 10% ethanol solution over 30min
Isopropyl alcohol: Sx, Tx
Sx: Ethyl alcohol-like (ETOH-like) (altered consciouness, stupor, slurred speech) dizzy, GI, coma
Tx: lavage charcoal, no not vomit, lavage w/in 30min ingestion: may require dialysis
Methanol: Sx, Tx
Sx; cough, dizzy, HA, nausea, dry skin, redness
Tx: Ethanol: same as E. glycol
Petroleum products: Sx, Tx of ingestion
Sx: vomiting, chest or abd pain, cough, dyspnea, fever, arrhythmia, seizures, LOC
Tx: Prompt lavage, O2, ipecac in alert, intubate
Head Trauma: Glasgow coma:
Eye opening scoring
spontaneous 4
verbal: 3
pain: 2
no response: 1
Head trauma: Glasgow com:
Best motor response
obeys verbal: 6
localizes pain: 5
movement or w/drawl to pain: 4
flexion to pain (decort): 3
extension to pain (decerb) 2
no response: 1
Head Trauma: Glasgow Coma
Best Verbal:
A&O: 5
Converse but confused: 4
Nosense/inappropriate words: 3
nonspecific sounds: 2
No response: 1
What is the cascade effect of cerebral edema?
increased ICP=> decreased cerebral blood flow => cerebral ischemia
What diagnostics should be used on Head Injuries:
xray for cervical, CT for depressed or deteriorating LOC, LOC <5min, amnesia, GCS 12-14, depressed skull
What is the most important time after a head trauma?
following the initial stabilization: 24hrs after are the most important for cerebral swelling
What are steps would require a head injury to return to the hospital?
drowsiness difficult to awake, continuous nausea, vomiting more than twice, seizures, pupillary changes, weakness, severe HA, dizziness.
What is postparandial hypotension?
hypotension after meals (mostly in elderly due to rush of blood to abdomen)
What fluid challenge should you give someone w/ hypovomlemia
250-500ml of NS IV
What head elevation should there be in a person sleeping w/ hypotension?
10-20 degrees for sleep
Does cocaine interfere w/ reactivity of pupils?
no but antichoinergics causes unreactive pupils
What medications cause nystagmus?
alcohol, lithium, tergretol, meprobmate, primidone
What medication is given for APAP overdose?
N-acetylcysteine: 140mg/kg.
What medication is given for benzo overdose?
Flumazenil (0.2mg q 1min)
Sexual assault: definition
sexual act that is forced or coerced w/o consent of victim
What should you do if a patient has been sexually assaulted w/in the last 5 days?
defer physical exam and refer to ER if the patient wants to pursue legal action. If > 5d or no legal then manage in the office
What is the time limit to offer pregnancy or STD prophylactics:
72 hrs
What STD test should be performed on a sexual assault?
gonorrhea, chlamydia most prevelant. Test for HIV/AIDs cannot be doen until 3-6months due to seroconversion
What percent of sexual assault victims will have PTSD?
1/3rd
How are tilts performed:
lie, sit stand for 5 min each w/ BP and pulse: drop systolic by 20 , diastolic by 10 and increase pulse 20.
What is passive external rewarming:
placing patient i warm environment
What is active external rewarming:
hot blankets, hot packs, warm bodies, forced air rewarming
What medication is given or APAP overdose?
N-acetylcysteine: 140mg/kg.
What medication is given for benzo overdose?
Flumazenil (0.2mg q 1min)
Sexual assault: definition
sexual act that is forced or coerced w/o consent of victim
What should you do if a patient has been sexually assaulted w/in the last 5 days?
defer physical exam and refer to ER if the patient wants to pursue legal action. If > 5d or no legal then manage in the office
What is the time limit to offer pregnancy or STD prophylactics:
72 hrs
What STD test should be performed on a sexual assault?
gonorrhea, chlamydia most prevelant. Test for HIV/AIDs cannot be doen until 3-6months due to seroconversion
What percent of sexual assault victims will have PTSD?
1/3rd
How are tilts performed:
lie, sit stand for 5 min each w/ BP and pulse: drop systolic by 20 , diastolic by 10 and increase pulse 20.
What is passive external rewarming:
placing patient i warm environment
What is active external rewarming:
hot blankets, hot packs, warm bodies, forced air rewarming
What is core rewarming?
warem IV fluids, heated and humidified oxygen, body cavity lavage
What temperature of water should frostbite extremities be warmed?
98.6-104F: also give motrin, topical alovera to decrease inflammation, Tetanus, IV PNC: at 500kU
How long does it take to acclimate to warm climates:
7-14 days
How does Cushings develop?
ACTH-secreting tumors of the pituitary or small cell lung carcinomas which elevate Cortisol and ACTH levels.
What is a pheochromocytoma?
tumor of chromaffin cells, unilateral --> abnormal production of epi and norepi-->Na retention, reduced hydrostatic..
What is the exception to Addisons presentation of slow onset?
inadequate supplement of corticosteroids (chronic users of corticosteroids --> addisons)
Sx of Cushings:
sudden weight gain, loss of menses, decreased libido, depression bruising.
What diagnostic is critical upon the dx of Addision to r/o another disease?
chest xray to rule out TB
How is Cushings syndrome most accurately dx?
24hr excretion of cortisol in urine
What diagnostic confirms pheochromocytoma?
elevated catecholamines in 24hr urine
What sequal events may occur w/ Addisions?
eating disorders, alcoholism, malnutrition, HYPERTHYROID, diabtes, apathy, depression
What is the tx of chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addisions)?
oral hydrocortisone 20-30mg/d (consider mineralocorticoid replacement to correct renal and hypotension.
What is the first choice in managment of Cushings?
Pituitary tumor resection w/ chemo
What are complications of Cushings?
osteoporosis, hypertension, diabetes
DM 1 what is the the problem?
beta cell destruction and requires exogenous insulin
What is the Problem w/ DM2?
beta cell dysfunction and/or insulin defect
What causes fasting hyperglycemia?
increased hepatic glucose production in the impaired early stage of insulin secretion
What causes Postprandial hyperglycemia?
Decreased uptake of glucose from skeletal muscles
How often should a new or uncontrolled DM1 or DM2 be seen?
every 3 months, extended to 6 if well controlled
How often should a diabetic get an A1C?
ADA: twice a year at a minumum or every 3 months if glucose not controlled
How often should microalbumin be obtained in DM?
yearly after 5 yrs of DM1
Yearly after onset DM2
What is the definitive test to assess kidney function?
24hr creatinine clearance
What does the basal phase do in glycemic control?
Inhibits glycolisis and gluconeogenesis and maintains insulin steady state
What is morning hyperglycemia controlled by? basal or prandial insulin
Basal insulin
Why is Symlin used in diabetes?
it reduces amount of food consumed and slows gastric emptying. Injected before the meal
What are the recommended before meal glucose readings in DM?
70-120mg/dl
What are the postprandially glucose goals in diabetes?
<140mg/dl 2hr after meal
What is the recommended begining dose of insulin for DM1?
20u in morning before breakfast, if fasting of 250 then 5U before bedtime snack.
What medication mimics the effects of basal insulin?
Glargine 24hr long acting no peak
How often should insulin dose be adjusted and when can adjustment stop?
adjust every 3-4 days until fasting glucose is <110mg/dl; only increase by 2-8U if obese and 1-4 if thin
What is professional scope of practice?
Address role, function, population, practice setting. Serve as the initial source to define individual scope of practice (TBON)
What is the wording used when an APRN directs another nurse to a specific task? Delegating or assigning
APRN are only allowed to delegate assitive personnel they may assign another nurse
What is the process of receivign prescriptive authority for controlled substance?
TBON authority, TDPS registration, DEA registration number.
What level of controlled substance may an APRN provide?
schedule III, IV, V
What is the maximum period that a controlled substance may be prescribed for by an APRN?
30 days
Can an APRN refill a prescription?
Yes but only after consultation and documentation w/ a delegating physician. (TBON)
What is the minimum age a controlled substance may be prescribed by an APRN?
2y/o if younger then consultation is required w/ documentation
If tx migraines w/ abortive therapy what is the max time to use tylenol, NSAIDs?
2d/wk to prevent analgesic rebound: can make HA daily condition
What is the tx of urge incontinent (pharm)
Anticholinergic medicines help relax the muscles of the bladder. They include oxybutynin (Oxytrol, Ditropan), tolterodine (Detrol), darifenacin (Enablex), trospium (Sanctura), and solifenacin (Vesicare).
These are the most commonly used medications for urge incontinence. They are available in a once-a-day formula that makes dosing easy and effective.
The most common side effects of these medicines are dry mouth and constipation. People with narrow-angle glaucoma cannot use these medications.
Flavoxate (Urispas) is a drug that calms muscle spasms. However, studies have shown that it is not always effective at controlling symptoms of urge incontinence.
Tricyclic antidepressants (imipramine, doxepin) have also been used to treat urge incontinence because of their ability to "paralyze" the bladder smooth muscle
Addisons, Cushings, and Pheochromocytoma are disorders of what?
Adrenal Gland
What is Addison's disease?
chronic endocrine disorder in which the adrenal glands do not produce sufficient steroid hormones (glucocorticoids and often mineralocorticoids
What is the tx of addison's?
Life long replacement of steroids...hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone
What is found in Addison's Crisis?
snycope, hypoglycemia, leg pain, low B/P, lethargy, hypokalemia, fever, convulsion
Why and how long should you avoid alcohol when taking metronidazole (flagyl)?
24hrs: avoid disulfiram-type rxn (severe n/v)
What do you do if a pt fails tx on flagyl for trichomoniasis?
Retreat w/ flagyl 500mg
What antibiotics are used for acute prostatitis?
Septra and fluoroquinolones
(PNC and Cephlosporins can not be used because they cant penetrate the prostatic epithelium)
What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism
Graves disease: abnormal immune response -->thryoid produces too much thyroid hormone T4, T3
What are sx of B. pertussi?
paroxysmal cough lasting >2wks
What population is considered + TB at >5 induration?
HIV, Recent TB contact, CXR w/ fibrotic change, organ transplant, Immunosuppressed
What population is + TB w/ >10mm induration?
<5yr immigrant, IV drug, congregate setting, lab personnel, peds<4y/o, peds exposed to high risk
What population is + TB w/ >15mm induration?
Everyone
Tx of CAP w/ no comorbidity?
Macrolide: azithromycin, clarithromycin, erythromycin
Tx of CAP w/ comorbidity?
Respiratory fluoroquinolone (levofloxacin)
OR
advanced macrolide plus beta-lactam: Augmentin, Rocephin,
Alternative to macrolide: Doxy
How is Legionella for pneumonia spread?
inhalation of contaminated water
The most common pneumonia is Streptococcus pneum. What is it resistant too?
beta-lactams (PNC), Macrolides (emycin, clarithro, azithro), tetracyclines (doxy).
Known as drug-resistant S. pneum (DRSP)
What antibiotic should be used against DRSP (drug resistant S. Pneumonia)?
respiratory fluoroquinolones (levoflaxacine [levaquin])
What type of pneumonia organism is seen in alcoholics?
Klebsiella pneumonia
How do you know if a sputum sample is adequate for testing?
Few Epithelial cells w/ many WBC (epithelial will come from throat not lungs)
What medication may be given to latent TB if isoniazid is not tolerated? How long?
Rifampin (6-9m)
What is meant by long-term oxygen therapy in COPD?
>15hrs day w/ oxygen
If a person has a persistant cough that is controlled by a bronchodilator what is the dx?
asthma
Which environment is more likely to induce asthma sx. A warm humid space or a cold dry space?
Cold dry space
What are the three components of asthma dx?
1. episodic sx of airflow obstruction (wheeze)
2. evidence of at least partial reversible (improves w/ med)
3. excusion of other condistions
What diagnostic tool is essential in the dx of astham?
spirometry: Should be 80-100% expected:
Volume or speed/flow of air that can be inhaled and exhaled
How often should microalbuminuria be obtained in DM w/ neg protein?
Annually
When giving biguanide what should you monitor? CK, ALP, ALT, Cr
Cr-creatinine:
Secondary causes of hyperglycemia include all except?
niacine, corticosertoids, thiazide, angiotensin receptor blocker
Angiotensin receptor blocker
A1C provides info on glucose control over what period of time?
21-47d, 48-63d, 64-90d, 90-120d
90-120 d...or 3 months
If taking the following insulin at 8am what time would you expect the peak to occur?
1. Lispor, 2. Reg Insulin 3. NPH insulin, 4. Lantus
1. Lispor: 30m-1hr
2. Reg Insulin: 2-3hr
3. NPH Insulin: 4-6hr
4. Lantus: no peak (24hr coverage)
What do meglitinide minimize in type 2 DM
Pstparandial hyperglycemia
What is a common adverse effect of alpha-glucosidase inhibitor:
Gastrointestinal upset
What are steps to improve microalbuminuria?
1. improve glycemic control
2. strict dyslipidemia control
3. use ACE-I or ARBS
How often should A1C be checked in those w/ stable glycemic control?
twice a year (every 6m)
What is the mechanism of action of sitagliptin (Januvia)?
Increase incretin -->increase synthesis and release fo insulin from pancreatic beta cells.
What is the mechanism of action of sitagliptin (Januvia)?
Increase incretin -->increase synthesis and release fo insulin from pancreatic beta cells.
What is the mechanism of action for Byetta?
Stimulates insulin production in response to increase plasma glucose
What DM med should be avoided if hx fo gastroparesis?
exentaide (Byetta): mainly due to its S/E of n/v/d with regular use
What are recomended tx of HTN w/ type 2 dM?
Beta blockers, ACE-I, ARBS; NOT alpha blocker
What do expect to find when giving a fibrate?
increase HDL
What do you expect to find when giving niacin for lipids?
increase HDL
What do you expect to find when giving Zetia for lipids?
reduction in LDL
With Zetia (ezetimibe) what should routinely be monitored?
No need to monitor labs...little impact on liver or kidney
Which of the following man not causes statin-induced myositis?
advanced age, use of statin w/ resin, low body weight, high statin dose
Us of statin w/ resin is not a risk for myositis
Which of the following is most effective against lipidprotein?
1. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
2. Niacin
3. bile acid
4. fibrates
2. Niacin
What can untx hypothyroid lead to in lipid profile?
increased LDL, TC, and Trig
What should rigorous physical exercise do to lipid values?
increase HDL, Lower VLDL, Lower Triglycerides
What should you expect to see when giving fish oil?
decrease triglycerides
What should you expect to see when giving Plant stanol and sterold on lipid profile?
decrease LDL
How much eicosapentaenoic acid and doccosahexaenoic acid (omega-3) per day should you prescribe?
1G (preferably from fish oil)
Obestity is defined as BMI >
30kg/m2
When using orilstat (Alli) when should you take the medication?
w/in one hour of each meal w/ fat
What is responsible for satiety?
1. norepi
2. epi
3. dopamine
4. serotonin
Serotonin
What are adverse effects of sibutramine (Meridia)?
somnolence
Which med is associated w/ weight gain?
1. risperidone (Risperdal)
2. topiramate (topamax)
3. metformin
4. phentermine
Risperidone: tx schizo
If walking 8000-10000 steps/day what is the milage?
4-5miles
What medication is used to reduce craving for alcohol?
acamproste (Campral)
What medication is used to modify intoxicating effects of alcohol?
naltrexone (ReVia)
What medication results in unplesant adverse effects of alcohol?
anabuse
What happens to RBC in alcoholics and why?
become macrocytic due to reduction in folate
Define Acromegaly
Excessive growth hormone: excessive bone and soft tissue growth