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127 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the most useful laboratory tests to evaluate renal disease?
Those tests related to GFR
What is the best way to get a true GRF evaluation?
A 24hrs collection
Primary source of urea is in the ------?
Urea production occurs in the liver
What is ammonia the product of?
Ammonia is produced from deamination of amino acids (protein catabolism)
How does the body prevent accumulation of toxic ammonia levels?
By hepatic conversion of ammonia to urea.
HOW DOES END STAGE LIVER DISEASE AFFECT THE KIDNEYS?
END STAGE LIVER DISEASE LEADS TO END STAGE RENAL DISEASE
What is the correlation between BUN and protein catabolism?
There is a direct correlation.
BUN measures the amt of nitrogen in blood that comes from the waste product urea. Urea comes from protein catabolism.
How is BUN and GFR related?
They are inversely related
When is BUN not a reliable indicator of GFR?
When protein catabolism is abnormal and not constant
When is BUN lower than normal?
Starvation or liver disease
How does septicemia affect protein catabolism?
Septic pts do not have constant rate of protein catabolism
What is normal BUN
10-20mg/dL
What is creatinine?
The product of muscle metabolism
How is creatinine related to muscle catabolism and to GFR?
Positively r/t muscle catabolism, inversely r/t to GFR
True/false?
Creatinine is generally a reliable indicator of GFR
True
What is normal creatinine levels?
Males 0.8-1.3mg/dL
Females 0.6-1.0mg/dL
How does aging affect GFR
GFR declines with increasing age
How does aging affect creatine levels?
Serum creatinine remains relatively normal with increasing age
Normal BUN:creatinine ratio is ___?
~ 10:1
How does low renal tubular flow rates affect urea reabsorption & creatinine levels?
It enhances urea reabsorption but does not affect creatinine handling (as a result, the ratio increases > 10:1).
A decrease in tubular flow can be caused by ____ ?
Decreased renal perfusion or obstruction
BUN:Creatinine ratios greater than 15:1 are seen in ______?
Volume depletion, disorders associated with decreased tubular flow, obstructive uropathies (eg renal stones), and increases in protein catabolism (clogs up tube)
What is the most accurate method available for clinically assessing overall renal function (GFR)?
CREATININE CLEARANCE
Measurements of creatinine clearance are usually performed over _____ ?
24 hours
What is normal creatinine clearance?
110-150mL/min
What is the creatinine clearance in mild renal impairment?
40-60mL/min
What is the creatinine clearance in moderate renal dysfunction?
25-40mL/min
A creatinine clearance of <25mL/min is indicative of?
Overt renal failure
What is the purpose of a URINALYSIS?
It is useful in identifying some disorders of renal tubular dysfunction
What does urine osmolality measure?
Renal concentrating ability
What causes glycosuria?
It is the result of a low tubular threshold for glucose or hyperglycemia
How are the pharmokinetics of propofol affected when kidney function is altered?
The pharmokinetics are not
significantly affected
How are the pharmokinetics of etomidate affected when kidney function is altered?
The pharmokinetics are not
significantly affected
How are the pharmokinetics of barbituates affected when kidney function is altered?
Pts with renal disease often exhibit increased sensitivity to barbs during induction even though pharmokinetic profiles appear to be unchanged.
In the pt with RI, what is a possible explanation for increased circulating barbs?
Decrease protein binding
How does acidosis affect barbs?
It favors a more rapid entry in the brain by decreasing the nonionized fraction of the drug
How are the pharmokinetics of benzos affected when kidney function is altered?
Benzos undergo hepatic metabolism & conjugate prior to elimination in the urine.
B/c most are highly protein bound, increased sensitivity may be seen in pts with hypoalbuminemia
How are the pharmokinetics of morphine & demerol affected when kidney function is altered?
Morphine with active metabolite (morphine-6 gluconaride) & demerol have been known to have prolonged resp depression in pts with renal failure
How are the pharmokinetics of opioids affected when kidney function is altered?
With the exception of morphine & demerol, significant accumulation does not occur
How are opioids eliminated?
Most commonly used opioids are inactivated by the liver & some of their metabolites excreted in the urine
What are the effects of IAs on renal function?
IAs are nearly ideal for patients with renal dysfunction.
Enflurane and Sevoflurane have potential for fluoride accumulation.
Isoflurane can react with baralyme to form compound A.
With the pt with altered renal function, what lab value must be obtained before the use of succinycholine?
K level.
Succinycholine can increase K level by 1meQ.
What are the MRs of choice for pts with renal failure?
Atracurium and Cisatracurium –they are minimally dependent on the kidneys for elimination.
How is vecuronium eliminated?
Primarily hepatic but up to 20% of the drug is eliminated in the urine.
How does renal insufficiency affect vecuronium?
With large doses (>0.1mg/kg) effects only modestly prolonged.
How is Rocuronium metabolized?
Primarily by the liver but elimination is prolonged with RI.
How is Pancuronium metabolized & eliminated?
It is metabolized by the liver into less active intermediates but its elimination half life is 60-80% & is dependent on renal excretion.
How is renal failure classified?
According to predominant cause or on the basis of urine flow rates.
Causes are of prerenal, renal, or postrenal origins.
How is curare eliminated?
By renal and biliary excretion. 40-60% of a dose of curare is normally eliminated in the urine. Repeated does --> increasingly prolonged effects in pts with significant RI.
Atropine & renal impairment?
Can generally be safely given although some accumulation may occur since about 50% of Atropine and its active metabolite are normally excreted in the urine. Potential for accumulation exists following repeated doses.
Glycopyrrulate & renal impairment?
Can generally be safely given although some accumulation may occur since about 50% of Glycopyrrulate and its active metabolite are normally excreted in the urine. Potential for accumulation exists following repeated doses.
Scopolamine & renal impairment?
It is less dependent on renal excretion but its CNS effects can be enhanced by azotemia.
What is oliguric acute renal failure
UO < than 500 milliliters per day (< 16 oz/day)
What is nonoliguric renal failure?
UO > 500 ml/day (>16 oz/day)
What are the 3 types of renal failure classification according to urine flow rates?
Nonoliguric acute renal failure;
Oliguric acute renal failure;
Anuric renal failure.
True/false?
Prerenal and postrenal acute renal failure are reversible in initial stages
True
What are the causes of renal failure?
Renal ischemia
Nephrotoxins
Intrinsic renal disease
List 5 preoperative anesthetic management
strategies for ARF
Placement of urinary catheter;
Fluid challenge if urinary output decreases;
Renal dose dopamine as applicable;
Diuretic therapy associated with aggressive monitoring and intravascular volume expansion;
Prophylactic administration of mannitol, dopamine, or lasix.
What are the phases of the ARF?
Onset (initiation phase)
Oliguric phase
Diuretic phase
Recovery phase
After renal failure has been established, what are anesthetic management strategies?
Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balance;
Early use of hemodialysis during oliguric and diuretic phases
Progressive renal failure is divided into three stages, what are they?
Decreased renal reserve (pt will be coming in for AV shunts);
Renal insufficiency;
End-stage renal failure or uremia.
What are the major types of dialysis?
Hemodialysis
Peritoneal dialysis (can cause peritonitis easily)
What is azotemia
It is the retention of nitrogenous waste products resulting in deterioration of renal function.
Azotemia is classified according to cause. There are 3 types. What are they?
Prerenal, renal and post-renal
What causes prerenal azotemia?
Acute decrease in renal perfusion
What causes renal azotemia?
It is d/t intrinsic renal disease, renal ischemia, or nephrotoxins.
What causes postrenal azotemia?
Urinary tract obstruction or disruption.
What are the physiologic effects of dialytic therapy on the CNS?
It causes disequilibrium syndrome
What are the physiologic effects of dialytic therapy on the CV System?
Hypotension;
Anemia (RBCs break up b/c of the agitation from the HD machine which can --> hypoxemia).
What is the physiologic effect of dialytic therapy on the resp system?
Hypoxemia
In the preop management of chronic renal failure (CRF), what are the lab values that should be obtained?
Creatinine clearance
BUN
Serum creatinine
Urinalysis
CBC
Coags
With the CRF pt who gets HD, sometimes the serum coag levels are normal but the pt may still have a coagulopathic problem. Explain.
Plts may be damaged during HD and the value may look normal but all the plts are not functioning well.
We still need baseline coags to evaluate what's going on with pt.
What are the CV alterations in advance renal disease?
HTN
CHF
What are the hematological changes in advance renal disease?
Anemia
Prolonged bleeding time (from plts in suboptimum condition)
What are the GI effects in advance renal disease?
Increased risk of GIB
What are the neurologic effects of advance renal disease?
Symptoms parallel degree of azotemia
Seizures may be associated with hypertensive encephalopathy
What are the endocrine abnormalities associated with advance renal disease?
Hyperparathyroidism
Adrenal insufficiency
What are the repiratory effects associated with advance renal disease?
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary congestion and edema
What are the electrolyte abnormalities associated with advance renal disease?
Altered sodium, calcium, potassium & magnesium levels. It causes acidosis
Replacement of CaCl needs to be slow pushed. Why?
Fast push can cause sustained bradycardia & hypotension
What is the periop management of the CRF pt with hyperkalemia?
If possible dialyzed.
If not possible, infuse glucose & give insulin and Bicarb
What % of most anesthetic practices does urologic procedures account for?
10-20%
What is the age group of the pts who most often have urologic procedures?
Patients may be of any age, yet most are elderly and have many coexisting illnesses, especially renal dysfunction
What is the pt's positioning for cystoscopy?
Lithotomy
What surgical approach is used for cystoscopy?
The scope is inserted thru the urethra up to the bladder to visualize the ureters
How long does a cystoscopy alone take?
10-15 mins long.
(just use MAC & lidocaine jelly, sml propofol gtt)
For cystoscopy procedure, if procedure is longer than 15mins and GA is being used, can the LMA be used?
Yes. If pre-operative evaluation permits.
If >2hrs place an ETT and use PP ventilation.
If spinal anesthesia is being used for a cystoscopic procedure, when would we not use lidocaine?
If the procedure will be longer than 3hrs
What is the most common major complications associated with TURP?
TURP Syndrome - systemic absorption of bladder irrigant
During bladder irriagtion, what is the major complication of disproportionate flow in and out of bladder?
Rupture of Bladder
What occurs if TURP is complicated by DIC?
Thromboplastins from prostate can enter the blood stream.
What is a possible major complications of TURP (used to tx cancerous tumors)?
The tumor may release fibrinolytic enzymes into the blood --> coagulopathy
If TURP syndrome occurs, does it happen intraop or postop?
TURP Syndrome
can occur intraoperatively and postoperatively.
What are symptoms of TURP syndrome in the awake pt?
H/A, restlessness, confusion & seizures (from hyponatremia and water intoxication), cyanosis, dyspnea, arrythmias, and hypotension.
What are symptoms of TURP syndrome in the sleeping pt?
Hypo-osmolality, fluid overload (CHF, Pulmonary Edema), Hemolysis
Treatment of TURP Syndrome includes?
Early recognition and treatment of symptoms;
Supportive care to avoid hypoxemia and hypoperfusion;
Water restriction (for a few days) and loop diuretic to remove excess fluid;
Hypertonic saline to tx symptomatic hyponatremia which could lead to seizures or coma.
How fast should 3% saline be given?
To avoid circulatory overload, 3% NaCl should not be given faster than 100 ml/hr
What is EXTRACORPOREAL SHOCK WAVE LITHOTRIPSY (ESWL)?
Shock waves are used to break apart a kidney stone to allow for passage through the urethra
How does older and newer ESWL machines differ?
Older machines use a submersion tank with water to conduct shockwaves into the body while newer machines use gel pads to conduct shockwaves into the body.
How does ESWL affect pts with heart disease & implantable devices (like pacemakers or AICDs)
ESWL can cause arrythmias.
For pts with pacemakers, how is the ESWL device timed in relationship to the pacemaker?
It is timed with the HR so machine does not throw pt into arrhythmias.
Regarding ESWL, what should be done for pts with chronic AFib prior to the procedures?
The pacer/AICD may have to be turned off since the machine only fires with the EKG phases of the pacemaker, control of the HR to allow for better results is essential. For pts with chronic afib, etc, this may be diificult. Make sure the machine is turned back on post-op.
When the immersion method of ESWL is used, how does it affect blood pressure?
Immersion in a hot water bath can initially lead to vasodilation and hypotension.
When the immersion method of ESWL is used, how does it affect cardiac output?
The compression of the peripheral vasculature by the pressure of the water can lead to increase in venous return which will cause increase in SVR, decrease in CO.
Increase in blood in the central compartment will lead to exacerbation of CHF
When the immersion method of ESWL is used, how does it affect FRC?
ESWL --> increased intra-thoracic blood volume which reduces FRC by 30-60% and predisposes patients to hypoxemia
When regional anesthesia is chosen for ESWL, which is the better choice - spinal or epidural?
Epidural is preferred – it allows for re-dosing during a longer procedure
True/false?
ESWL can damage the internal components of the pacemaker & AICD
True
Which wave of the ECG is the ESWL synchronized to?
The R-wave
How many seconds after the R-wave is the ESWL timed?
20ms (to correspond with the ventricular refractory period).
True/false?
Studies show that asynchronous delivery of ESWL is dangerous in pts w/o heart disease
False
Continuous epidural anesthesia is commonly used for ESWL using emmersion. What level epidural placement ensures adequate anesthesia?
T6. Renal iinervation is derived from T10 to L2
If a large amt of air gets into the ESWL epidural, what effect will it have?
It dissipate the shock waves and theoretically may promote injury to neural tissue
Large amounts of hydration fluid are required during ESWL, why?
To ensure adequate urinary production and flow to remove debris from kidney stone
(Lasix can be given in conjunction with fluid to increase urinary output)
As part of fluid management in normavolemic pts during ESWL, a unit or two of blood can be taken out of the pt & kept on a rotator. What do we replace this with and what do we do with the blood after completion of ESWL?
We replace it with crystalloids & after the procedure,give the blood back.
Radical prostatectomy is___?
Removal of the prostate, usually due to cancer
As part of intraop consideration for radical prostatectomy, what is the expected blood loss?
It is usually a large blood loss (300-500 ml) due to the vascular nature of the prostate and the approach to remove the prostate.
During radical prostatectomy, the neck of the bladder is removed. What effects does this have I/O mngmnt?
This leads to loss of urine output from the catheter.
How is indigo carmine or methylene blue used in radical prostatectomy?
Indigo carmine or methylene blue may be used to help identify the ureters during the resection.
An epidural can be used in a radical prostatectomy, what consideration must be made regarding sedation?
It will require large amounts of sedation.
How does GA compare to regional anesthesia for radical prostatectomy ?
GA allows for better control of the airway in a trendelengberg position.
Spinals are not to be used b/c the anesthesia duration is not long enough.
During radical cystectomy, why is accurate measurement of UO not possible?
The bladder will be removed. (and construction of urinary pouch is necessary).
During radical cystectomy, how is urinary diversion created?
Urinary diversion involves placement of ureters into a segment of the bowel which is connected to a stoma formed in the abdomen for placement of a catheter post operatively
What is the preferred mode of anesthesia during radical cystectomy?
GA is the preferred technique (b/c of the large incision from the pubis to the xiphoid process)
In the radical cystectomy, an epidural can be placed to be used in conjunction with the GA. What complications can accompany this?
The epidural will cause unopposed parasympathetic control of the bowel causing a contracted bowel making creation of a pouch for urinary diversion difficult.
Glucagon 1 mg IV will help to counteract this effect if it becomes a problem for the surgeon.
What are the intraop fluid considerations regarding Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection?
An extremely large incision is made to remove all the lymph tissue (from the ureters and the renal vessels to the iliac bifurcation).
The large incision will lead to increases in fluid requirements (there is large third spacing of fluids)
Regarding Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection, how is mannitol used to help manage perfusion?
Mannitol may be given to increase urinary blood flow and urine production during resection.
Regarding Retroperitoneal Lymph Node Dissection, what pts are at highest risk of oxygen toxicity and pulmonary complications?
Patients who have been on chemotherapy prior to surgery.
Avoid high FiO2 & get thorough h/o any prior anesthetic complications. (Bleomycin may cause the most damage to lungs).