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145 Cards in this Set

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What is sexuality?

The term “sexuality” does not simply refer to whether a person is a male or a female, nor does it relate solely to sexual activity. Sexuality is intrinsic and influences every aspect of a person’s life. It begins at conception, when the sex of the fetus is determined; develops through childhood as the person learns to relate to the world; and continues until death. Sexuality influences a person’s choice of partners, careers, friends, and interests, as well as his or her self-perception and the perception of the person by others. Gender identity and sex roles are part of this ongoing process.
List 2 componets of the womans reproductive cycle, describe each.
The female reproductive cycle consists of the ovarian cycle and the menstrual cycle. The ovarian cycle refers to the rhythmic, cyclical changes in the ovaries. In each cycle, only one follicle from approximately forty thousand matures into a graafian follicle and ruptures to liberate the ovum inside. The menstrual cycle refers to the cyclical, physiological uterine bleeding that normally recurs, usually at approximately four-week intervals, in the absence of pregnancy during the reproductive period of the female.
Describe "Climateric" and list the implications for this event in women.
The term “climacteric” refers to the period of time that marks the cessation of a woman’s reproductive function. It is also known as the “change of life” or menopause. During this period, gonadal activity slows and ultimately stops altogether, resulting in physical and psychological changes.
What has research shown on sexuality in adults?
Research has disproved the belief that older adults are not capable of or interested in sex. Older individuals can and do enjoy the pleasures of sexual foreplay and intercourse. The general pattern of sexual behavior is fairly consistent throughout life. Individuals who have enjoyed an active sex life during young adulthood and middle age continue to do so through their older years, although some changes do occur in the sexual response cycle.
List at least 3 factors for STI's?
The risk factors for STIs are as follows:
A sexual partner already infected with an STI
More than one sexual partner
Sexual activity during adolescence
Illicit drug use and homelessness, which can lead to prostitution, which in turn influences a wide transmission of STIs
Oral and anal sexual practices, which expose one to a potentially greater bacterial and viral load of organisms
What types of occurences can result in altered sexual activity?
Alterations in sexual activity can occur for numerous physical and psychological reasons. For instance, clients who experience an altered body image due to injury or disease can experience alterations in sexuality and sexual functions. Normal aging can also result in alterations that have an impact on sexuality. For women, physiological age-related changes can result in vaginal dryness and decreased elasticity of tissues that result in painful intercourse. For men, physiological changes can result in slower arousal, fewer spontaneous erections, premature ejaculation, and lessened orgasmic intensity.
Explain cultural influences on sexuality, and provide some examples.
Culture defines, evaluates, and regulates a person’s sexuality. Examples of this include the ways people dress, rules about marriage, expectations of role behaviors, social responsibilities, and specific sex practices. Specific sex practices include body beautification (e.g., tattoos or makeup), puberty rites (e.g., circumcision), and in some cultures, female genital mutilation (FGM).
Describe 2 mechanisms which medications alter libido.
Libido and sexual response may be affected by drugs that alter the way the sex centers of the brain function or that act on the peripheral nerves or blood vessels of the genitalia.
What risk factors are associated with high teen birth rates?
The risk factors most closely associated with high teen birth rates appear to be poverty, low educational achievement, poor self-esteem, family dysfunction, and high-risk behaviors in general. Programs that address these societal problems, as well as pregnancy and STI prevention, have a greater chance of succeeding at curbing the teen birth rate.
Identify clients who are considered at high risk for sexual related problems.
At-risk clients for sexual-related problems include persons who have been victims of sexual, physical, or psychological abuse, persons who have been disfigured, persons taking medications that decrease sexual drive, persons with an altered body image, and persons with a temporary or long-term physical disability.
Name 2 NANDA diagnoses specifically related to sexuality.
Two NANDA diagnoses specifically related to sexuality are altered sexual pattern (client expresses concern regarding sexuality) and sexual dysfunction (client expresses a change in sexual functioning.
List examples of legal and ethical implications that need to be considered when providing rationales for nursing interventions duting the planning phase.
Examples of legal and ethical implications that must be considered when providing rationales for nursing interventions during the planning phase include access to birth control for adolescents, sexual education in schools, access to rape counseling, reportable incidents, and pregnancy termination rights.
Identify some main reasons for performing a physical examination when assessing a clients sexuality.
A physical examination should be performed if a client is requesting birth control or needs a Pap smear, if pregnancy or a sexually transmitted disease is suspected, or if the patient reports vaginal or penile discharge, the presence of lumps, or changes in the color, size, or shape of the genitals.
If a client wans to get pregnant what activities should she avoid?
A woman who is trying to conceive should avoid drinking, smoking, being exposed to secondhand smoke, and illicit drug use, and she should check that her over-the-counter and prescription medications are safe to take.
If a client wans to get pregnant what activities should be encouraged?
A woman who is trying to conceive should be encouraged to exercise, get proper nutrition, have a thorough physical exam, take prenatal vitamins, participate in genetic counseling if warranted, and receive proper medical care.
What are the 3 areas of assessment in preconception period?
The three primary areas for assessment during the preconception period are patient health history, risk assessment, and family history.
What are the factors that put the couple at risk when attempting to concieve or become pregnant.
The factors that could play a negative role in conception or achieving a successful pregnancy are age, genetic factors, lack of up-to-date immunizations, infertility, history of recurrent miscarriages, and sexually transmitted diseases.
List 2 NANDA diagnoses specifically r/t preconception period.
NANDA diagnoses specifically related to the preconception period include the following:
Readiness for enhanced decision making: A pattern of choosing courses of action that is sufficient for meeting short- and long-term health-related goals and that can be strengthened
Health-seeking behaviors: Active seeking (by a person in stable health) of ways to alter personal health habits and/or the environment in order to move toward a higher level of health
If the goals of the nursing process were not met during the preconception period, what is the next step for the health care team?
Whether the knowledge deficit was overcome
Whether the client and her partner were properly tested for infertility
Whether the client and her partner understood the health care plan
Whether the health care plan was compatible with the client’s lifestyle and religious and cultural beliefs
Whether the client and her partner were truly ready to have a child
Describe various methods to determine EDB (estimated date of birth)
Nagel’s rule is a method of determining the estimated date of birth (EDB) by obtaining the date of the first day of the mother’s last menstrual period, adding one year, subtracting three months, and adding seven days. McDonald’s method involves measuring the fundal height, or the distance in centimeters from the top of the symphysis pubis to the top of the uterine fundus. Between twenty-two and thirty-four weeks gestation, the difference in centimeters correlates with the number of weeks of gestation. Another method to validate the EDB is the date when quickening occurred; this usually takes place by twenty weeks gestation. The fetal heart rate (FHR) can also help determine the EDB. The FHR can typically be auscultated with an ultrasonic Doppler device by ten to twelve weeks gestation. Finally, fetal measurements obtained by ultrasound can also be used to determine the EDB. Typically, crown to rump measurements are used during the first trimester, and biparietal diameter and femur length are used later in pregnancy.
What is the recommended schedule for prenatal visit?
For normal, noncomplicated pregnancies, prenatal care should be scheduled every four weeks during the first twenty-eight weeks of gestation, every two weeks until thirty-six weeks of gestation, and weekly after thirty-six weeks until childbirth.
what areas should be assessed when taking an OB Hx.
Areas for assessment during the obstetrical history include the mother’s current pregnancy, past pregnancies, gynecological history, current medical history, past medical history, family medical history, religious and cultural history, occupational history, partner’s history, and personal information.
List danger signs of pregnancy about which the nurse should educate the client.
Danger signs of pregnancy include vaginal bleeding; intense, persistent, or unusual abdominal pain; temperature above 101°F and chills; a sudden gush of fluid from the vagina before thirty-seven weeks gestation; visual changes such as blurred vision, double vision, or seeing spots before the eyes; persistent or unusual headache; persistent vomiting; epigastric pain; decreased urine output; pain with urination; and decreased or absent fetal movement.
Identify sample nursing diagnoses r/t the expectant mother that may be established during the anaolysis phase of the nursing process.
Nursing diagnoses related to the expectant mother that may be established during the analysis phase include impaired comfort, anxiety, ineffective health maintenance, constipation, fatigue, nausea, altered nutrition, and altered sexuality patterns.
Describe fetal nursing assessment
During assessment of the fetus, the nurse gathers data and assesses factors that affect fetal growth and development. The assessment phase also includes evaluation of diagnostic test results. Fundal height and fetal heart rate are assessed, as well as fetal movement. In the first trimester, viability and gestational age are established. A quantitative beta HCG test is done, and ultrasound confirmation will show the presence of a viable fetus at about four to five weeks gestation. In the second trimester, presence of cardiac activity, fetal number, fetal presentation, and fetal anatomy are identified via ultrasound. The amniotic fluid volume is also calculated. In the third trimester, the fetal assessment techniques become more sophisticated as fetal viability increases.
Describe the analysis phase of the nursing process as it relates to the fetus.
During the analysis phase of the nursing process, the nurse works in collaboration with the patient and other members of the health care team to synthesize data collected during assessment. Actual and potential health problems for the fetus are identified, and nursing diagnoses are noted. Goals and priorities are set based on the nursing diagnoses. Priorities are established with the mother and generally based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. A thorough assessment and analysis requires critical thinking to develop a plan that prevents problems and resolves existing conditions. Cultural variations and the availability of resources should always be considered when developing a diagnosis.
Bradley method:
A birthing method that focuses on natural childbirth, participation of the significant other, appropriate nutrition, and breast-feeding immediately after delivery; this method uses breathing techniques and general body relaxation in order to maintain harmony.
caput succedaneum:
Scalp edema and bruising.
dystocia:
Difficult labor.
effleurage:
Light stroking over the abdomen with the tips of the fingers to relieve mild to moderate pain during labor.
early (Type I) decelerations:
Fetal heart rate decelerations that occur in response to head compression; these decelerations begin and end when a contraction begins and ends.
fetal attitude:
The relation of the fetal parts to one another.
fetal presentation:
The portion of the fetus that is nearest to the cervical os.
fetal endocrine theory:
A theory that states that a hormone is released from the fetal brain that triggers the onset of uterine contractions.
fetal lie:
The relation of the long axis of the fetus to that of the mother.
fetal position:
The position of a fetus’s presenting part in relation to the four quadrants of the mother’s pelvis.
fetal malpositions:
Any fetal position other than occiput anterior.
late (Type II) decelerations:
Fetal heart rate decelerations that start when a contraction is at its height, peak when the contraction is almost over, and do not return to baseline until well after the contraction has ended; these decelerations are caused by insufficient blood flow to the placenta.
Kitzinger method:
A method that promotes home births for women who are not considered to be high risk; with this method, sensory memory is used to assist the woman to work with her body to prepare for birth.
hypotonic uterine dysfunction:
Uterine contractions that are too weak or too far apart to be effective.
latent phase:
The first of three phases during the initial stage of labor, which begins with the onset of regular contractions.
HypnoBirthing method:
A birthing method that focuses on achieving a relaxed state in which the body will release endorphins that naturally reduce pain.
lightening:
The phenomenon in which a fetus begins to settle into its mother’s pelvis, causing the woman to experience ease of breathing, increased pelvic pressure, increased urinary frequency, and increased vaginal secretions.
primary uterine inertia:
Difficult labor due to failure of cervical dilation or hypotonic uterine dysfunction.
progressive relaxation:
A relaxation technique that involves tensing and relaxing one muscle group at a time.
prolapsed cord:
A condition in which the umbilical cord precedes the fetal presenting part, causing cord compression and obstruction of the vessels carrying blood to and from the fetus.
premature rupture of membranes (PROM):
Rupture of the amniotic sac before the onset of labor.
placenta accreta:
A condition in which the chorionic villi attach directly to the muscular wall of the uterus.
prostaglandin theory:
A theory that states that increased secretion of prostaglandins helps trigger labor.
spontaneous vertex birth:
A birth in which the infant’s head distends the vulva with each contraction, the perineum becomes thin, and the anus stretches and protrudes; after the baby’s head is born, a gentle push by the mother aids in the birth of the shoulders, and the body then follows.
rule of 60s:
A rule of thumb for determining ominous cord compression, in which severe fetal heart rate decelerations are defined as drops to 60 beats per minute, decelerations lasting longer than 60 seconds, or drops to 60 beats below baseline.
Identify 6 nursing diagnoses that may be appropriate for a child with Coranary Heart Disease
The following nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for a child with CHD:
Decreased cardiac output related to impaired myocardial functioning
Ineffective breathing pattern related to excess fluid in the lungs
Activity intolerance related to impaired tissue oxygenation and inability to meet the energy demands of the body
Altered nutrition less than body requirements related to fatigue and respiratory difficulties
Fear related to lack of knowledge about diagnosis and surgical repair of defect
Altered family processes related to the child experiencing a life-threatening illness
Nonbacterial Prostititis S/S
perineal pain and dysuria
Bacterial Prostatitis S/S
Urinary frequency and green yellow urethral discharge
Inderal and Minipres both alfa andrenergic blocking agents may cause?
Impotence
The gland thart controls onset of secondary sex characteristics in men?
Anterior Pituitary (Master Gland)
Important counseling for a parent of a 13 y/o cognitively difunctional teenage girl about sexuality responibility is?
Teen is likley to achive normal physical maturity but may lack ability to make complex judgment calls.
Gravida
Para
TPAL
Gravida-# times Pregnant
Para-Viable births >20 weeks
T-#Term Births
P-# Pre-term births
A-# Abortions
L-# Living Births
An important goal for a mother in her 2nd Trimester?
Describe changes that are happening and plans for the future.
What shoud a nurse teach a patient with Pre-eclamsia?
Eat a moderate to high protien diet to replenish protien lost in urine and prevent dietary deficiency.
What is important teaching with a patient who is pregnant who suffers from Hemophillia?
Pt may need Factor VIII Replacement during delivery
What is L/S Ratio?
Lecithin/Sphingomylin ratio
What L/S Ratio would indicate fetal lung maturity?
2:1
A Diet that would be beneficial in preventing neural tubal defects?
liver, asparugus and orange juice

(organ meats, green leafy veggies and OJ contain Folic Acid)
A sign that B-mimetics (brethine) should not be given to a pt in premature labor:
Maternal Pulse rate of 145 bmp (can cause arrythmias, tachy, palpitations or ischemia)
During Fetal heart the nurse notices variable decelerations patter what is the priority?
Turn patient to left side to relieve pressure off the umbilical cord
A woman is admitted in active labor; what lab is will require immediate intervention for the neonate
Hep B surface antigen positive
Why is it important to monitor fetal heart rate after an amniotony?
prolapsed cord
Oxytocin drips should be _________ after 5-cm of dialation?
Decreased gradually
Nasal flaring, Chest retractions and experatory grunts on a newborn__________?
Require Immediate action by the nurse
Why are infants of mothers with Type 1 Diabetes mellitus at risk for macrosomia (a newborn with an excessive birth weight)
fetal hyperinsulinism and hyperglycemia
Correct administration of phytonaniode(AQUAMephyton) to a newborn requires qhat nursing intervention?
Give 1mg within 1 hour of birth
A mothers need for insulin after delivery_____________?
maintains the same
What is potential complication of a neonate with high levels of unconjugated bilirubin?
Liver Damage
To help decrease engorgment to a breast feeding mother ___________?
Encourage Breat pump use.
A sign supporting nonbacterial prostatitis:
perineal pain and dysuria
A sign supporting bacterial prostatitis:
urine frequenct and green-yellow discharge
Which gland controls the onset of secondary sex characteristics in males?
Anterior Pituitary(Master Gland)
Diaghpram:
Can be left in p0lace for 6 hours
Requires spremacide application after each new intercourse session
What amino acid is this?
Valine (V)
Gravida
Para
TPAL
Gravida=# times pregnant
Para=indicates the number of viable (>20 wks) births
T-#Term Births
P-#Premature
A-#Abortions
L-#Living
2 hours after delivery, patient is concerned that she is bleeding through 2 perineal pads q1 hour... what is your best response.
Some woman bleed twice as much, and it is still within acceptable norms
What is APGAR
A score is given for each sign at one minute and five minutes after the birth. If there are problems with the baby an additional score is given at 10 minutes. A score of 7-10 is considered normal, while 4-7 might require some resuscitative measures, and a baby with apgars of 3 and below requires immediate resuscitation.
Which clinical manifestation in an adolescant with cysitc fibrosiscasue the greatest disrutpion of attaining of Eriksons stage of Identity vs. Role Confusion?
Chronic Cough-
pt will have a hard time fitting in and being accepted by adoloscant peers
Common finding when taking a history in a child with congenitive heart disease?
Poor feeding pattern due to the increase needs for calories and tiring way too easily during feeds.
The nurse administers Indocin to a neonate with ductus arteriosus, what side effect should the nurse assess for?
Oliguria- decreased urine output suggest urine retention, which is not a good finding with a patient with ductus arteriosus.
What is Hirschsprung's disease?
Hirschsprung's disease is a condition that affects the large intestine (colon) and causes problems with passing stool. It's present when a baby is born (congenital) and results from missing nerve cells in the muscles of a portion of the baby's colon.
What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an inherited disorder that involves rapidly-worsening muscle weakness
What are S/S of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
Fatigue
Mental retardation (possible, but does not worsen over time)
Muscle weakness
Begins in the legs and pelvis, but also occurs less severely in the arms, neck, and other areas of the body
Difficulty with motor skills (running, hopping, jumping)
Frequent falls
Rapidly worsening weakness
Progressive difficulty walking
Ability to walk may be lost by age 12
What information is important when talking with parents about sexuality and reproduction in a child with mental retardation?
Legally parents wishes about contreception and reproduction are followed
What is a VENTRICULO-PERITONEAL SHUNT (VP SHUNT) Used to treat
Hydrocephalus-

The Ventriculo-Peritoneal (VP) shunt is small tubing that is placed inside the brain’s ventricle and tunneled underneath the skin to the peritoneum. The peritoneum is a membrane that lines and protects the abdominal cavity and its contents. The purpose of the VP shunt is to reduce the amount of cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) in the brain by draining it into the abdominal (peritoneal) space. The shunt tubing does not come into direct contact with the stomach or other organs. The peritoneum is the usual, safe site to place the end of the ventricular shunt. However, certain circumstances may require placing the end of the shunt tubing into a blood vessel leading to the heart (Ventriclo-Vascular or Atrial, VA) or into the pleural space of the chest (Ventriculo-Pleural, VP).
A child with a VP Shunt may have what kind of long term condition?
Decreased mental and physical conditions.
What family history is importnant facotr in determing a diagnosis of Tay-Sachs Syndrome?
The family is of Ashkanazi Jewish Descent
what is Tay-Sachs Syndrome?
Tay-Sachs disease is a health condition in which harmful quantities of a fatty substance called ganglioside GM2 build up in tissues and nerve cells in the brain.
What are some symptoms of Tay-Sachs Syndrome?
As a result, the child becomes blind, deaf, and unable to swallow. Muscles start to atrophy and paralysis sets in. Other neurological conditions that may follow include dementia, seizures, and an increased startle reflex to noise.

Children with Tay-Sachs disease usually die by age 4, from recurring infection even if they receive best care.
What drug in contraindicated in a child suffering from hemophillia; bc it inhibits platlet function?

A)Solumedrol
B)Indocin
C)Ibuprofen
D)Amicar
Indocin-inhibits platlet function and kidney fuinction

Ibuprofen can be used; just with caution to relive pain.
Alfa-fetoprotien test is used to screen what abnormality?
chromosonal damage
What may put a woman at risk for the development of cervical cancer the most?

A)Late begining of meses
B)Hx of vaginal Cancer in mother
C)Mother took DES (diethylstilbestrol) during her pregnancy
D)hx of bein gon oral contraceptives for 10 years
C)Mother took DES (diethylstilbestrol) during her pregnancy
TSE (testicuolar Self Exams) are:
-Best done standing or sitting
-Perfromed once a month
-best performed during warm shower, when scrotum is relaxed
-roll testicles between thumb and finger
60 y/o patient 1 year postmenapausal NOT recieving HRT (hormone replacemtn therapy) c/o sudden intense vaginal bleeding.. what is the best response by the nurse?
Bleeding one year after menapause may signify a problem and needs to be brought to your doctors attention immediatey
A woman who is postmenapausal and taking cyclic hormone replacment therapybe instructed to do BSE how?
any day of the month, as long as it is on the same day
What normal age related change places an older woman at risk for Gardenella?
Rising levels of vaginal PH
A woman is performing BSE; what finding should be reported to doctor immediatley?
retracting nipples, skin dimpling or creasing are abnormal findings
What action is included in a teaching plan to a 42 y/o woman whose mother and sister have both had breast cancer?
get tested for brca mutation.
pt with BRCA-1 or BRCA-2 have a 50%-90% chance of developing breast cancer.

Q2 year mammogram is a recommended test or everyone;
When teaching a teenage girl about prevention of vulvitis you should advise______________________?
Wear pantyhose with cotton crotch, to keep perineum area dry
what is varicocelectomy?
the most common operation performed for male infertility
When teaching a teenage girl about prevention of vulvitis you should advise______________________?
Wear pantyhose with cotton crotch, to keep perineum area dry
what is varicocelectomy?
the most common operation performed for male infertility
A question to ask a 17 year old girl who has just been diagnosed with HPV?
HPV is a high risk for Cervical cancer... smoking adds to this risk.
A woman with genital herpes type 2 should have a pap smear_________ ?
Annually
Important pt history for a woman who is considering oral contraceptives is?
Elevated Liver Functions test- Side effects of oral contraceptives increase with increase liver functions
First sign of sexual maturation n girls is?
breast buds
What instruction is priority when teaching a pt taking oral contraceptives and ABO for a UTI?
use another method of contraceptives along with the pill; bc ABO may decrease the effects of the pill
Important pt history for a woman who is considering oral contraceptives is?
Elevated Liver Functions test- Side effects of oral contraceptives increase with increase liver functions
First sign of sexual maturation n girls is?
breast buds
Important pt history for a woman who is considering oral contraceptives is?
Elevated Liver Functions test- Side effects of oral contraceptives increase with increase liver functions
What instruction is priority when teaching a pt taking oral contraceptives and ABO for a UTI?
use another method of contraceptives along with the pill; bc ABO may decrease the effects of the pill
First sign of sexual maturation n girls is?
breast buds
What instruction is priority when teaching a pt taking oral contraceptives and ABO for a UTI?
use another method of contraceptives along with the pill; bc ABO may decrease the effects of the pill
Best time to give the Rubella Vaccine to a mother who just became pregnant is?
Post Partal Period
What does the Reactive NST (Nontress Test) Provide
fetal central and autonomic nervous system are intact and oxygenated
Recomended weight gain for a normal BMI woman is?
25-35lbs
What is meant by station?
relationship between presenting parts and ischeal spines.
what fetal presentation is more common?
Vertex
A multipara 8cm dialted woman has begun to push with each contraction, what is the nurses action?
Encourage to pant and blow during contractions; studies show that breathing and vocalization shorten the 2nd stage of labor.
A patient calls the nurse to inform her that he membranes have ruptured, what question would the nurse ask first?
Do you feel fetal movements
A mother in labor c/o lightheadedness and lips feel tingly; what is the nurse best response?
Have pt cup her hands over her mouth and breath; she s most likely experiencing hyperoxygenation to to breathing and may need to increase C02 Intake.
During the assessment of a term newborn male bay you find no rugae on the scrotum, this would be?
lack of rugae is normal for a preterm baby, this should be cause for concern in a Term baby
What immunization is recommended for infants less than 6 weeks old?,
Hep B
A neonate is born to a mother who has untreated chlamydia, what is the baby at risk for?
5%-20% of infants born to mothers with untreated chlamydia may develop pneumonia 3 months after birth.
Best time to collect blood from an infant to test for PKU is?
After 72 hours of birth;least likely to produce errors
what breathing pattern and heart rhythm is characteristic for a newborn?
Abdominal breathing and sinus arrythmias
what assessment of a planned discharge of a mothers urine, 14 hours post partum may delay discharge?
urine output should increase within the first 24 hours, so it should not be concentrated. a high urine specfic gravity would indicate dehydration or bleeding.
what instructions would you give to parents of a new born about umbilical cord care?
clean cord with alcohol after each diaper change
when caring for a patient with hemophilia, the nurse understand what about genetic inheritance pattern of the disease?
it is a sex linked recessive trait carried from asymptomatic females to male offspring
what instructions should parents know about caring for a child with galactosemia?
Avoid milk products, even breast milk.
Why is ultrasound screeing for congenital anomilies most effective at 18-20 weeks gestation?
fetal structures have completed development and are easiky visible
What findings are seen in both cystic fibrosis and celiac disease?
Abdominal Distention, which reflects malnutrition of nutrients.
RIb hump and flank asymmetry are classic indicators of ?
scoliosis
3 week infant brought to ER, with , one of the parents has hx of pyloric stenosis as a baby, what other physical finding would you see?
palpable olive shaped epigastric mass
Which findings would you expect for a 10 y/o child with spastic cerebral palsy
poor balance skills with pronounced startle reflex
what finding on a physical assessment would most indicative for a baby with developmental hip dyplasia?
limited abduction of the effected hip
post op care for decreasing discomfort for a vasectomy?
apply ice to scrotum for a few hours
which activity prevents toxic shock symdrome?
using sanitary napkins at night
Hormone Replacement Therapy is contraindicated in women with what medical history?
liver disease