Nur 107: Eonc: Reproductive Health (Terms)

Front 1

A person whose inner sense of sexual identity does not match the biological body

Back 1

Transgender

Front 2

What is true about the sexual response of the older adult?

Back 2

Prolongued plateau phase

Front 3

The only 100% effective method of avoiding STD's

Back 3

Abstinence

Front 4

A female sexual dysfunction most often associated with physiological factors

Back 4

Dyspareunia

Front 5

An appropriate question for determining sexual health of an adolescent

Back 5

What questions do you have about sex and your body's development?

Front 6

Which of the following methods of birth control do not require a prescription: abstinence, birth control pills, spermicides, condoms

Back 6

All except birth control pills do not require a prescription

Front 7

Phases of the sexual response cycle

Back 7

Excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution

Front 8

Some characteristics of positive sexual health:

Back 8

Positive body image, ability to create effective relationships with both sexes, acceptance of responsibility for pleasure and reproduction

Front 9

A 24 y/o male portrays himself with great masculinity. This is an example of:

Back 9

gender role

Front 10

Basic physiological responses during human sexual response

Back 10

Myotonio and vasocongestion

Front 11

To assess sexual functioning, encourage the patient to discuss:

Back 11

sexual concerns
physical problems
sexual functionin

Front 12

What indicates female sexual excitement

Back 12

Increased vaginal lubrication

Front 13

Which of the following is the least effective means of preventing pregnancy:
Coitus interruptus
Calendar method
Body temperature
Mucus method

Back 13

Coitus interruptus

Front 14

During the uterine secretory phase of the menstrual cycle, what happens in the absence of pregnance

Back 14

Endometrium begins to degenerate

Front 15

Oral stimulation of female genitals

Back 15

Cunnilingus

Front 16

Oral stimulation of male genitals

Back 16

Fellatio

Front 17

In which phase does the involuntary climax of sexual tension occur

Back 17

Orgasmic

Front 18

Involuntary contraction of vaginal muscles when attempting sex

Back 18

Vaginismus

Front 19

Most effective ways of assisting patients to deal with sexual problems

Back 19

Recognize their own beliefs about sexuality

Front 20

What can assist a diabetic man with erectile difficulty

Back 20

Info about penile prosthesis

Front 21

Treatment for impotence in a 70 y/o male with a history of unstable anginal should not include:

Back 21

Viagra - prohibited with nitrate use

Front 22

When wearing a condom during anal sex, the patient should:

Back 22

Replace it with a new condom before vaginal sex

Front 23

An accurate sexual history is most important for which of the following patients:
Bronchial pneumonia
TB
DM
HTN controlled with meds

Back 23

HTN- meds can cause impotence

Front 24

Nursing diagnosis for erectile dysfunction:

Back 24

Sexual dysfunction

Front 25

Complication of pelvic inflammatory disease

Back 25

Sterility

Front 26

Possible cause of female infertility

Back 26

myoma of fallopian tube

Front 27

Assessment of male infertility should include:

Back 27

CBC

Front 28

When using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of determinging ovulation, it is important to

Back 28

Take temp QD before getting up

Front 29

A hystersalpingography evaluates:

Back 29

tubal patency

Front 30

What medication is used to treat infertility?

Back 30

Clomid

Front 31

Important risks factors to be discussed during preconception counseling:

Back 31

Secondhand smoke
Environmental hazards
Poor Nutrition

Front 32

During the preconceptual female assessment, it is essential to screen for:

Back 32

rubella immune status

Front 33

Childbearing decisions include:

Back 33

Birth plan
Care provider
Birth Setting

Front 34

A reactive non-stress test means

Back 34

Fetus has an intact central and autonomic nervous system unaffected by hypoxia

Front 35

An objective sign of pregnancey

Back 35

Hegar's sign (softening of uterine isthmus and body at 6-8 weeks)

Front 36

What statement by a couple undergoing amniocentesis indicates understanding of the test?

Back 36

"This test will let us know if something is wrong with our baby and we may have to consider ending the pregnancy.

Front 37

What statement indicates understanding of potential problems after being exposed to a teratogen?

Back 37

My baby is at risk. Exposure to a teratogen can cause abnormalitites, especially during the months when my baby is growing the fastest.

Front 38

Prenatal screening test used to detect a neural tube defect such as spina bifida

Back 38

AFP alpha-fetoprotein

Front 39

Recommended weight gain during pregnancy:

Back 39

20-30 pounds

Front 40

Consequence most frequently d/t smoking during pregnancy

Back 40

Low birth weight

Front 41

Adolescent 30 weeks pregnant seeks health care for first time. Most important question?

Back 41

How do you feel about becoming a mother at thsi time in your life?

Front 42

A pregnant patient with PKU understands her diet restrictions if she:

Back 42

Eats a diet low in phenylalanines

Front 43

Normaly psychological changes in third trimester include:

Back 43

preparation for birth by buying a layette

Front 44

An elevated alpha-fetoprotein serum level at 17 weeks indicates a risk for:

Back 44

A congenital nomaly requiring further testing.

Front 45

Where should uterus be at 20 weeks

Back 45

umbilicus

Front 46

Amniocentesis can determine all of the following except:
chromosomal disorders
Fetal maturity
Neural tube defects
Sex determination

Back 46

Sex

Front 47

What beverage increases iron absorption?

Back 47

OJ (d/t vitamin C)

Front 48

An expected change in pregnant woman's endocrine system:

Back 48

Increase in size of thyroid

Front 49

Physiological risks associated with an adolescent mother who does not seek medical care?

Back 49

insufficient weight gain
Pre-eclampsia
Iron deficiency

Front 50

When giving prenatal education to adolescents, it is best to be:

Back 50

Simple and direct.

Front 51

A risk factor for pre-term birth:

Back 51

polyhydramnios

Front 52

Fetal-neonatal risk of pre-eclampsia:

Back 52

small for gestational age

Front 53

A priority assessment for the patient receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia?

Back 53

Monitor deep tendon reflexes

Front 54

A non-stress test is done to:

Back 54

evaluate fetal status

Front 55

Best reason for CVS (chorionic villus sampling) to check for genetic defects

Back 55

Test is done earlier than others

Front 56

The prenatal test, alpha-fetoprotein detects:

Back 56

neural tube defects

Front 57

Primary intervention for prolapsed cord

Back 57

relieve pressure on the cord

Front 58

which apgar is most indicative of poor neonatal status:
low-pitched cry
flecion of elbows and hips
pale blue color
heart rate less than 100

Back 58

Heart rate less than 100

Front 59

Which apgar indicates good neonatal status?
heart rate 140
grimace
cyanosis
hyporefelxia

Back 59

Heart rate 140

Front 60

A benefit of birthing ball during labor

Back 60

widening of the pelvis

Front 61

Cervical dilatation indicative of Stage 1 active phase of labor

Back 61

4-7cm

Front 62

A patient receiving Pitocin for the induction of labor develops late decelerations. A priority nursing action:

Back 62

Stop the pitocin

Front 63

A laboring patient develops minimal variable decelerations

Back 63

Document and continue to monitor

Front 64

Amnioinfusion is done to treat

Back 64

oligohydramnios

Front 65

Which woman would be a candidate for a vaginal birth after c-section:
one prior c-section with a vertical incision
one prior c-section and a low transverse incision
a previous 7 pound baby by c-section without difficulty
prior uterine and abdominal surgery

Back 65

one prior c-section and low transverse incision

Front 66

Placenta accreta involves the attachment of the chorionic villi directly to the myometrium and the most common complication is:

Back 66

maternal hemorrhage

Front 67

Most common fetal position

Back 67

occiput anterior

Front 68

The nurse must ***** what prior to giving systemic analgesics

Back 68

cervical dilation
knowledge about fetal risks

Front 69

Most common type of version

Back 69

external cephalic

Front 70

Fetal risk d/t forceps

Back 70

cephalhematoma

Front 71

Which patient should not get a rubella vaccination:
a pregnant 22 y/o w/a neg titer
a nonpregnant 30 y/o w/a negative titer
an adolescent with a neg titer
a pospartum 25 y/o w/a neg titer

Back 71

pregnant 22 y/o with a negative titer

Front 72

A nurse would note Ortolani's sign when assessing a newborn for:

Back 72

congenital hip dysplasia

Front 73

To which agency would you refer a new mother who is beginning to breastfeed and needs support?

Back 73

L Leche League

Front 74

Infants are at greatest risk for which deficiency during the first year?

Back 74

iron

Front 75

What are the components of LATCH?

Back 75

latch
audible swallowing, type of nipple, comfort, and hold

Front 76

The nurse gives and injection of vitamin K to the newborn to prevent the complication of:

Back 76

hemorrhagic disease

Front 77

Which group is at greatest risk for PKU?

Back 77

Americans

Front 78

Phenylketonuria testing is done to prevent

Back 78

Mental retardation

Front 79

You overhear an African American woman say that her baby is greedy. This may mean that the mother thinks the infant

Back 79

is eating too much

Front 80

Which data indicate that parents understand how to poison proof their home?

Back 80

plants are hung from the ceiling
poisonous materials are secured

Front 81

The typical postpartum oxytocin dose is:

Back 81

10 units IM

Front 82

A major factor associated with the development of severe hyperbilirubinemia in infants of 35 or more weeks is

Back 82

jaundice within the first 24 hours

Front 83

A priority of care for an infant with a myelomeningocele is the prevention of

Back 83

infection

Front 84

During the postpartum period, the mother should consume how many servings of the bread, cereal, rice and past group QD?

Back 84

6-11

Front 85

Neonatal physical maturity considers which factor?

Back 85

lanugo characteristics

Front 86

Biliary atresia

Back 86

obstruction of the bile duct

Front 87

A child with PKY should avoid eating

Back 87

animal meat

Front 88

a sweat test is ordered as a diagnostic study to determine the presence of which disorder?

Back 88

cystic fibrosis

Front 89

To relieve chronic hypoxia, a child with Tetralogy of Fallot could be expected to assume which position?

Back 89

Squatting/knee to chest

Front 90

Which symptom, if noted in an infant, would suggest the presence of hirschsprung's disease?

Back 90

No meconium stool within the first 48 hours of birth

Front 91

Which goal would be appropriate in the plan of care for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot?

Back 91

The child will be free of cyanosis during morning care.

Front 92

The best time to perform postural drainage for a patient with cystic fibrosis?

Back 92

At least one hour before a meal

Front 93

the primary purpose of postural drainage is to:

Back 93

mobilize secretions

Front 94

A clinical manifestation of hydrocephalus is:

Back 94

increase in head circumference

Front 95

Nursing care of a baby with ICP should include:

Back 95

seizure precautions

Front 96

Which of the following info should be included when educating a parent about a VP shunt?

Back 96

malfunctions and infection are common risks

Front 97

A child with myelomeningocele should be placed in what position to prevent complications postoperatively?

Back 97

prone

Front 98

In counseling prospective parents about cystic fibrosis, it is important to note that:

Back 98

both parents have the gene for a child to develop the disease

Front 99

When assessing a newborn, which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect Tetralogy of Fallot?

Back 99

altered level of consciousness
crying, feeding increases cyanosis and respiratory distress
cyanotic in the morning

Front 100

Which of the following nursing diagnoses would the nurse identify as a priority for the infant with tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF?)

Back 100

risk for injury related to increased potential for aspiration

Front 101

When doing a physical assessment on a neonate with Hirshsprung's disease, the nurse would expect to find:

Back 101

vomiting and abdominal distension

Front 102

the primary treatment for an infant with Hirschsprung's disease is:

Back 102

a temporary colostomy

Front 103

Which of the following activities would be allowed for a 2 y/o after recent cleft palate repair?
drinking through a straw
drinking from a cup
brishing his teeth
sucking on a pacifier

Back 103

drinking from a cup

Front 104

Which of the following is an assessment finding indicative of hip dysplasia?

Back 104

restriction of abduction on the affected side.

Front 105

What would be the expected course of treatment in an infant weighing less than 1000g with the diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus?

Back 105

adecquate respiratroy support
restriction of fluids
administration of prostaglanding synthetase inhibitors (Indocin)

Front 106

When planning discharge teaching for the family of a child with cerebral palsy, it is important to recognize that:

Back 106

cerebral palsy is not progressively degenerative

Front 107

Wehn developing a plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, it is important for the nurse and family to understand that the primary goal is to:

Back 107

maximize assets and minimize limitations caused by the disorder

Front 108

The major difference in caring for a child with muscular dystrophy versus a child with cerebral palsy is that muscular dystrophy

Back 108

Is progressive in nature.

Front 109

The most common symptom of cardiomyopathy in a pediatric patient that the nurse should assess for is:

Back 109

tachycardia.

Front 110

All of the following symptoms can be related to Hirschsprung's disease. Which is considered to be the classic sign of the disease?
vomitus tainted with feces
recurring abdominal distention
obstinate constipation
frequent anorexia

Back 110

recurring abdominal distention

Front 111

Mary M, 10 y/o, complaints to the school nurse that she has had a headache since she got up this morning and also has a stiff neck. The nurse is aware of Mary's prior diagnosis of an arteriovenous malformaton of the middle cerebral artery. Which would be the most appropriate action to take?

Back 111

make emergency preparations to transport Mary to an acute care facility.

Front 112

A mother may show the need for further teaching if she states that the cause of her child's cleft lip and palate happened because:

Back 112

"I did not take my prenatal vitamins."

Front 113

After D&C, the nurse assesses vaginal bleeding on a peripad, and approximates a saturated pad as about how many mls?

Back 113

40-60 ml

Front 114

The nurse assesses for the most common complication after D&C:

Back 114

hemorrhage and perforation fo the uterus

Front 115

What is the most common complaint of women seeking relief from menopausal symptoms?

Back 115

hot flashes

Front 116

A patient complains of a dull, aching lower back, severe abdominal pain, and fever. The nurse suspects which of the following?
salpingitis
toxic shock syndrome
nonspecific vaginitis
pelvic inflammatory disease

Back 116

pelvic inflammatory disease

Front 117

Which childhood disease is associated with orchitis?

Back 117

mumps

Front 118

The most common complication of orchitis is:

Back 118

testicular atrophy

Front 119

All of the following should be included in discharge instructions following a hydrocelectomy except:
use of prescribed pain meds
observe for purulent drainage and notify MD if necessary
keep scrotum elevated until edema is resolved
apply hot compresses to scrotum for 20 minutes every two hours

Back 119

Apply hot compresses

Front 120

A male patient complaints of fewver, perineal pain, urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. The nurse suspects prostatitis if the prostate exam by the MD reveals that the prostate gland is:

Back 120

tender, swollen, and warm to touch

Front 121

A patient with acute prostatitis has pain and difficulty voiding. He aks the nurse to put in a catheter. The nurse knows that this may complicate the disorder by:

Back 121

increasing the risk of epididymitis

Front 122

A patient with prostatic hypertrophy may require a biopsy to rule out what form of cancer?

Back 122

prostate

Front 123

The nurse is assessing a patient with a past history of BPH for presence of current symptoms related to this disorder. She will assess for

Back 123

decreased force of urinary stream

Front 124

A patient with BPH is scheduled for a transrectal ultrasound and a prostate-specific antigen level. These tests are done to:

Back 124

help rule out the presence of malignancy

Front 125

What nursing diagnosis would apply in the immediate postop period for a patient after radical prostatectomy for cancer?

Back 125

fear related to outcome of surgery

Front 126

Which of the following is not part of the perineal excersis for the post-prostatectomy patient?
tighten the muscles as if trying to prevent urination
contract the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles
tighten the rectal sphincter while relaxing the abdominal muscles
perform the Valsalva maneuver

Back 126

Valsalva

Front 127

A post-op TURP patient c/o urinary urgency. The nurse should:

Back 127

check the catheter tubing for kinks.

Front 128

CBI is used in TURP patients to promote:

Back 128

removal of mucous shreds and blood clots after surgery.

Front 129

Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for patients with a history of:

Back 129

deepvein thrombosis

Front 130

The nurse would assess a patient taking HRT for:

Back 130

calf tenderness or edema