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71 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the routine/ universal screening for intimate partner violence?
asking every woman at every health care encounter if she has been abused
What are the 2 most important messages that need to be conveyed during the assessment?
abuse is not the woman's fault & help is possible
List 2 questions that are suposed to be asking during the Abuse Assessment Screen *(AAS).
1. When you argue, are you ever afraid of your partner?
2. Does your partner try to emotionally hurt you?
3. Does your partner tryto control you?
4. Has your partner ever physically hurt you?
5. Did you your partner ever physically hurt you when you were pregnant?
5. Has your partner ever forced you into sex?
List some question you can asking during an Elder Abuse Screen.
1. Has anyone ever touched you inappropriately?
2. Has anyone failed to help take care of yourself?
3. Has anyone made you sign documents you didn't understand?
At what a age does a female start getting screened for abuse?
14 yrs old
(def.) superficial discoloration due to hemorrhage into the tissues from the ruptured blood vessels beneath the skin surface, without the skin itself being broken; also called a contusion
bruise
(def.) the act of tearing or splitting; a wound produced by the tearing and/or splitting of body tissue, usually from blunt impact over a bony surface
laceration
(def.) a hemmorhagic spot or blotch, larger than petechia, in the skin or mucous membrane, forming a nonelevated, rounded or regular, blue or purplish patch
ecchymosis
(def.) minute, pinpoint, nonraised, perfectly round, purplish red spots caused by intradermal or submucous hemorrhage, which later turn blue or yellow
petechiae
(def.) a cut or wound made by sharp instrument; the act of cutting
incision
(def.) a penetrating, sharp, cutting injury that is deeper than it is wide
stab wound
(def.) a localized collection of extravasated blood, usually clotted in an organ, space, or tissue
hematoma
Suspect abuse even if the patiend says "_____!"
"No!"
(def.) mental disorders due to brain disease of known specific prgan cause; ex: dementia, intoxication, and withdrawl
organic disorder
(def.) being aware of one's own existence, feelings, and thoughts are aware of the environment. This is the most elementary of mental status functions.
Consciousness
(def.) using the voice to communicate one's thoughts and feelings. This is a basic tool of humans, and its loss has a heavy social impact on the individual
language
(def.) temporary expression of feelings or state of mind
affect
a prolonged display of feelings that color the whole emotional life
mood
(def.) the awareness of the objective world in relation to the self
orientation
(def.) the power of concentration, the ability to focus on one specific thing w/o being distracted by many environmental stimuli
attention
(def.) the abilty to lay down and store experiences and perceptions for later recall
memory
(def.) pondering a deeper meaning beyong the concrete and literal
abstract thinking
(def.) the wayh a person thinks
thought process
(def.) what the person thinks- specific ideas, beliefs, and use of words
thought content
(def.) an awareness of objects through the 5 senses
perceptions
The "flat affect" is when they have a ______ look.
blank
Name 4 reasons when to perform a full mental status examination.
1. behavior changes
2. brain lesions
3. aphasia
4. symptoms of psychiatric mental illness
Main components of a mental status examination:
A:
B:
C:
T:
A: Appearance
B: Behavior
C: Cognition
T: Thought processes
Which examination is a simplified scored form of the cognitive functions
Supplemental Mental Status Examination
Which level of consciousness?
awake or readily aroused, oriented, fully aware of external and internal stimuli and responds appropriately, conducts meaningful interpersonal interactions
Alert
Which level of consciousness?
sleeps most of the time, difficult to arouse-needs loud shout or vigorous shake, acts confused when is aroused, converses in monosyllables, speech may be mumbled and incoherent, requires constant stimulation for even marginal cooperation
Obtunded
Which level of consciousness?
not fully alert, drifts off to sleep when not stimulated, can be aroused to name when called in normal voice but looks drowsy, responds appropriately to questions or commands but thinking seems slow and fuzzy, inattentive, loses train of thought, spontaneous movements are decreased
Lethargic
Which level of consciousness?
spontaneously unconscious, responds only to persistent and vigorous shake or pain; has appropriate motor response; otherwise can only groan, mumble, or move restlessly, reflex activity persists
Stupor or Semi-Coma
Which level of consciousness?
completely unconscious, no response to pain or to any external or internal stimuli; has no motor response
Coma
Which level of consciousness?
clouding of consciousness (impaired alertness); inattentive; incoherent conversation; impaired recent memory and confabulatory for recent events; disoriented; with confusion worse at night when environmental stimuli are dcreased
Acute Confusional State (Delirium)
which abnormality of mood and affect?
lack of emotional response; no expression of feelings; topic varies, expression doesn't
Flat Affect
which abnormality of mood and affect?
sad, gloomy, dejected
"I've got the blues"
depression
which abnormality of mood and affect?
loss of identity, feels estranged; "I don't feel real" or "I feel like i'm not really here"
Depersonalization
which abnormality of mood and affect?
joy and optimism, overconfidence, increased motor activity, but not necessarily pathologic; "I'm feeling very happy"
Elation
which abnormality of mood and affect?
excessive well-being, unusually cheerful; "I'm high, I feel like I'm flying"
Euphoria
which abnormality of mood and affect?
worried; uneasy; "I feel nervous andhigh strung" or "I cant seem to make up my mind, i worry all the time"
Anxiety
which abnormality of mood and affect?
worried, uneasy, external danger is known and identified; fear of flying in airplanes
Fear
which abnormality of mood and affect?
annoyed; easily provoked; impatient
Irritability
which abnormality of mood and affect?
loss of control, furious; express violent behaviors
rage
which abnormality of mood and affect?
the existence of oposing emotions toward an idea, object, or person
Ambivalence
which abnormality of mood and affect?
the rapid shift of emotion
Lability
which abnormality of mood and affect?
affect clearly discordant w/ the content of the person's speech; laughs while discussing admission for liver biopsy
Innapriate Effect
Landmark for Suprasternal Notch
feel this hollow U-shaped depression just abov the sternum, in between the clavicles
Landmark for Sternum
The "breastbone" has 3 parts-the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process. walk your fingers down the manubrium a few cm until you feel a distinct bony ridge, the manutriosternal angle
(in between breast, midline)
Landmark of Manubriosternal angle a.k.a angle of louis
palpate lightly to the 2nd rib, and slide down to the 2nd intercostal space
The angle of Louis also marks the site of the __________ _________ into the right & left main bronch, it corresponds w/ the upper border of the ________ of the heart, and it lies above the _____ thoracic vertebra on the back
site of the TRACHEAL BIFURCATION, upper border of the ATRIA of the heart, 4TH thoracic vertebra
Landmark of Costal Angle
the right & left costal margins form an angle where they meet at the XIPHOID PROCESS. usually 90 degrees of less.
Landmark of vertebra prominens
start. flex your head and feel for the most prominent bony spur protruding at the base of the neck. This is the spinous process of C7. If 2 bumps seem equally prominent, upper 1 is C7 & the lower is T1
Landmark of Spinous Process.
count down these knobs on the vertebrae, which stack together to form the spinal column. Note that the spinous process align w/ their same numbered ribs only down to T4. After T4, the spinous processes angle downward from their vertebral body & overlie the vertebral body & rib below
Landmark of Inferior Border of Scapula
lower tip is usually at the 7th or 8th rib
Landmark of 12th rib
palpate midway b/w the spine & the person's side to identify its free tip
Which lung is shorter & why?
Right lung is shorter b/c of the underlying liver
Which lung uis narrower & why?
Left lung is narrower b/c the heart bulges to the left
How many lobes does each lung have?
Right lung- 3

Left lung- 2
How are the lobes stacked?
in diagonal sloping segments
How are the lobes seperated?
by fissures that run obliquely through the chest
(def.) the thin, slippery ________ form an envelope b/w the lungs & the chest wall
pleurae
The ________ pleura lines the outside of the lungs, dipping dowin into the fissures.
visceral
The __________ pleura lines the inside of the chest and wall diaphragm.
parietal
Location of Trachea
lies anterior to the esophagus
(def.) space that is filled w/ air but is not available for gaseous exchange
dead space
What are the 4 functions of the Respiratory system?
1. Supplying oxygen to the body for energy
2. removing carbon dioxide as a waste product
3. maintaining homeostasis of arterial blood
4. maintaining heat exahnge
What increases the chest size of the lungs?
inspiration
when does the recoil (decrease)?
expiration
The spinous processes should appear in what kind of line?
straight
What shape is the thorax?

How many degrees is it relative to the spine?
elliptical

45 degrees