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101 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is #11 scalpel blade used for
fine cuts and puncturing things, not good for cutting through thick skin
What is #10 scalpel like
A large curved blade, #3 is even larger same size
What two suture materials commonly cause a tissue rxn
silk and polyester
What are steri strips used for
In small areas needing sutures and must be an area that doesn't have a lot of tension on it. Won't leave any scarring.
What type of med is procaine
anesthetice - ester prototype
Metabolizes to PABA
What type of med is Lidocaine
Anesthetics - Amide prototype
Can cause heart block
Bupivacaine is the same as Lidocaine, however it lasts longer and therefore can not be used in IV
Which of the following is a CONTRAINDICATION for shave biopsy:
a. Hyperpigmented moles greater than 1 cm
b. Molluscum contagiosum
c. Seborrheic keratoses
d. Benign superficial lesions
a. Hyperpigmented moles greater than 1 cm
Which of the following is a metabolized in the liver:
A. lidocaine
B. Epinephrine
C. cocaine
D. Procaine
A. lidocaine
Which of the following agents is primarily metabolized by plasma enzymes:
A. Lidocaine
B. Procaine
C. Epinephrine
D. EMLA
B. Procaine
10cc of a 1% solution of lidocaine contains?
100 mg
1cc of of 1% lidocaine solution contains:
10 mg
INDICATIONS for adding epinephrine to local anesthetics include all the following EXCEPT:
1. Decrease oozing
2. Prolong the duration of anesthetic effect
3. Reduced risk in patients with severe cardiovascular disease
4. Decrease risk of toxic reaction by reducing circulating levels of the local
3. Reduced risk in patients with severe cardiovascular disease
Where can you not use Epi with local anesthesia
Any area that does not have blood coming from two directions - any appendage - fingers, toes, nose, penis, clitoris, ears
Which of the following is a sign of local anesthesia CARDIOVASCULAR TOXICITY:
A. Shivering
B. Hypotension
C. Syncope
D. Sweating
B. Hypotension
Which of the following is the best treatment for a TOXIC reaction:
A. Epinephrine
B. Benedryl
C. Lidocaine
D. Oxygen
D. Oxygen
What are the smaller sutures
Big number/0 - the bigger the number the smaller the suture
Which of the following is an indication for NON-ABSORBABLE deep suture:
A. Tendon repair
B. Ophthalmic surgery
C. Deep skin wounds
D. Obstetrics
A. Tendon repair
Which of the following suture types has the highest likelihood of tissue reaction:
A. Chromic gut
B. Nylon
C. Vicryl
D. Prolene
A. Chromic gut
What is a felon
a deep infection that requires debreivment
Which of the following suture is the finest (has the smallest diameter):
a. 5/0
b. 000
c. 4-0
d. 6/0
d. 6/0
Nylon is what type of suture:
a. Absorbable, natural
b. Absorbable, synthetic
c. Nonabsorbable, natural
d. Nonabsorbable, synthetic
d. Nonabsorbable, synthetic
How is a drained abcess best cared for
pack with iodophor gauze - change ever couple of days allowing it to heal from the bottom up.
Four cardinal signs of slight finger flexion, fusiform swelling of the finger, pain on passive or active extension of the finger, and tenderness along the tendon sheath into the palm indicate:
a. Paronychia
b. Purulent tenosynovitis
c. Felon
d. Ganglion cyst
b. Purulent tenosynovitis
Contraindication to I&D include:
a. Fluctuant abscesses
b. Recurrent abscesses
c. Infected puncture wounds
d. Foreign bodies
b. Recurrent abscesses
All the following may increase the amount of time that a wound takes to heal EXCEPT:
a. hematoma
b. accurate wound approximation
c. high tension
d. dead space
b. accurate wound approximation
The destruction of all living microorganisms including bacterial spores:
a. Sterilization
b. Disinfection
c. Pasteurization
d. Homogenization
a. Sterilization
All the following are true regarding Universal Precautions EXCEPT:
a. The blood and body fluids of all patients should be considered potentially infectious
b. The main components include washing hands and sterilization
c. OSHA enforces Universal Precautions
d. The employer must offer HCV vaccine to all employees who have occupational exposure
d. The employer must offer HCV vaccine to all employees who have occupational exposure
Which of the following is included in the summary of OSHA standards:
a. Disposable gloves can be decontaminated for re-use.
b. Mouth pipetting of blood is prohibited unless the employer can demonstrate that no alternative is feasible
c. If a garment is penetrated by blood, the garment shall be removed
d. Contaminated needles should never be bent
c. If a garment is penetrated by blood, the garment shall be removed
This surgical tool is best for larger, thick and tough skin on the back:
Iris scissors
#10 blade
#11 blade
#15 blade
#10 blade
Which of the following scalpel blades has a straight and pointed cutting edge and is used for stabbing and incising the skin in I&D:
#11
#3
#10
#15
#11
What is the difference btw vertical mattress and simple interrupted
vertical mattress has 4 points of contact instead of 2
This type of suture has less resistance as it passes through tissue and is less likely to harbor microorganisms. It ties easily but knots may slip and break easily:
Catgut
Silk
Nylon
Braided Vicryl
Nylon
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What % of recurrence of ganglion if ruptured
50% - therefore if they aren't causing problems leave it alone
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How is an interupted suture infection txed
just remove that suture
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This regional nerve block is injected into the anatomical snuff box to provide anesthesia to the lateral aspect of the proximal thumb:
Radial
Ulnar
Median
Pollus
Radial
This regional nerve block is useful for providing anesthesia to the tip of the little finger:
Radial
Ulnar
Median
Musculocutaneous
Ulnar
For the trunk, legs, feet or scalp, use the following type of suture and remove after how many days:
3/0, 2-6 days
3/0, 7-14 days
6/0, 2-6 days
6/0, 7-14 days
3/0, 7-14 days
How is length of time for sutures decided
With suture choice and time in place consider location and stress on the wound. The more stress and thicker the skin (back, arm or thigh) the longer in place, and generally larger the diameter of suture required. The less tension and thickness (face) the smaller the suture and the sooner you remove it.
At what point is melanoma no longer within our scope
ND can excise and send for biopsy but once dx has been made must refer for tx
Cryotherapy is indicated for which of the following:
Melanoma
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
Cervical warts
Basal Cell Carcinoma
Cervical warts
Which of the following conditions can be treated with cryotherapy and has a low risk of complications:
Ganglion cysts
Felon
Plantar warts
Purulent tenosynovitis
Plantar warts
Indications for electrocautery include:
Bloody fields
Basal cell carcinoma
Actinic keratoses
Recently changing nevi greater than 1 cm diameter
Actinic keratoses
Slide 33
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Slide 34
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What should you do if one of the sutures in a wound is infected
Remove it and drain the pus
What is Sterilization
the destruction of all living microorganisms, including bacterial spores.
what is Disinfection
the reduction of a population of pathogenic microorganisms without achieving sterility (not all bacterial spores are destroyed)
What is the difference btw a disinfectant and an antiseptic
Disinfectant is applied to an inanimate object to disinfect it and an antiseptic is for cleaning a body part
Where would you use larger suture material for a longer time
Places with a lot of tension
What type of cautery can you use for blood areas
Has to be bypolar
What conditions require contact isolation
Things that have high transmision by direct contact for serious illnesses
C Diff, methicillin resistant Staph, E Coli 0157:H7
What conditions require air born isolation
Things like TB and measles
What solution should be used to clean an area
10 % bleach or 1% sodium hypochlorite
What is required for washing blood stained linens
Temp of at least 160 deg F
50-150 ppm of chlorine bleach in washing cycle
What is the correct angle for a venopuncture
15 deg
What angle is IV or butterfly push inserted at
30-15 deg
What size syringe should be used to draw up an injectable
2 times the volume that is being injected
What types of things are injected Sub Q
fat soluble vitamines, insulin, epi
How is a sub Q injection done
pinch skin to inject into, insert needle at 45 deg angle, asperate and then inject, then remove needle and massage with dry cotton ball
What is wet to dry dressing
it is when wet gauze is placed on a wound and then ripped off after it has been dry for a while - it is used for debridement of the wound
What is wet to wet dressing
Dressing applied wet and then remoistened when it is to be removed
How long is dressing left in place
24-48 hours
How is acidosis treated
IV sodium bicarbinate
When are sutures removed
before epithelialization - about 5 days post op
What order are sutures removed
Remove alternately not consecutively
How do you clean a surgery area
remove hair (if needed)
Scrub area with antimicrobial cleanser 3 times - inside moving out
When is it CI to do surgery on a digit
reduced circulation - DM, Raynaud's, PSS, polyartertisi
What is a field block and what is its advantage
block of all n to an area - longer duration and less distortion of anatomical landmarks
What is the best way to tx a ganglion cyst
Refer to a hand specialist
What size suture should be used on the face
5-0 or 6-0
What type of field do you conduct an incision and drainage on for an infected abcess
clean field
Between cephalexin and mupirocin which is used to prevent skin infection
cephalexin, mupirocin is used for beta hemolytic strep
What is a dermatofibroma
benign lesion that is small dusky colored nodule usually on the leg
What type of bandage should be used following skin biopsy
non-occlusive bandage - reduce moisture and allow for air circulation
What is the common side effect of procain which is why it is not commonly used
anaphylaxis
What type of anestesia is typically use for the paronychia removal
digit block - insert needle distal to MTP and clos to the bone and inject as you pull the needle out
What instrument is used to remove a portion of nail
an nail elevator
What is the max dose of lidocaine w/o epi
How about with epi
W/o epi - 4.5 mg/kg (devide by 10 for 1% solution)
With epi - 7 mg/kg
How do you preform a matrixectomy
Remove nail then apply 80% phenol to nail bed for 1-3 min then neutralize with alcohol - repeat 3 tims
How should a person tx their foot after paronychia removal
rest and elevate leg for at least 24 hours
remove bandage daily and clean and rebandage
How long does marcaine take to act and how long does it work
30 min to act then lasts btw 3-8 hrs
what lesion is actinic keratosis associed with increased risk for
Sqamous cell carcinoma
How long should sutures be left in the face
5-7 days
How long should sutures be left in places other than the face
7-10 days
Does Cryosurgery require anesthetic
no b/c it is freezing the lesion
Why would acrochordons increase in size during pregnancy
b/c they respond to inc E
can you serrated forceps to remove a punch biopsy
It isn't a good idea b/c you want to preserve the sample as best as possible.
what is milia
keratin filled spots - white
Goodsall’s rule (used for anal fistula repair) - what is it?
if external opening is posterior to an imaginary horizontal line drawn over the anus connecting the ischial tuberosities, then the fistula tract is probably a curved line on the posterior midline of the anal canal. If the external opening is anterior to this same line, then the internal opening is usually on a straight course in the same quadrant of the anal canal.
What are two ways a cyst can be handled
excised or drained, if drained re-check in 4 weeks to ensure it has not reformed
How is pyogenic granuloma txed
cryosurgery, currette/cautery or excision if needing to send to pathology
What is a keratoacanthoma
rapid growing lesion on light exposed skin. Round w/ rolled edges and central keratin plug
How many mg of lidocain are in 10 cc or a 1% solution
− 10cc of a 1% solution contains 100 mg.
What is the max dose of lidocain
− The maximum recommended dose (healthy adults) is 4.5 mg/kg (not to exceed a ceiling of 300 mg or 30 ccs of 1%).
− The maximum dose for children over three is determined by the age and weight (i.e. for a normal, healthy child of 5 weighing 23 kg [50 lbs.] the maximum dose is 3.3-4.5 mg/kg [1.5-2 mg/lb], not to exceed a total of 75-100 mg.).
− These doses are for 90 minute - 2-hour intervals.
What are common wound infectionous agents
Staph is #1
Streptococci and Staph epidermidis (gram positive), E. coli, Proteus, Nitrobacteria, and Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram negative), and occasionally Candida.