Njrotc Cadet Field Manual And Drill Manual

Front 1

The military uniform is a symbol of the nation's defense forces. Thus the word "uniform" suggests a ________.

Back 1

distinctive mode of dress.

Front 2

  The uniform your senior naval science instructor (SNSI) will direct you to wear on any given day is known as the __________.

Back 2

     Uniform of the Day.

Front 3

  Who is the only person who can approve modifications to cadets' uniforms?

Back 3

     NJROTC Area Manager

Front 4

What articles/items may be worn exposed when in uniform?

Back 4

   no articles may be exposed

Front 5

When can you wear the cover indoors?

Back 5

    while on official duty

Front 6

What head gear is optional for officers and chiefs as part of their NJROTC uniform?

Back 6

  Combination cap

Front 7

7.      In uniform, necklaces are authorized but shall not be _________.

Back 7

a)      visible.

Front 8

In uniform, rings are authorized, but no more than _____ may be worn on each hand.

Back 8

    one

Front 9

What type of facial hair is permitted to be worn by male cadets?

Back 9

  trimmed mustache

Front 10

10.  Male sideburns will be neatly trimmed and tailored and shall not exceed below a point level with the ___________.

Back 10

    middle of the ear

Front 11

Which of the following statements is true in the wearing of female earrings/studs?

Back 11

  One per ear, centered on the ear lobe, must be a small gold or silver ball (post or screw on).

Front 12

Female hair ornaments such as conspicuous bands, combs, and pins are not authorized. Barrettes are authorized, but must be

Back 12

similar to the female hair color

Front 13

The hair for females may touch the collar, but cannot fall below the horizontal level with the lower edge of the back of the collar. True or False

Back 13

True

Front 14

The male hair above the ears and around the neck area must be tapered upward and outward not greater than ______.

Back 14

     3/4 of an inch.

Front 15

  How far above and centered on the pocket buttonhole are ribbons and the name tag worn parallel to the top of the male and female short sleeve summer blue shirt?

Back 15

     1/4 inch

Front 16

  Sunglasses may be worn with the approval of the Naval Science Instructor and with the following restrictions:

Back 16

a)      sunglasses must be conservative, b)      never worn while in formation, c)      never worn with retainer straps, d)     

Front 17

  The color of the chinstrap on the combination cap for chiefs and enlisted personnel performing in the color guard is

Back 17

     black.

Front 18

  Rank/rate and the JROTC bar insignias are centered at what distance from the collar point on the male and female short sleeve blue shirt?

Back 18

      1 and 7/8 of an inch

Front 19

What color and type tee-shirt will be worn with all male NJROTC uniforms?

Back 19

     Plain white crew neck or V-neck

Front 20

  The male nectie, black in color is authorized fabric measuring no more than___________ wide.

Back 20

    3 1/4 inches

Front 21

21.  Ribbons and aiguillettes are not authorized on which of the following male and female NJROTC uniforms?

Back 21

a)      Winter Working Blue

Front 22

22.  What award is awarded to any cadet upon completion of the Leadership Academy or similar training, as approved by the area manager?

Back 22

a)      Mini-Boot Camp Award

Front 23

What ribbon award is one of the more demanding of the NJROTC awards given to the cadet who qualifies in required overland navigation by compass and map?

Back 23

Orienteering Ribbon Award

Front 24

24.  What award is given yearly to one cadet in each year group with the highest combined average for overall scholastic standing and aptitude in the NJROTC unit activities (academics, homework, physical fitness etc?)

Back 24

a)      Distinguished Cadet Award

Front 25

25.  How is the most senior ribbon worn on the uniform shirt when more than one ribbon is worn?

Back 25

a)      On the top row and inboard

Front 26

What is the "Rule of Thumb" when wearing a ribbon with a dark color on one end and a light color on the other end?

Back 26

Dark color inboard

Front 27

27.  Which one of the following awards is awarded to one cadet in each year group with the highest overall academic achievement (GPA) in school, including all naval science courses?

Back 27

a)      Honor Cadet

Front 28

28.  What award is given to that cadet who demonstrates an exceptional military aptitude and dedication to the NJROTC program?

Back 28

a)      Military Aptitude Award

Front 29

29.  What device is put on a ribbon for the fourth award?

Back 29

a)      1 Silver star

Front 30

30.  What award is given to the cadet that demonstrates an exceptional dedication to the NJROTC program?

Back 30

a)      Distinguished Cadet Award

Front 31

1.      A cadet seaman recruit can expect, when qualified, to be advanced to

Back 31

a)      Cadet Seaman Apprentice

Front 32

2.      Advancement to officer status requires an individual who has demonstrate superior quality leadership, integrity, personal appearance, conduct and patriotism.

Back 32

a)      True

Front 33

3.      Petty Officer Third Class is designated by a collar device of

Back 33

a)      an eagle perched over one chevron.

Front 34

4.      What is the highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain?

Back 34

    Cadet Captain

Front 35

5.      For which NJROTC rating is there no collar device?

Back 35

a)      Seaman Recruit

Front 36

6.      A cadet Lieutenant Commander is designated by a collar device of

Back 36

a)      four attached gold bars.

Front 37

7.      A reduction in rank/grade is based on unacceptable performance and is called a

Back 37

a)      demotion

Front 38

8.      A cadet Ensign is designated by a collar device of

Back 38

a)      one gold bar.

Front 39

9.      Petty Officer First Class is designated by a collar device of

Back 39

a)      an eagle perched over three chevrons.

Front 40

10.  Students who are entering the NJROTC program for the first time are most often assigned the grade of

Back 40

a)      cadet seaman recruit.

Front 41

11.  All rate and rank promotions are determined by the naval science instructor. True or False

Back 41

a)      True

Front 42

12.  A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of

Back 42

a)      two attached gold bars.

Front 43

13.  A cadet Commander is designated by a collar device of

Back 43

a)      five attached gold bars.

Front 44

14.  Cadet officers that have shown an aptitude for high leadership in the NJROTC program are generally in their

Back 44

a)      third or fourth year.

Front 45

15.  Cadet Senior Chief Petty Officer (C/SCPO) is designated by a collar device of

Back 45

a)      an eagle and one star perched on a fouled anchor.

Front 46

16.  A chevron on a collar device looks like

Back 46

a)      the letter V.

Front 47

17.  A paygrade of O-2 carries the title

Back 47

a)      Lieutenant Junior Grade

Front 48

18.  The lowest three enlisted pay grades are in the general apprenticeship area before advancement to petty officer pay grades.

Back 48

a)      True

Front 49

19.  The Navy's rate and rank structure for men and women on active duty is in some ways similar to the rate and rank structure used by the cadets in the NJROTC program.

Back 49

a)      True

Front 50

20.  When enlisted personnel move up to the next higher rate in their specialty, they do not receive an advancement in pay. True or False

Back 50

a)      False

Front 51

21.  What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?

Back 51

a)      blue and silver

Front 52

22.  What are the maximum number of stars that can be on an insignia of the Navy Chief Petty Officer rate?

Back 52

a)      3

Front 53

23.  How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?

Back 53

a)      4

Front 54

24.  What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?

Back 54

a)      oak leaf

Front 55

25.  How many paygrade of admiral exist?

Back 55

a)      4

Front 56

26.  When officers move up to the next rank and paygrade, they have earned a(n) _________.

Back 56

a)      promotion

Front 57

1.      A cadet seaman recruit can expect, when qualified, to be advanced to

Back 57

a)      Cadet Seaman Apprentice

Front 58

2.      Advancement to officer status requires an individual who has demonstrate superior quality leadership, integrity, personal appearance, conduct and patriotism. True or False

Back 58

a)      True

Front 59

3.      Petty Officer Third Class is designated by a collar device of

Back 59

a)      an eagle perched over one chevron.

Front 60

4.      What is the highest rank that an NJROTC cadet can attain?

Back 60

     Cadet Captain

Front 61

5.      For which NJROTC rating is there no collar device?

Back 61

a)      Seaman Recruit

Front 62

6.      A cadet Lieutenant Commander is designated by a collar device of

Back 62

a)      four attached gold bars.

Front 63

7.      A reduction in rank/grade is based on unacceptable performance and is called a

Back 63

a)      demotion

Front 64

8.      A cadet Ensign is designated by a collar device of

Back 64

a)      one gold bar.

Front 65

9.      Petty Officer First Class is designated by a collar device of

Back 65

a)      an eagle perched over three chevrons.

Front 66

10.  Students who are entering the NJROTC program for the first time are most often assigned the grade of

Back 66

a)      cadet seaman recruit.

Front 67

11.  All rate and rank promotions are determined by the naval science instructor.

Back 67

a)      True

Front 68

12.  A cadet Lieutenant (Junior Grade) is designated by a collar device of

Back 68

a)      two attached gold bars.

Front 69

13.  A cadet Commander is designated by a collar device of

Back 69

a)      five attached gold bars.

Front 70

14.  Cadet officers that have shown an aptitude for high leadership in the NJROTC program are generally in their

Back 70

a)      third or fourth year.

Front 71

15.  Cadet Senior Chief Petty Officer (C/SCPO) is designated by a collar device of

Back 71

a)      an eagle and one star perched on a fouled anchor.

Front 72

16.  A chevron on a collar device looks like

Back 72

a)      the letter V.

Front 73

17.  A paygrade of O-2 carries the title

Back 73

a)      Lieutenant Junior Grade

Front 74

18.  The lowest three enlisted pay grades are in the general apprenticeship area before advancement to petty officer pay grades. True or False

Back 74

    True

Front 75

19.  The Navy's rate and rank structure for men and women on active duty is in some ways similar to the rate and rank structure used by the cadets in the NJROTC program. True or False

Back 75

     True

Front 76

20.  When enlisted personnel move up to the next higher rate in their specialty, they do not receive an advancement in pay. True or false

Back 76

    False

Front 77

21.  What are the colors of the collar insignia of a Chief Warrant Officer Three (CWO3)?

Back 77

a)      blue and silver

Front 78

22.  What are the maximum number of stars that can be on an insignia of the Navy Chief Petty Officer rate?

Back 78

a)      3

Front 79

23.  How many gold stripes are on the Blue Service coat sleeve of a Captain in the Navy?

Back 79

a)      4

Front 80

24.  What is the collar insignia of a Navy Commander?

Back 80

a)      oak leaf

Front 81

25.  How many paygrade of admiral exist?

Back 81

a)      4

Front 82

26.  When officers move up to the next rank and paygrade, they have earned a(n) ________.

Back 82

    promotion

Front 83

27.  What is the term that signifies that an enlisted person has moved up to the next higher rate?

Back 83

a)      Advanced

Front 84

What is called the traditional way by which salutes to ships, to high ranking individuals, to nations are carried out?

Back 84

Courtesies

Front 85

National flag, is displayed in or near a polling place. True or False

Back 85

True

Front 86

What is the preferred method of destroying a flag unfit for public display?

Back 86

burning

Front 87

The flag and the national anthem are symbols of _______.

Back 87

all the people, their land, and their institutions.

Front 88

The U.S. flag can be displayed twenty-four hours a day under which of the following situations?

Back 88

When properly illuminated during the hours of darkness

Front 89

The United States flag signifies a people dedicated to _______.

Back 89

Liberty, Justice, freedom for all

Front 90

When the flag is in such condition that it is no longer a fitting emblem for display, the flag is destroyed in a dignified way, preferably how?

Back 90

Burning

Front 91

It is the universal custom to display the United States flag from what start time to what ending time?

Back 91

Sunrise to sunset

Front 92

On what national holiday is the flag flown at half-mast until noon?

Back 92

Memorial Day

Front 94

How long is the salute held during the playing of the national anthem?

Back 94

until the last note of the anthem

Front 95

What does the term "half staff" mean?

Back 95

Position of the flag is half the distance between the top and bottom of the staff

Front 96

When attending an outdoor event in uniform and the U.S. flag is escorted past you, how many paces is it before you render a hand salute?

Back 96

When the flag is 6 paces from you

Front 97

When you are in uniform and outdoors and you hear the national anthem played and the flag is not visible, what do you do?

Back 97

Stand at attention, face the music and render a salute

Front 98

On a military base, at the first note of the national anthem, what should all vehicles/passengers do?

Back 98

Come to a complete stop, then sit quietly until last note

Front 99

What should you do if, while outdoors in civilian clothes, you hear the national anthem but the flag is not visible?

Back 99

Stand at attention and face in the direction of the music

Front 100

What is the position of a flag when it is flown at "Half-Staff"?

Back 100

one-half the distance between the top and the bottom of the staff

Front 101

Why is the flag flown at half-mast?

Back 101

to honor and pay respect to deceased persons of national importance

Front 102

When do military formations recite the Pledge of Allegiance?

Back 102

never

Front 103

How many words are there in the pledge of allegiance?

Back 103

31

Front 104

Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance says that our country is incapable of being divided during troublesome times?

Back 104

Indivisible

Front 105

Which of the following words of the pledge of allegiance describes a body of people associated with a particular territory, who are conscious of their unity?

Back 105

One nation

Front 106

The senior officer taking part in a ceremony is referred to as the _______

Back 106

Commander of Troops

Front 107

Which of the following is NOT a type of ceremony?

Back 107

inspection

Front 109

What is the signal for the start of the official duty day?

Back 109

Reveille

Front 110

A signal for the end of a duty day; also serves as a ceremony for paying respect to the flag.

Back 110

Retreat

Front 111

If Marine and Navy units are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the Marine units are placed where, in respect to the Navy units?

Back 111

ahead of

Front 112

The second in command during a review is whom?

Back 112

Adjutant

Front 113

Which of the following is NOT a part of a formal review?

Back 113

Keynote address

Front 114

When performing a Pass in Review, the platoon commander executes eyes right when the platoon is within how many paces from the nearest member of the reviewing party?

Back 114

6

Front 115

If three services (Navy, Marine, Army,) are participating jointly in an NROTC unit's review, the order of march is

Back 115

Army, Marine Corps, and Navy.

Front 116

After the reviewing officer has taken his/her position in the reviewing area and the cadets are at attention, the commander of the troops commands _______in review.

Back 116

PASS

Front 117

The line on which the cadets are to form and along which they are to march in the review area is marked out by the

Back 117

host organization for the review.

Front 118

A military review consists of how many parts?

Back 118

4
1. Formation of the unit
2. Presentation and honors
3. Inspection (trooping the line)
4. March in review

Front 119

The proper service order of march in a review is:

Back 119

Army, Marine Corps, Navy

Front 120

The formal part of a review during which an inspection is made is called

Back 120

Trooping the line

Front 121

What is the name of the person who organizes and directs a street parade?

Back 121

Grand Marshal

Front 122

Why should cadets look upon participation in a parade, especially in the civilian community, as an important part of their training?

Back 122

Brings credit to their school and unit

Front 124

Naval science instructors and school officials can learn the condition of many aspects of training, morale, and leadership that exists in their unit by the cadets' _________.

Back 124

appearance.

Front 125

Personnel inspections often require a lot of

Back 125

planning and preparation.

Front 126

One of the positive things that personnel inspection promotes for the cadet is

Back 126

pride in their units, attention to detail, self-discipline.

Front 127

The best part of the personnel inspection is that the naval science instructors gets a chance to see what the cadets ___________

Back 127

have learned

Front 128

When the NJROTC company is forming for inspection, the company falls in by

Back 128

platoons.

Front 129

What is the command given by the company commander at the appointed time for inspection?

Back 129

PREPARE FOR INSPECTION

Front 130

What is the first action the platoon commander of the first (base) platoon gives to his/her cadets?

Back 130

OPEN RANKS, MARCH

Front 131

What command does the platoon commander give after verifying that the alignment is correct in the platoon?

Back 131

READY FRONT, COVER

Front 132

What command does the company commander give after he/she reports the company is ready for inspection?

Back 132

AT EASE

Front 133

What command is given by the platoon commander when the inspecting officer approaches the platoon?

Back 133

ATTENTION

Front 134

Upon completion of the inspection, each platoon commander faces left and orders

Back 134

CLOSE RANKS, MARCH

Front 135

Upon completion of the inspection of each platoon, on which command does the platoon commander move by the most direct route and takes his/her post six paces in front of the center of his/her platoon?

Back 135

MARCH

Front 137

What item is NOT inspected at a personnel inspection?

Back 137

sword

Front 138

Fingernails may be inspected at a personnel inspection. True or False

Back 138

TRUE

Front 139

Rules of conduct that people should follow in society are called

Back 139

ethics

Front 140

What is the name of the stress management program discussed in the cadet field manual?

Back 140

RELIEF

Front 141

The human growth and development characteristic that refers to the traits a person gets from his or her parents, such as skin coloring and height is called

Back 141

heredity.

Front 142

Puberty usually occurs between what ages in boys?

Back 142

11 to 15 years old

Front 143

Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?

Back 143

Value system

Front 144

Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?

Back 144

Fourteen to fifteen years old, Nine to Thirteen years old, Thirteen to sixteen years old.

Front 145

Which characteristic below refers to the influence of their surroundings on a person, such as stress level and availability of nourishing food?

Back 145

Environment

Front 146

What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?

Back 146

Suicide

Front 147

To which of the following symptoms (illnesses) below does stress contribute?

Back 147

Heart disease, Hypertension, Withdrawal

Front 148

Which human growth and development characteristic below is defined as the body's response to demands, real or imagined, in a particular situation?

Back 148

Stress

Front 149

Mumps, polio, chicken pox, and scarlet fever are what type of diseases?

Back 149

infectious

Front 150

Proper foot care includes

Back 150

cleaning and drying, especially between the toes, using absorbant foot powder, wearing comfortable shoes

Front 151

How often should hair be shampoo'ed?

Back 151

at least once a week

Front 152

The science of health is called

Back 152

hygiene

Front 153

A realistic weekly weight loss rate is

Back 153

one-half to 2 pounds per week

Front 154

What are the Five Food Groups?

Back 154

milk, meat, vegetable, fruit, grain

Front 155

What is the only sure method to prevent sexually transmitted diseases (STD's)?

Back 155

Abstinence

Front 156

For growth purposes, plaque utilizes nutrients from food, especially

Back 156

sugar.

Front 157

Which method below is an effective and efficient way of removing plaque from the surface of the tooth?

Back 157

Flossing

Front 158

Rules of conduct that people should follow in society are called

Back 158

ethics

Front 159

What is the name of the stress management program discussed in the cadet field manual?

Back 159

RELIEF

Front 160

The human growth and development characteristic that refers to the traits a person gets from his or her parents, such as skin coloring and height is called

Back 160

heredity.

Front 161

Puberty usually occurs between what ages in boys?

Back 161

11 to 15 years old

Front 162

Which concept below refers to a person who develops a set of beliefs, ideals, interests, likes and dislikes that govern behavior?

Back 162

Value system

Front 163

Puberty usually occurs between what ages in girls?

Back 163

Fourteen to fifteen years old, Nine to Thirteen years old, Thirteen to sixteen years old.

Front 164

Which characteristic below refers to the influence of their surroundings on a person, such as stress level and availability of nourishing food?

Back 164

Environment

Front 165

What is the third greatest cause of death among people aged fifteen to twenty-four?

Back 165

Suicide

Front 166

To which of the following symptoms (illnesses) below does stress contribute?

Back 166

Heart disease, Hypertension, Withdrawal

Front 167

Which human growth and development characteristic below is defined as the body's response to demands, real or imagined, in a particular situation?

Back 167

Stress

Front 168

Mumps, polio, chicken pox, and scarlet fever are what type of diseases?

Back 168

infectious

Front 169

Proper foot care includes

Back 169

cleaning and drying, especially between the toes, using absorbant foot powder, wearing comfortable shoes

Front 177

Which one of the following is described as being a thin transparent film containing bacteria that forms on the tooth surface and hardens into tartar?

Back 177

Plaque

Front 178

Which of the following is an important part of the health and hygiene equation and is essential to supplying the body with all the elements needed to function?

Back 178

Nutrition

Front 179

Which of the following health and hygiene characteristics increases the body's resistance to diseases, promotes digestive and excretory functions, and decreases your risk of heart disease?

Back 179

Proper exercise

Front 180

A condition of complete physical and mental well-being and freedom from disease is known as

Back 180

health.

Front 181

Peanut butter is an example of what food group?

Back 181

Meat

Front 182

What is the name of the small organ at the top of abdomen which produces insulin?

Back 182

pancreas

Front 183

Which of the following drugs come from a plant whose leaves contain an addictive stimulant called nicotine?

Back 183

Tobacco

Front 184

What do we call drugs that underground chemists sometimes try to modify the molecular structures so that they can be several hundred times stronger than the drugs they imitate?

Back 184

Designer drugs

Front 185

In what area of the body does alcohol decrease its ability to metabolize fat?

Back 185

The liver

Front 186

How many teenagers in today's society have a drinking problem?

Back 186

Some 4.6 million

Front 187

Alchol-related accidents are the leading cause of death among young people ages 15-24. True or False

Back 187

True

Front 188

What do we call the tube in which food passes from the mouth to the stomach and where alcoholics have a greater chance of developing cancer?

Back 188

The esophagus

Front 189

The best reason young people should avoid drug abuse is the

Back 189

negative effect on the long-term well-being of the individual.

Front 190

Substance abuse is ________

Back 190

illegal.

Front 192

Recent studies have found that 75 percent of all Americans believe that some kind of regular activity is important. True or False

Back 192

FALSE

Front 193

Recent studies found _____ percent of Americans believe some kind of regular activity is important.

Back 193

90

Front 194

Only about _____ percent of adult Americans do any kind of regular exercise.

Back 194

55

Front 195

Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, heart and all the other parts, to work together efficiently. True or False

Back 195

TRUE

Front 196

Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

Back 196

Cardiovascular fitness

Front 197

Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ethical standards. True or False

Back 197

TRUE

Front 198

Everyone should try to achieve _____________ fitness.

Back 198

total

Front 199

Emotional fitness means being stable and self-controlled, facing reality in an honest manner and having ________ standards.

Back 199

ethical

Front 200

Which of the following areas is NOT one of the four areas of total fitness?

Back 200

Cardiovascular fitness

Front 201

Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?

Back 201

6

Front 202

Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the

Back 202

health-related parts of fitness.

Front 203

Under the skill-related parts to physical fitness, which part is the ability to do strength performance quickly?

Back 203

Power

Front 204

Before you start a vigorous exercise, you should

Back 204

warm-up.

Front 205

The advantage to exercising is

Back 205

enjoying life, looking good, being healthy.

Front 206

What physical fitness part consists of the amount of force one can put forth with your muscles?

Back 206

Strength

Front 207

Out of the eleven parts of physical fitness, how many are considered skill-related parts?

Back 207

6

Front 208

___________ is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving.

Back 208

Balance

Front 209

_________ is the ability to perform a movement or cover a distance is a short period of time.

Back 209

Speed

Front 211

What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?

Back 211

Cardiovascular fitness

Front 213

Cardiovascular fitness, strength, muscular endurance are all parts of the

Back 213

health-related parts of fitness.

Front 214

Physical fitness is the ability of your whole body, including the muscles, skeleton, _______ and all the other parts, to work together efficiently.

Back 214

heart

Front 215

Agility is the ability to change the position of your body quickly and to control the movement of your entire body. True or False

Back 215

TRUE

Front 216

Balance is the ability to keep upright while you are standing still or moving. True or False

Back 216

TRUE

Front 217

Coordination is the ability to do strength performance quickly. True or False

Back 217

FALSE

Front 218

What physical fitness part consists of the ability to exercise the entire body for long periods of time?

Back 218

Cardiovascular fitness

Front 220

For exercise to be beneficial, you need to increase the amount you do over a period of time. This is called

Back 220

Principle of Progression

Front 221

For exercise to be beneficial, you need to exercise _______ times per week.

Back 221

Three times a week

Front 222

Which part listed below does not make up the fitness target zone?

Back 222

Resistance

Front 223

Which of the following principles of a sound exercise program allows you to gradually increase the amount of exercise you do to improve fitness?

Back 223

The Principle of Overload

Front 225

The duration for an effective workout should be how long?

Back 225

Fifteen to thirty minutes long

Front 226

Most experts agree that ________ minutes is the minimum amount of time you should raise your heart rate to build cardiovascular fitness.

Back 226

15

Front 227

Exercise must last at least _____ to _____ minutes to benefit your fitness.

Back 227

15 to 30

Front 228

When doing moderate physical activity with moderate temperatures and humidity prevailing, you should consume adequate amounts of water at

Back 228

20 or 30 minute intervals.

Front 229

What are the three basic types of heat casualties?

Back 229

Heat Cramps, Heat Exhaustion, Heat Stroke

Front 230

What type of heat casualty is caused by strenuous exertion and exposure to high temperatures and humidity, and is usually the result of excessive salt depletion and dehydration?

Back 230

Heat exhaustion

Front 231

When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?

Back 231

If they are feeling a sharp pain in their side, If they feel like they are going to throw up, If they fear for their personal safety.

Front 232

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?

Back 232

sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5-mile-run

Front 233

The 1.5-mile-run is included in the total physical fitness measurement because of the importance of seeing how effective the heart and lungs work to deliver oxygen to the body. True or False

Back 233

TRUE

Front 234

Curl-ups are indicators of upper torso muscular endurance. True or False

Back 234

FALSE

Front 235

Cardio respiratory endurance is the ability to persist in physical activity which demands the use of large amounts of oxygen. True or False

Back 235

TRUE

Front 236

What statement below is NOT true regarding the PFT rules for Push-Ups?

Back 236

shoes must be worn

Front 237

A cadet will pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) when he/she

Back 237

achieves satisfactory in all 4 of the PFT events.

Front 238

The sit-reach test serves as an important functional measure of hip and back flexibility. True or False

Back 238

TRUE

Front 239

The "upper torso" muscular endurance is indicated by which test?

Back 239

Push-ups

Front 240

Cadets must hold the touching of their toes on the sit-reach test for ______ seconds.

Back 240

1 second.

Front 241

The curl-up test (abdominal muscle group endurance) has been identified as an important factor in preventing what type of injury?

Back 241

lower back injury.

Front 242

During the 1.5 mile run a standard quarter-mile running track can be used vice a straight distance course. True or False

Back 242

True

Front 243

What is the only reason permitted for a make-up PFT?

Back 243

valid medical reason

Front 244

The Physical Fitness Test can be conducted ________.

Back 244

once in the fall and once in the spring, for most units.

Front 245

What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who scores an overall point score of "outstanding" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be "satisfactory" in each event?

Back 245

Ribbon with gold lamp

Front 246

The lamp worn on the ribbon reflects the level of achievement from the most recent semi-annual PFT offered by the unit. True or False

Back 246

TRUE

Front 247

What is the minimum physical fitness standard a cadet must achieve in all categories of the entire Physical Fitness Test, regardless of the total number of points earned, to have earned the PFT ribbon?

Back 247

Satisfactory

Front 248

If a cadet earns the silver lamp on the PFT with an overall point score of "excellent," but then scores only a "satisfactory" point score on all portions of the PFT the second time he/she takes the test, what happens to the silver lamp?

Back 248

the silver lamp is removed and the cadet wears just the PFT ribbon.

Front 249

When can cadets call a Training Time Out (TTO)?

Back 249

If they are feeling a sharp pain in their side, If they feel like they are going to throw up, If they fear for their personal safety.

Front 250

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for the Physical Fitness Test (PFT)?

Back 250

sit-reach, curl-ups, push-ups, and the 1.5-mile-run

Front 252

Curl-ups are indicators of upper torso muscular endurance. True or False

Back 252

FALSE

Front 253

Cardio respiratory endurance is the ability to persist in physical activity which demands the use of large amounts of oxygen. True or False

Back 253

TRUE

Front 255

A cadet will pass the Physical Fitness Test (PFT) when he/she

Back 255

achieves satisfactory in all 4 of the PFT events.

Front 256

The sit-reach test serves as an important functional measure of hip and back flexibility. True or False

Back 256

TRUE

Front 257

The "upper torso" muscular endurance is indicated by which test?

Back 257

Push-ups

Front 261

What is the only reason permitted for a make-up PFT?

Back 261

valid medical reason

Front 267

What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "good" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?

Back 267

Bronze lamp

Front 269

The commander of a physical fitness team does not wear the gold anchor on the Physical Fitness Ribbon.

Back 269

FALSE

Front 270

What ribbon device is awarded to the cadet who has an overall point score of "excellent" on the PFT and achieves the minimum requirements to be satisfactory in each event?

Back 270

Silver lamp

Front 271

Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?

Back 271

To gain insights on safety prevention

Front 272

What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?

Back 272

Check for breathing

Front 273

Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?

Back 273

The tongue

Front 274

Primary first aid for complete airway obstruction in a conscious victim is the

Back 274

Heimlich maneuver

Front 275

Which of the following is the emergency procedure used for the casualty who is not breathing and whose heart has stopped beating?

Back 275

Heimlich maneuver, Shock treatment, Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), None of the above

Front 276

Which of the following statements is true concerning the primary objective of first aid?

Back 276

To maintain an open airway, To maintain breathing if all possible, To maintain circulation

Front 277

Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?

Back 277

Cast

Front 278

What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?

Back 278

Capillary bleeding

Front 279

What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.

Back 279

Arterial bleeding

Front 280

What is the type of bleeding that is dark red, and flows in a steady stream?

Back 280

Bleeding from veins

Front 281

Which one of the following terms describes the use of pressure points in the body to help control arterial bleeding?

Back 281

Indirect pressure

Front 282

Which one of the following is the first and most effective method of controlling bleeding?

Back 282

Direct pressure

Front 283

Which of the following refers to the failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body?

Back 283

Shock

Front 284

What is the basic position for treating shock?

Back 284

Position victim's head lower than the feet

Front 285

The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

Back 285

bleeding and infection.

Front 286

The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

Back 286

soft tissue injuries.

Front 287

A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a

Back 287

closed wound.

Front 288

What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?

Back 288

Closed fracture

Front 289

What do we call a bodily injury to the ligaments that support a joint?

Back 289

Sprain

Front 290

Which of the following statements describes how burns are classified?

Back 290

The depth of injury to the tissue

Front 292

In case of chemical burns, first flush the area immediately with large quantities of

Back 292

fresh water.

Front 293

First aid procedures for dangerous chemicals may be found in the

Back 293

Material Safety Data Sheet.

Front 294

The ________ is used to give a rough estimate of the surface area burned on the body of a casualty.

Back 294

Rule of Nines.

Front 295

Which of the following is caused by excessive loss of water and salt?

Back 295

Heat exhaustion

Front 296

Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?

Back 296

Chemical burns

Front 297

Which of the following is caused when the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweating mechanism and is unable to get rid of excessive body heat?

Back 297

Heat stroke

Front 298

Which of the following is caused by muscle pains and spasms that result from a loss of water?

Back 298

Heat cramps

Front 299

Which of the following burns are caused by direct contact with electricity?

Back 299

Electrical burns

Front 300

Which of the following burns are caused by exposure to hot solids, liquids, gases, or fire?

Back 300

Thermal burns

Front 301

Which of the following burns involve all layers of the skin, penetrating into muscle, connective tissue, and bone?

Back 301

Third-degree burns

Front 302

Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?

Back 302

First-degree

Front 303

Which of the following burns involve the first and part of the second layer of the skin?

Back 303

Second-degree burns

Front 304

Which of the following is caused by prolonged exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow, or ice?

Back 304

Hypothermia

Front 305

Dry heat causes burns; moist heat causes

Back 305

scalds

Front 306

Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of first aid?

Back 306

To gain insights on safety prevention

Front 308

What first aid measure should be taken after determining the extent of the patient's injury?

Back 308

Check for breathing

Front 309

Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in a casualty who is unconscious?

Back 309

The tongue

Front 311

Which of the following is the emergency procedure used for the casualty who is not breathing and whose heart has stopped beating?

Back 311

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Front 312

Which of the following statements is true concerning the primary objective of first aid?

Back 312

To maintain an open AIRWAY To maintain BREATHING if all possible, To maintain CIRCULATION

Front 313

Which one of the following methods is NOT used to control bleeding?

Back 313

Cast

Front 314

What is the type of bleeding in which blood flow is slow and blood oozes from the wound?

Back 314

Capillary bleeding

Front 315

What is the type of bleeding in which the bleeding is bright red, and the blood spurts from the wound? This type of bleeding is life threatening and difficult to control.

Back 315

Capillary bleeding, Bleeding from the veins, Inward bleeding, None of the above

Front 322

The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

Back 322

bleeding and infection.

Front 323

The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

Back 323

soft tissue injuries.

Front 324

A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a

Back 324

closed wound.

Front 325

What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?

Back 325

Closed fracture

Front 338

Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?

Back 338

First-degree

Front 351

Which one of the following is the first and most effective method of controlling bleeding?

Back 351

Direct pressure

Front 352

Which of the following refers to the failure of the heart and blood vessels to maintain enough oxygen-rich blood flowing to the vital organs of the body?

Back 352

Shock

Front 353

What is the basic position for treating shock?

Back 353

Position victim's head lower than the feet

Front 354

The two main threats with soft tissue injuries are

Back 354

bleeding and infection.

Front 355

The most common injuries in a first aid situation are

Back 355

soft tissue injuries.

Front 356

A injury to the underlying tissues without a break in the skin or membrane is called a

Back 356

closed wound.

Front 357

What bodily injury occurs when a bone is forced out of its joint?

Back 357

Closed fracture

Front 358

What do we call a bodily injury to the ligaments that support a joint?

Back 358

Sprain

Front 359

Which of the following statements describes how burns are classified?

Back 359

The depth of injury to the tissue

Front 360

In case of chemical burns, first flush the area immediately with large quantities of

Back 360

fresh water.

Front 361

First aid procedures for dangerous chemicals may be found in the

Back 361

Materail Safety Data Sheet.

Front 362

Used to give a rough estimate of the surface area burned on the body of a casualty.

Back 362

Rule of Nines.

Front 363

Which of the following is caused by excessive loss of water and salt?

Back 363

Heat exhaustion

Front 364

Which of the following burns result from exposure to acids, alkalies, or other strong chemicals?

Back 364

Thermal burns, Chemical burns, Electrical burns, None of the above

Front 365

Which of the following is caused when the casualty experiences a breakdown of the sweating mechanism and is unable to get rid of excessive body heat?

Back 365

Heat stroke

Front 366

Which of the following is caused by muscle pains and spasms that result from a loss of water?

Back 366

Heat cramps

Front 367

Which of the following burns are caused by direct contact with electricity?

Back 367

Thermal burns, Chemical burns, Electrical burns, None of the above

Front 368

Which of the following burns are caused by exposure to hot solids, liquids, gases, or fire?

Back 368

Thermal burns

Front 369

Which of the following burns involve all layers of the skin, penetrating into muscle, connective tissue, and bone?

Back 369

Third-degree burns

Front 370

Which of the following burns involve only the first layer of the skin?

Back 370

First-degree

Front 371

Which of the following burns involve the first and part of the second layer of the skin?

Back 371

Second-degree burns

Front 372

Which of the following is caused by prolonged exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow, or ice?

Back 372

Hypothermia

Front 373

Dry heat causes burns; moist heat causes

Back 373

scalds

Front 374

Never rub or massage areas of the body affected by

Back 374

frostbite

Front 375

Swelling around the fang marks of a poisonous snakebite occurs usually within

Back 375

5-10 minutes

Front 376

When using a blanket drag to transport a casualty, place the victim

Back 376

face up on the blanket.

Front 377

The tied-hands crawl is appropriate to transport

Back 377

an unconscious casualty a short distance

Front 378

If a casualty suffers a seizure, what should you do?

Back 378

move all objects out of the way

Front 379

The sport of orienteering originated in

Back 379

Scandinavia.

Front 380

Which of the following is a sport that involves land navigation over unfamiliar terrain with a map and compass?

Back 380

Orienteering

Front 381

What color is used to symbolize open, unforested land on an orienteering map?

Back 381

yellow

Front 382

Geographical features identified in green on an orienteering map are

Back 382

vegetation requiring unusual effort to traverse.

Front 383

Which of the following is the correct number of standardized colors used on topographic and orienteering maps?

Back 383

Five

Front 384

The __________ _______ is the difference between true north and magnetic north.

Back 384

declination angle

Front 385

Brown lines on a topographical or orienteering map are called

Back 385

contour lines.

Front 386

What is the feature appearing on the map as a "U" or a "V" shape and representing a small valley called?

Back 386

Re-entrant

Front 387

Which of the following colors on topographic and orienteering maps describe forests with little or no undergrowth that allows for easy passage?

Back 387

White

Front 388

Which of the following in the borders of a map is like a table of contents and introduction of a book?

Back 388

Marginal information

Front 389

Topographical maps made specifically for orienteering are typically drawn to a scale of

Back 389

1:10,000 and 1:15,000.

Front 390

What does the color white represent on orienteering maps?

Back 390

forest with no undergrowth

Front 391

What is the most widely used compass used for orienteering which was designed in the early 1930s?

Back 391

Silva Type 3

Front 392

An orienteer has determined his/her "pace count" running is 50 (same foot striking the ground). If the distance to travel between two controls is 200 meters, how many paces (running) would be required to traverse this leg?

Back 392

100

Front 393

The experienced orienteer will often select an easily located map feature within 100 to 150 meters of the control point as an intermediate destination or

Back 393

attack point.

Front 394

Which of the following land navigation techniques refers to the orienteer looking at the map to get a general idea of where to go?

Back 394

Rough orienteering

Front 395

An easily recognizable map feature within 100-150 meters of a control point is called a (an)

Back 395

attack point.

Front 396

When navigating in flat terrain, orienteers should avoid stretches between readily identifiable waypoints of more than

Back 396

600 meters.

Front 397

Which land navigation technique below is a method by which the orienteer uses the compass to determine the bearing or azimuth to be followed?

Back 397

The beeline

Front 398

In hill country, two important considerations for route selection are

Back 398

slope and profile.

Front 399

Which land navigation technique below involves following an azimuth to the right or left or slightly beyond a hidden control point until reaching a prominent linear catch feature such as a road, fence, pond, or hillside that passes though the control?

Back 399

Aiming off

Front 400

Which of the following is a location (usually a linear boundary feature like a perimeter road) where an orienteer may go in the event of injury, excessive fatigue, or becoming lost?

Back 400

Safety lanes

Front 401

Color-coded orienteering courses from easiest (shortest) to most difficult are

Back 401

white, yellow, orange, brown, green, red, and blue.

Front 402

A type of orienteering competition where controls may be visited in any order and point values are assigned each control is called

Back 402

score-O.

Front 403

Participation in organized orienteering events is required for cadet qualification in orienteering.

Back 403

FALSE

Front 404

A baked opossum contains how many grams of fat?

Back 404

10.6

Front 405

Which of the following is an example of tinder?

Back 405

paper

Front 406

The 3 major constituents of foods are

Back 406

carbohydrates, fats, proteins

Front 407

A person that ignores an otherwise healthy food source because it is unappetizing

Back 407

risks survival.

Front 408

Rafts, parachutes, and tarpaulins are shelters that can be erected quickly with minimum effort. What are these shelters called?

Back 408

Immediate action shelters

Front 409

What is the single most important factor in determining ability to survive in cold climates?

Back 409

Shelter preparation

Front 410

What two items are just as necessary as food and water for a stranded person?

Back 410

Shelter and sleep

Front 411

Which of the following is described as being the most urgent need in a survival situation?

Back 411

Water

Front 412

Which of the following is a survivor's second most urgent need in a survival situation?

Back 412

Food

Front 413

An adequate shelter

Back 413

serves as a place to rest, and protection from the effects of the environment.

Front 414

Which of the following is described as being a key step to take if you know that you might be in a survival situation in a wilderness area?

Back 414

Prepare a survival kit

Front 415

To maintain efficiency, survivors require a minimum daily caloric intake of

Back 415

2,000 calories.

Front 416

What are the two fundamental goals of a survivor?

Back 416

Maintain life, and return

Front 417

What does a survivor have to do to beat all odds against them to survive in a survival situation?

Back 417

Develop a survival pattern

Front 418

Shelters that are easy to construct and dismantle in a short period of time are called

Back 418

improvised shelters.

Front 419

What are the four principle types of tropical jungle?

Back 419

Mangrove, primary jungle, secondary jungle, high mountain jungle forest

Front 420

Traveling in a jungle environment would be greatly aided by the use of a

Back 420

machete.

Front 421

Which of the following jungle types is probably the most difficult type of terrain in which to travel and find food?

Back 421

High mountain jungle

Front 422

Which of the following tropical jungle types is characterized by large trees and a network of vines?

Back 422

Primary jungle

Front 423

Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a swamp-like assembly of tangled roots and interwoven branches, often with a mud floor under a foot or more of brackish water?

Back 423

Mangrove jungle

Front 424

Which of the following jungle types is characterized by a very dense growth of smaller vegetation at ground level, often impenetrable except by use of machetes to cut through it?

Back 424

Secondary jungle

Front 425

In a cold climate, you should keep your head and ears covered to prevent

Back 425

loss of body heat.

Front 426

Good cold weather protection is given in clothing made of

Back 426

wool.

Front 427

What percent of the Earth is covered by water?

Back 427

70

Front 428

The three types of commands in military drill are

Back 428

preparatory, command of execution, supplemental

Front 429

The best way to develop a command voice is to

Back 429

practice.

Front 430

Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?

Back 430

punctuality

Front 431

The term "element" in military drill refers to

Back 431

any unit which is part of a larger unit.

Front 432

The command COLUMN HALF RIGHT (LEFT) MARCH requires a turn of

Back 432

45 degrees.

Front 433

The three types of commands in military drill are

Back 433

preparatory, command of execution, supplemental

Front 434

The best way to develop a command voice is to

Back 434

practice.

Front 435

Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?

Back 435

punctuality

Front 436

The term "element" in military drill refers to

Back 436

any unit which is part of a larger unit.

Front 437

The three types of commands in military drill are

Back 437

preparatory, command of execution, supplemental

Front 438

The best way to develop a command voice is to

Back 438

practice.

Front 439

Which of the following is NOT a characterisitic of an effective command voice?

Back 439

punctuality

Front 440

The term "element" in military drill refers to

Back 440

any unit which is part of a larger unit.

Front 441

The command COLUMN HALF RIGHT (LEFT) MARCH requires a turn of

Back 441

45 degrees.

Front 442

When marching in "quick time," the cadence is

Back 442

120 (30-inch) steps per minute.

Front 443

The rhythmic rate of march at a uniform step is called

Back 443

Cadence

Front 444

A file is a formation in which persons are placed

Back 444

one behind the other.

Front 445

The steps in military drill that are 15 inches in length are

Back 445

half step and back step.

Front 446

The 40-inch "distance" in military drill refers to the

Back 446

space between the chest of one cadet and the back of the cadet ahead.

Front 447

In NJROTC the purpose of a Training Time Out (TTO) is

Back 447

an appropriate means for a cadet to obtain relief if he/she is experiencing discomfort during the training exercise.

Front 448

The term "formation" in military drill refers to

Back 448

an arrangement of elements of a unit "in line" or "in column."

Front 449

What is the formation called in which the persons are abreast of (side by side) each other?

Back 449

Rank

Front 450

What is the formation called in which the persons are placed one behind the other?

Back 450

File

Front 451

When in files, the space between the chest of one cadet and the back of the cadet ahead is called

Back 451

Distance.

Front 452

What is the lateral distance measured between individuals from shoulder to shoulder, on the same line called?

Back 452

Interval

Front 453

The distance from heel to heel between the feet of a person marching is called the guide.

Back 453

FALSE

Front 454

Pace is the length of a full step in quick time, approximately 30 inches.

Back 454

TRUE

Front 455

The Guidon Bearer is the person who carries the platoon or squad flag.

Back 455

TRUE

Front 456

Alignment is the space occupied by an element or formation, as measured from one flank to the other.

Back 456

FALSE

Front 457

Mass formation is the formation of a company or larger unit in which the major elements are in column at close interval and abreast at close interval.

Back 457

TRUE

Front 458

Platoons in a company and cadets in a squad are numbered from left to right in line, and from front to rear in column.

Back 458

FALSE

Front 459

When overtaking an officer on foot, the salute should be given

Back 459

when abreast of the officer.

Front 460

Which one of the following commands is given that allows you to leave your place in ranks but you remain nearby?

Back 460

FALL OUT

Front 461

If not armed when the command "PRESENT, ARMS" is given, you execute the hand salute and stay in that position until what command is given?

Back 461

ORDER, ARMS

Front 462

When you are at "EYES RIGHT," your head is turned smartly to the right and you look at a

Back 462

45 degree angle.

Front 463

How many movements (counts) are required when given a "RIGHT, FACE" command?

Back 463

2

Front 464

Which one of the following is NOT a position of rest when halted?

Back 464

ATTENTION

Front 465

Which of the following is NOT a correct action when the command "AT EASE" is given?

Back 465

You may talk

Front 466

In which of the following examples does an ennlisted person NOT salute an officer?

Back 466

When at mess and addressed by an officer

Front 467

At the position of Parade Rest

Back 467

your right hand is inside your left hand behind your back.

Front 468

Which one of the following commands can only be given when you are at parade rest?

Back 468

ATTENTION

Front 469

When the command "PARADE, REST is given, what action is taken concerning your feet?

Back 469

Move your left foot smartly 12 inches to the left.

Front 470

When the command "ATTENTION" is given, you turn your feet out equally to form an angle of how many degrees?

Back 470

45 Degrees

Front 471

When at the halt, the command to march forward taking 30-inch steps is

Back 471

FORWARD, MARCH.

Front 472

What is the command given to return to the position of attention when you are at "EYES RIGHT?"

Back 472

READY, FRONT

Front 473

The length of a full step, in quick time, is how many inches?

Back 473

30

Front 474

During movements while marching, the direction toward which alignment is obtained is the direction toward which the movement is made.

Back 474

TRUE

Front 475

How many steps per minute are being performed at double time?

Back 475

180

Front 476

On the command "CHANGE STEP, MARCH" while at quick time

Back 476

"MARCH" is given on the right foot.

Front 477

On the command "RIGHT STEP, MARCH" while at the halt

Back 477

the right step movement can be repeated at 120 steps per minute.

Front 478

Which of the following movements is executed in five counts?

Back 478

Order arms from left shoulder arms

Front 479

The position of attention with the rifle is

Back 479

order arms

Front 480

Another way of saluting when under arms is _____ _____.

Back 480

Present arms.

Front 481

When at trail arms, the salute is the same as for order arms except that the butt of the rifle is held _______inches off the ground at the trail.

Back 481

3

Front 482

As you place the rifle on your shoulder on the command RIGHT SHOULDER, ARMS, your left hand slides to the small of the stock. The first joint of your left forefinger should be touching the

Back 482

rear of the receiver.

Front 483

Which of the following movements is executed in four counts?

Back 483

Left shoulder arms from order arms

Front 484

Which of the following movements is executed in two-counts?

Back 484

Left shoulder arms from port arms

Front 485

At the position of right (left) shoulder arms, the forearm on the right (left) arm must be _________ to the deck.

Back 485

Parallel

Front 486

The demilitarized Mark 5 or Mark 6 service rile may also be called the

Back 486

M-1 rifle.

Front 487

All NJROTC cadets are expected to become proficient in the Manual of Arms during the first

Back 487

two years.

Front 488

All drill movements are to be executed with ____________. If performed in cadence, they should be done in _____________ time.

Back 488

snap..., quick

Front 489

Which part of the drill rifle is included in your grip whenever the left hand grasps the rifle at the point of balance (for example at port arms)?

Back 489

Sling

Front 490

Which of the following is the position of attention when armed with the rifle?

Back 490

Order arms

Front 491

Which part of the drill rifle rests in the "V" formed by the thumb and forefinger of your right hand?

Back 491

Hand guard

Front 492

When the position of order arms is properly executed, the ________ of the rifle rests on the deck and the _______ rests along the outer edge of the right shoe?

Back 492

butt..., stock

Front 493

A rifle salute CANNOT be given from which of the following positions?

Back 493

Sling arms

Front 494

Identify the rifle position described: The rifle is held across your body in a 45-degree angle with the butt in front of your right hip. Your right hand is at the small part of the stock. The rifle is 4 inches in front of the center of your chest.

Back 494

Port arms

Front 495

Going to port arms from right shoulder arms requires a _____-count movement.

Back 495

Two

Front 496

What rifle position must you come to when given the command INSPECTION, ARMS, and when being dismissed under arms?

Back 496

Port arms

Front 497

Which command below is another way of saluting when under arms?

Back 497

PRESENT, ARMS

Front 498

When is the command given for returning the sword to the scabbard?

Back 498

When at carry or order sword

Front 499

The sword salute is of what origin?

Back 499

crusader

Front 500

Which of the following is the CORRECT command given when drawing the sword?

Back 500

DRAW, SWORD

Front 501

What command directs the cadet to bring the point of the sword down smartly to a position three inches above the ground and slightly right of the your left foot?

Back 501

SWORD (ARMS)

Front 502

The sword is a symbol of

Back 502

authority and badge of office.

Front 503

The etiquette of the sword is more often called which of the following?

Back 503

Manual of the Sword

Front 504

What is the most serious breach of sword etiquette?

Back 504

Dropping a sword when making the sword salute

Front 505

The arch of swords and the cutting of a cake are commonly conducted at the annual

Back 505

Military Ball

Front 506

What part of the sword is made of bone, ivory, or special hard white plastic?

Back 506

The sword grip

Front 507

Where is the sword stored when it is NOT in formation?

Back 507

Scabbard

Front 508

What position are you in when drawing the sword and your thumb is against your trousers seam and the rest of your fingers are joined behind the scabbard?

Back 508

Carry sword

Front 509

The command to go to the position of present sword may be which of the following?

Back 509

All of the above

Front 510

What command is given ONLY when halted at order sword or when marching at carry sword?

Back 510

EYES, RIGHT (LEFT)

Front 511

What command is given when the platoon is at ease or rest?

Back 511

PLATOON, ATTENTION

Front 512

What command is NORMALLY given to the platoon from order sword (arms)?

Back 512

Parade Rest

Front 513

What command is given to push smartly down on and release the grip of the sword so that the sword slides all the way into the scabbard?

Back 513

SWORD

Front 514

The command "Carry SWORD" can only be given when halted at

Back 514

Order Sword or Present Sword.

Front 515

In the "Arch of Swords" ceremony, after the arch honorees have cleared the arch, the senior cadet usher gives what command?

Back 515

"Return SWORD"

Front 516

Which sword movement is a survival of fancy moves made in seventeenth century military reviews?

Back 516

Sword salute on the march

Front 517

In the ceremony known as "the cutting of the cake," the company commander's date cuts the cake with the company commander's sword. The first piece of cake goes to

Back 517

the spouse of the Senior Naval Science Instructor or other honoree.

Front 518

What characteristics make a good guidon bearer?

Back 518

All the above are correct

Front 519

The flat part of the spearhead of a guidon should always face

Back 519

front.

Front 520

What is the Guidon?

Back 520

An identification flag

Front 521

When is the guidon NORMALLY displayed?

Back 521

All of the above are correct

Front 522

Who selects the guidon bearer?

Back 522

The SNSI (Senior Naval Science Instructor)

Front 523

When the ferrule rests on the ground touching the right shoe to the right of the toes, the position is called?

Back 523

Order guidon

Front 524

What is the normal position of the guidon while marching at quick time?

Back 524

Carry guidon

Front 525

The execution of carry guidon from order guidon is begun on the preparatory command of a movement such as

Back 525

FORWARD, MARCH.

Front 526

The position of ready guidon may be used as a signal for the execution of any command except

Back 526

present arms and eyes right (left).

Front 527

What guidon position is used as a signal for helping the cadets in the execution of commands where hearing verbal commands is difficult?

Back 527

Ready guidon

Front 528

The command GUIDON, SALUTE is executed in ___________count(s).

Back 528

Two

Front 529

Which of the following commands is given when the guidon bearer moves his/her left hand, palm down, to a position approximately 18 inches above his/her right hand, keeping the left arm parallel to the ground?

Back 529

SALUTE

Front 530

The command PARADE, REST for the guidon bearer is executed in ______count(s).

Back 530

One

Front 531

The flagstaff topping ornament for the guidon shall be the

Back 531

spearhead.

Front 532

What characteristics make a good guidon bearer?

Back 532

All the above are correct

Front 533

The flat part of the spearhead of a guidon should always face

Back 533

front.

Front 534

What is the Guidon?

Back 534

An identification flag

Front 535

When is the guidon NORMALLY displayed?

Back 535

All of the above are correct

Front 537

Who selects the guidon bearer?

Back 537

The SNSI (Senior Naval Science Instructor)

Front 538

When the ferrule rests on the ground touching the right shoe to the right of the toes, the position is called?

Back 538

Order guidon

Front 540

What is the normal position of the guidon while marching at quick time?

Back 540

Carry guidon

Front 541

The execution of carry guidon from order guidon is begun on the preparatory command of a movement such as

Back 541

FORWARD, MARCH.

Front 542

The position of ready guidon may be used as a signal for the execution of any command except

Back 542

present arms and eyes right (left).

Front 543

What guidon position is used as a signal for helping the cadets in the execution of commands where hearing verbal commands is difficult?

Back 543

Ready guidon

Front 544

The command GUIDON, SALUTE is executed in ___________count(s).

Back 544

Two

Front 545

Which of the following commands is given when the guidon bearer moves his/her left hand, palm down, to a position approximately 18 inches above his/her right hand, keeping the left arm parallel to the ground?

Back 545

SALUTE

Front 546

The command PARADE, REST for the guidon bearer is executed in ______count(s).

Back 546

One

Front 547

The flagstaff topping ornament for the guidon shall be the

Back 547

spearhead.

Front 548

What movement is the platoon performing when the guidon bearer brings the staff of the guidon diagonally across his/her body with the flagstaff topping ornament to the left?

Back 548

Double time march

Front 549

What command is given for the guidon to be lowered straight to the front until the staff is resting in the guidon bearer's right armpit and horizontal to the ground?

Back 549

PRESENT, ARMS

Front 550

What command is given from fall out when the guidon bearer goes back to his/her position in the formation and stands at attention at order guidon?

Back 550

FALL IN

Front 551

What time of the day is the national ensign hoisted and lowered?

Back 551

0800 and the end of the day

Front 552

Which of the following steps is correct in folding the flag?

Back 552

Fold the flag the long way so the crease parallels the red and white stripes

Front 553

What is the staff ornament for the national ensign when displayed on the eight-foot pole in an NJROTC color guard?

Back 553

Spearhead

Front 554

During evening colors, the ensign is lowered

Back 554

slowly.

Front 555

What is the staff ornament for the national ensign, when displayed on the nine and a half foot pole in the NJROTC color guard?

Back 555

The Battle-ax

Front 556

When referring to the national ensign, you are referring to?

Back 556

The American flag

Front 557

The size of the color guard

Back 557

may vary.

Front 558

The flag detail should be composed of one petty officer and

Back 558

two nonrated cadets.

Front 559

Execution is begun on the preparatory command for which of the following color guard commands?

Back 559

All of the above

Front 560

The color guard marches at the normal cadence of

Back 560

112-120 thirty-inch steps per minute (quick time).

Front 561

Which of the following gives the correct definition of the term "colors"?

Back 561

Organizational or National colors

Front 562

The national ensign should be flown from the

Back 562

truck of the mast/peak of the mast.

Front 563

Which of the following executes "present arms" at the preparatory command, PRESENT?

Back 563

National Color

Front 564

When at present colors, the organizational colors staff is

Back 564

inclined to the front.

Front 565

What is the American flag called when mounted on a staff and carried by individuals on foot?

Back 565

National Colors

Front 566

What part of the flagstaff are the halyards secured to?

Back 566

The cleats

Front 567

On what command does the color guard (with rifles) execute right and left shoulder arms?

Back 567

CARRY, COLOR

Front 568

What is the command given when changing from order colors to present colors?

Back 568

PRESENT, ARMS

Front 569

What is the command given when changing from present colors to order colors?

Back 569

ORDER, COLORS (ARMS)

Front 570

What command is given only when halted at order colors, or while marching at carry colors?

Back 570

EYES, RIGHT (LEFT)

Front 571

On the command of execution of order color from carry color, all color bearers should simultaneously grip the staff above the lower ferrule

Back 571

with the left hand and remove the ferrule from the sling socket.

Front 572

This command is executed while halted, marking time or marching. When marking time or marching, this command is given as the left foot strikes the deck.

Back 572

COUNTERMARCH, MARCH

Front 573

Which is correct for executing "TO THE REAR, MARCH" when at quick time?

Back 573

Take one more step on the command of execution and pivot on both feet at the same time.

Front 574

When executing a left or a right "flanking" movement, how many degrees to the right or left are the cadets turning simultaneously?

Back 574

90

Front 575

Which hand removes your cover when the command "UNCOVER, TWO" is given?

Back 575

Right hand

Front 576

What command is given to form the squad?

Back 576

FALL IN

Front 577

What command is given to align a squad at normal interval?

Back 577

DRESS RIGHT, DRESS

Front 578

When the command "COLUMN RIGHT (LEFT), MARCH" is given, how many steps does the leading cadet advance before pivoting on the ball of the right (left) foot?

Back 578

One full step

Front 579

When executing a left or a right "oblique" movement, how many degrees to the right or left are the cadets turning simultaneously?

Back 579

45

Front 580

How many cadets are there normally under the direction of the squad leader?

Back 580

8 but not more than 12

Front 581

When the squad is armed with Rifles, what command is given when moving short distances?

Back 581

"Trail, ARMS"

Front 582

During all drill movements, the squad leader remains centered at a distance of _________ from the squad.

Back 582

3 paces

Front 583

How many individuals make up a squad?

Back 583

12-Aug

Front 584

If the squad executes a _______ ______ while marching, the squad leader, who is facing the squad, executes a left step in cadence with the squad to maintain proper position?

Back 584

Right step

Front 585

If the squad executes a ______ ______ while marching, the squad leader executes a half step in cadence with the squad to maintain proper position.

Back 585

Back step

Front 586

When dismissing the squad, what command is given to dismiss armed troops?

Back 586

"Inspection ARMS; and DISMISSED"

Front 587

When dismissing the squad, what command is given to dismiss unarmed troops?

Back 587

"DISMISSED"

Front 588

On this command, individuals providing interval place the heel of their left hand on their hip with the elbow in line with their body and members gaining interval move by short steps until their right arm touches the elbow of the individual to the left.

Back 588

"At Close Interval, Dress Right, DRESS"

Front 589

"Dress Right (Left), DRESS" and "At Close Interval, Dress Right, DRESS" are commands given to

Back 589

Align the squad

Front 590

When forming an armed squad, members fall in with weapons at the position of ____________.

Back 590

Order Arms

Front 591

What command concludes the movement Dress Right Dress?

Back 591

"Ready, FRONT"

Front 592

"Column Right (Left), MARCH" and "Column Half Right (Left), MARCH" are commands used to

Back 592

change direction of a column

Front 593

On the command of FALL IN, the guide posts himself/herself so that the first rank will be three paces from and centered on the platoon

Back 593

mustering petty officer.

Front 594

When the platoon is formed in line at normal interval, where is the platoon commander positioned?

Back 594

6 paces in front of and centered on the platoon

Front 595

What command is given for all cadets in the company to form lines in line formation four paces between platoons?

Back 595

FALL IN

Front 596

What command is given when the guide raises his/her left arm to obtain proper interval during alignment of the platoon?

Back 596

DRESS RIGHT, DRESS

Front 597

How are squads numbered in a platoon?

Back 597

Right to left in column and from front to rear in line

Front 598

How are changes in platoon formation to be executed in a platoon unless specified that the platoon be at close interval?

Back 598

Normal interval and distance between files and ranks

Front 599

What command would you use to cause your platoon to make a 45-degree left turn in column?

Back 599

"Left, OBLIQUE"

Front 600

When in formation, the platoon normally forms in line with the squad leaders on the _______ of their squads and the guide on the _______ of the first squad leader.

Back 600

Right, Right

Front 601

When the mustering petty officer forms the platoon he/she takes how many paces in front of the point where the center of the platoon will be?

Back 601

3 paces

Front 602

When forming a platoon, the other squad leaders take up positions behind the leader of the first squad at a distance of

Back 602

40 inches

Front 603

What is the purpose of the movement "Count OFF" in a platoon?

Back 603

Designate relative positions in ranks of each member of the platoon

Front 604

The movement Open Ranks increases the distance between ranks how many inches to accommodate the movements of an inspection party or to stack arms?

Back 604

70 inches

Front 605

When forming the platoon for physical drill, what is the command given by the platoon commander in order to designate odd and even ranks?

Back 605

From Front to Rear, Count, OFF"

Front 606

What is the purpose of Files and Reform movements?

Back 606

To diminish the front of the platoon in column.

Front 607

The purpose of Closing Ranks in a platoon is to decrease the distance between open ranks to what distance?

Back 607

40 inches

Front 608

For slight changes of direction of a column, the command is?

Back 608

A."INCLINE TO THE RIGHT (LEFT)"

Front 609

What is the purpose of the movement MARCHING IN THE OBLIQUE?

Back 609

To shift the line of march to the right or left for a short distance and resume marching in the original direction.

Front 610

To teach the platoon to march to the oblique, the leader aligns the unit facing

Back 610

Half right (left)

Front 611

To close the interval between files in a column to 4 inches, the command is

Back 611

"Close, MARCH"

Front 612

To temporarily halt a squad in the oblique direction, in order to correct errors, the command is

Back 612

"In Place, HALT"

Front 613

To halt the squad facing the original direction of march the command is

Back 613

Platoon, HALT

Front 614

How many platoons do most NJROTC units have in their company?

Back 614

3

Front 615

In company drill, the basic drill unit is the

Back 615

platoon

Front 616

When the company commander is absent, who takes the post and drills the company?

Back 616

The senior officer present

Front 617

For company drill and ceremonies, the unit guidon bearer takes what position relative to the company commander?

Back 617

1 pace to the rear and 1 pace to the left

Front 618

When the company forms in line, how far apart are the platoons of the company?

Back 618

4 paces

Front 619

After a company is formed by an officer, the officer gives the command __________ at which time each platoon commander salutes and says, "Sir/Ma'am, all present or accounted for," or "Sir/Ma'am, cadets absent."

Back 619

"REPORT"

Front 620

During company drill, when brining a platoon on line with a halted element, the platoon commander turns his/her head and eyes towards the halted element to give the command to

Back 620

Halt or mark time

Front 621

When the senior enlisted cadet forms the company in line with those personnel to receive awards, promotions, etc. the first recipient in the priority sequence is

Back 621

cadet awards.

Front 622

At the command "FALL IN," the company forms in line formation

Back 622

at normal interval.

Front 623

When does the company form at close interval?

Back 623

For roll call or when space is limited

Front 624

Normally, the company is initially formed by

Back 624

The senior officer present

Front 625

If the company has been dismissed for a short period of time, to save time it may be reformed by

Back 625

The company commander

Front 626

To align the company when in column, platoons in column, the command is

Back 626

"COVER"

Front 627

At the halt or in march while in column, to change direction 90 degrees right or left, the company commander orders

Back 627

"Column Right (Left), MARCH"

Front 628

When the company commander gives the command "DISMISS THE COMPANY," who carries out the order?

Back 628

The senior enlisted cadet

Front 629

When the company commander gives the order "DISMISS YOUR PLATOONS," the order is carried out by

Back 629

The mustering petty officer.

Front 630

In executing company drill, when the company commander gives the preparatory command "Company," the platoon commanders give the preparatory command

Back 630

"Platoon"

Front 631

What command does the company commander order to change direction while in column?

Back 631

Column Right (Left), MARCH

Front 632

What is the command given by the company commander when company makes a slight change in direction?

Back 632

INCLINE TO THE RIGHT (LEFT)

Front 633

What is the company formation normally used for company ceremonies?

Back 633

Company in Line