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214 Cards in this Set
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- Back
Restful dreamless sleep accompanied by decreases in vascular tone, blood pressure, respiration, metabolism and temperature set point
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SLOW WAVE SLEEP
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Sleep accompanied with slow rhythmic movements of eyes with superimposed bursts of rapid movements is called _
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REM sleep
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Why is REM sleep called paradoxical sleep
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EEG pattern similar to awake state, increased brain activity (dreaming)
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Irregular cardiovascular activity, loss of temperature regulation, loss of muscular tone, frequent erections or clitoral engorgement and increased metabolism are observed during _ sleep
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REM
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Describe EEG of REM sleep
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Low amplitude irregular EEG (awake like)
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Measures summed electrical activity of the brain
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EEG
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Theta waves are seen during which stage of sleep
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Stage I
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During this stage of slow wave sleep you have irregular non-rhythmic EEG and theta waves
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Stage I - drowsy, dozing off
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During this stage of sleep you have irregular non-rhythmic EEG with " sleep spindles " and " K complexes"
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Stage II - light sleep
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Delta waves start to appear during which stage of slow wave sleep
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Stage III - moderately deep sleep
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Stage IV slow wave sleep is also called _
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Delta wave sleep, deep sleep
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Waves - 14-25 Hz - active person, especially under tension
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BETA WAVES
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Waves - 4-7 Hz - normal in children and adults under stress and in disorders
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THETA WAVES
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Waves - 8-13 Hz - quiet awake pattern with eyes closed
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ALPHA WAVES
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Waves - less then 3.5 Hz - slow, high amplitude waves
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DELTA WAVES
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Amplitude of the brain wave decreases/increases when eyes open
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DECREASES (processing visual info)
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In alert wakefullness which waves predominant
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BETA WAVES
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In quiet wakefullness which waves predominant
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ALPHA WAVES
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In REM sleep which waves predominant
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BETA
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Stages 2 and 3 of slow wave sleep which waves predominant
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THETA
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Stage 1 of slow wave sleep which waves predominant
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ALPHA
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Loss of slow wave sleep leads to _
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Deterioration of higher brain function , irritability and anxiety
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Long term of slow wave sleep can lead to _
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Nystagmus
Ptosis Dysarthria Muscle tremors |
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Are there any mental disturbances with loss of REM sleep
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NO
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REM sleep is disturbed by _
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Alcohol
Barbiturates Psychoactive drugs (NOT benzodiazepines) |
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Patient is 15 year old male, parents complain of sudden apparent arousals with intense fear, he is difficult to arouse and has no memory of event later - dx
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NIGHT TERRORS
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Patient suffers from bed wetting - name condition and during which sleep does it occur
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ENURESIS
Slow wave sleep |
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Patients is 6 year old female - parents complain of sleepwalking with open eyes, patient has no memory of event - name condition and during which sleep occurs
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SOMNAMBULISM - slow wave sleep
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Receptor gene/hormone responsible for narcolepsy
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OREXIN
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Patient complains of irresistible urge to sleep, tests show patient enters REM sleep without warning. Medical history is positive for viral encephalitis in the past - condition and what are possible causes
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NARCOLEPSY - could be hereditary or following flu, encephalitis, hypothalamic tumors or trauma
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Patient complains of paralysis realized on awakening - condition and what disease is it associated with
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SLEEP PARALYSIS - associated with narcolepsy
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Patient is 46 year old obese female who complains of reduced quality of sleep due to frequent awakenings - name condition and whats causing it
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SLEEP APNEA -due to frequent periodic breathing pauses - reduced pO2 rises patient
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In central sleep apnea there is a defect in _
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Respiratory centers of brainstem
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Which sleep apnea is more often observed in overweight individuals
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Obstructive sleep apnea
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Grinding of teeth during sleep is called _
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BRUXISM
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Decreased quantity or quality of sleep is called _
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INSOMNIA
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2 types of associative learning
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Classical conditioning
Operant conditioning |
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Associative learning dealing with UNCONSCIOUS RECALL
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Classical conditioning
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Associative learning dealing with CONSCIOUS RECALL
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Operant conditioning
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Type of conditioning in which we associate consequences with behavior
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OPERANT
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Type of conditioning in which neutral stimulus that is paired with stimulus elicits a response
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CLASSICAL
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In classical condiitioning paradigm what is a
- conditioned stimulus - unconditioned stimulus - conditioned response - unconditioned response |
Conditioned stimulus - bell
Unconditioned stimulus - meat Conditioned and unconditioned response - salivation |
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In AVERSIVE CLASSICAL CONDITIONING you pair alcohol which is _ conditioned/unconditioned stimulus? with Disulfiram which is conditioned/unconditioned stimulus - what is the result
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Alcohol - conditioned stimulus
Disulfiram - unconditioned stimulus - causes nausea + vomitting As a result of pairing of alcohol and disulfiram, nausea and vomitting occur with the sight or smell of alcohol |
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In negative classical conditioning reward is _
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Removal of undesirable consequence
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When should Disulfiram be administered after intake of alcohol for aversive classical conditioning to work
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12 hours after alcohol
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When conditioning what are the requirements for stimulus presentation
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Close in time
Same order |
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Removal of pairing between conditioned and unconditioned stimulus leads to reduced probability that conditioned response will occur - this is called _
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EXTINCTION
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Dog conditioned not only to bell itself but also tape recording of bell (similar but not exactly same stimulus ) - this is called-
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STIMULUS GENERALIZATION
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Action is a reinforcer if it _
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Increases probability of response
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Application following operant response strengthens probability of that response occuring again - this is example of _ reinforcer
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POSITIVE
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Removal following operant respone strengthens probability of that response occuring again - this is example of _ reinforcer
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NEGATIVE
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Baby learns that crying gets attention - this is example of _ reinforcement
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POSITIVE
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Parents nag child to clean room - child cleans room without reminder (operant response) - parents stop nagging (reinforcer) - this is example of _ reinforcement
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NEGATIVE
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In PUNISHMENT noxious stimuli are aimed at _
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Weakening response
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PUNISHMENT works best if paired with _
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Positive reinforcement for alternative behavior
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Removal of reinforcer causes response to become less frequent or weaken - this is called _
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Extinction
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2 types of reinforcement schedules
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Continuous
Partial (intermittant) |
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Type of reinforcement shedule where each response gets rewarded and results in fast learning and fast extinction is called _
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CONTINUOUS SCHEDULE
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Reinforcement where not every single response gets rewarded and results in slower learning and harder to extinguish is called _
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PARTIAL OR INTERMITTANT
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2 types of interval schedule
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Fixed interval schedule
Variable interval schedule |
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In this type of interval schedule reinforcement occurs after fixed period of time
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FIXED INTERVAL SCHEDULE
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In this type of interval schedule reinforcement occurs after unpredicted amount of time
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VARIABLE INTERVAL SCHEDULE
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In which interval schedule there is higher steadier rate of responding
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VARIABLE INTERVAL SCHEDULE
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Which ratio schedule has higher response rate
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FIXED
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Which ration schedule shows greater resistance to extinction
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VARIABLE
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Which ration schedule is basis for gambling (slot machines)
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VARIABLE RATIO SCHEDULE - reinforcement after changing number of responses
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After extinction response occurs again without any further reinforcement - this is called _
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SPONTANEOUS RECOVERY
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When a symbol or token gains reinforcement value because of its association with a real reinforcer is called _
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Secondary reinforcement
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2 types of retrieval "
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RECALL
RECOGNITION |
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2 types of long term memory
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DECLARATIVE
NON DECLARATIVE - procedural, skills |
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2 types of declarative memory
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Explicit (conscious)
Implicit (unconscious) |
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2 types of explicit memory
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Episodic (biographical events)
Semantic (words, ideas, concepts) |
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Acquiered knowledge that can be expressed verbally is called _ memory
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EXPLICIT
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Memory of events you were involved in in specific time and place is called _
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EPISODIC
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Memory about knowledge of the world (meaning of words, concepts) is called _
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SEMANTIC
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If person does not remember experience that caused memory, this type of memory is called _
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IMPLICIT
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Which type of memory learns faster but forgets easier? declarative/non-declarative
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DECLARATIVE
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Which type of memory learns slower but remembers longer
declarative/non-declarative |
NON- DECLARATIVE - procedural
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Sensory information from cortex converge in _
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HIPPOCAMPUS
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Semantic memory activates _ cortices
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Frontal and temporal
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Describe Papez circuit
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Hypothalamus --> anterior thalamic nucleus -> cingulate cortex --> entorhinal cortex --> hippocampus
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Spatial memory is confined to _
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RIGHT HIPPOCAMPUS
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Emotional memory location
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Amygdala and hippocampus
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Molecular changes to strengthen and increase efficiency of synapses is called _
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Long term potentiation
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NT involved in long term potentiation of the memory
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GLutamate
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Synaptic changes involved in LTP
Presynaptic Postsynaptic |
Presynaptic - increase release probability, increase number of release sites, increase number of vesicles
Postsynaptic changes - increase receptor sensitivity, increase number of functional receptors |
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Glutamate receptor - ligand gated Na channel
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AMPA
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Glutamate receptor - ligand gated Ca channel
At rest blocked by _ which moves in response to dendrite depolarization |
NMDA
Mg |
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Describe how LTP occurs at NMDA receptors
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Depolarization removes Mg blocking NMDA channel --> Ca enters cell and activates calmodulin --> Ca/calmodulin complex activates enzymes like adenylate cyclase and CAM kinase II --> enzyme activation phosphorylates receptors, keeps AMPA channels open longer, increases Ca conductance
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2 phases of LTP
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- ESTABLISHMENT - 1 hour, can be induced by single high frequency stimulus, requires KINASE activity
- MAINTENANCE - can be for several days, induced by series of high frequency stimuli, requires PROTEIN SYNTHESIS |
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Excessive memory loss due to physical injury to the brain or psychological trauma is called _
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AMNESIA
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FORGETTING occurs when _
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information was not coded strongly enough
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Which memories are usually affected in amnesia/forgetting
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Episodic most severely - distant memories preserved in both forgetting and amnesia
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Synaptic plasticity of memory can be disrupted by _
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- Excess glucocorticoids
- Boredom - Ischemia - Hypoglycemia - Prolonged epileptic attacks - Alzheimers disease (beta amyloid plaque buildup) |
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Molecular process by which efficiency of synaptic connections is reduced is called _
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Long term depression
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Name 3 parts of limbic system
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Limbic lobe
Hippocampus Amygdala |
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Part of the temporal cortex protruding in the inferior horn of lateral ventricle
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HIPPOCAMPUS
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Surgical removal of hippocampus results in _
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Loss of short term memory
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Patient is 56 year old male who underwent surgical removal of hippocampus for epilepsy treatment. Patient complains of not remembering anything occured longer than few minutes before . His memories of distant past and intelligence remain intact - Name condition
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ANTEROGRADE AMNESIA
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How does hippocampus function in memory
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When information is important to remember hippocampus emits signals that enables recent memories to be rehearsed over and over again until they are stored in long term memory in cerebral cortex
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Amyloid beta deposits, flame like tangle formation and cholinergic deficits are hallmarks of _
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ALZHEIMERS DISEASE
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Patient is 48 year old male who presents with recent behavioral changes - HYPERSEXUALITY, LACK OF EMOTION - name condition and where is the lesion
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KLUVER-BUCY SYNDROME - AMYGDALA LESION
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Patient is 39 year old male with long standing history of alcoholism presents with loss of recent memory and confabulation - name condition and where is the lesion
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KORSAKOFFS SYNDROME - lesions of mammilary bodies and thalamic lesions
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Two edges of band like choroid plexus are called _
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TENIA
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Edge of the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles attached to the fornix is called _
Opposite edge of the choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles is called _ |
Tenia fornicis
Tenia choroidea |
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Edge of the choroid plexus of the 3d ventricle originating from stria medullaris on thalamic surface is called _
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Tenia thalami
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Sensation of smell reaches cortical areas without going through _
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THALAMUS
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3 parts of hypothalamus AP
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PREOPTIC AREA - medial and lateral preoptic nuclei, paraventricular nucleus and anterior hypothalamic nucleus
TUBERAL REGION (INFUNDIBULUM) - ventromedial and dorsomedial nuclei, infundibular nucleus POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS |
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3 parts of hypothalamus - medial to lateral
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Periventricular
Medial hypothalamus - all nuclei Lateral hypothalamus |
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In DIABETES INSIPIDUS vasopressin (ADH-secreting) cell bodies are located in _
There are lesions of axons of perikarya projecting to _ |
PARAVENTRICULAR AND SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEI
Posterior lobe of pituitary gland |
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Lack of ADH leads to _
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Loss of water through kidney
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In endocrine imbalance there is absence of regulatory hormones produced by small neurons mainly in _
These hormones are released in the blood through _ |
INFUNDIBULUM
PORTAL VESSELS |
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Name neurohypophyseal peptides
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OXYTOCIN
VASOPRESSIN |
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Name adenohypophyseal releasing peptides
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LHRH, GHRH, TRH, CRH
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Neurons in _ are sensitive to increased body temperature and initiate heat loss
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ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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Patient has hyperthermia because of lack of cutaneous vasodilation and sweating - where is the lesion
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ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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Neurons in _ are sensitive to decreased temperature and intiate heat gain
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POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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Patients presents with poikilothermia because of lack of cutaneous vasoconstriction and shivering - where is the lesion
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POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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Food intake is influenced by which parts of hypothalamus - glucose sensitive neurons in these areas influence endocrine glands associated with metabolism
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Paraventricular and ventromedial nuclei of hypothalamus and lateral hypothalamic zone
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Lesions of _ result in increased appetite and obesity
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Paraventricular and ventromedial nuclei
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Lesions of _ result in decreased food and drink intake
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Lateral hypothalamic zone
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This area of hypothalamus can induce sleep
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PREOPTIC
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Receives input from retina and is responsible for 24 hours circadian rhythm
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SUPRACHIASMATIC NUCLEUS
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Lesions of _ often result in hypersomnia
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POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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This lesion results in extreme aggressivity - attack repeatedly without provocation
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Bilaterally hypothalamic lesions especially involving ventromedial nuclei
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Which part of hypothalamus associated with sympathetic activation, parasympathetic?
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Sympathetic - POSTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
Parasympathetic - ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS |
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Center of sexual regulation
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Hypothalamus
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LH, FSH produced where
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Anterior pituitary
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LH releasing hormone secreting neurons develop from _
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Nasal placode
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In fetus LHRH containing cells are located in _ - they migrate to hypothalamus along _
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Nasal septum
Olfactory tract and terminal nerve |
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Patient presents with anosmia and gonad dysgenesis (sterility) - NAME SYNDROME AND WHATS CAUSING IT
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KALLMANS SYNDROME
Olfactory tract and terminal nerve do not develop therefore LHRH producing cells are sitting above cribriform plate and do not function |
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Axons from neuroendocrine cells of paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei project to _ where they release _ to control lactation and reproduction and _ to control body osmolarity and blood pressure
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POSTERIOR PITUITARY
OXYTOCIN ADH/VASOPRESSIN |
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Neuroendocrine axons from preoptic, arcuate and infundibular nuclei release _ into hypophyseal portal circulation to control ACTH, TSH, prolactin, corticotropin, LH, FSH, GH which are involved in lactational, reproductive and metabolic function
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Releasing/inhibiting hormones and dopamine
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_ nuclei sense body temperature both heat and cold but especially heat
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Anterior and pre-optic
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Response to excess core temperature is mediated by ANS and includes _
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Vasodilation
Sweating Decreased heat production |
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Response to cold includes autonomic mediated _
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Vasoconstriction
Piloerection Thermogenesis TRH release |
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_ appears to be motor center for control of sympathetic drive for heat and cold
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Posterior hypothalamus
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If patient has damage to lateral or dorsomedial hypothalamic nuclei he will suffer from _
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ANOREXIA
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If patient has damage to ventromedial or paraventricular nuclei he will suffer from _
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INSATIABLE HUNGER
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Anorexigenic factors induce _
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SATIETY
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Orexigenic factors induce _
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HUNGER
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PVN provides output to _ to control sympathetic nervous system and also other areas of brain
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SOLITARY NUCLEUS
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PVN receives anorexigenic and orexigenic input from _
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ARCUATE NUCLEUS
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Arcuate nucleus anorexigenic neurons pool are _ - secrete _ which binds to PVN _ to inhibit hunger
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Proopinomelanocortin neurons (POMC)
Melanocyte stimulating hormone Melanocortin 4 receptors |
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Orexigenic AN neuron pool secretes _ which binds to PVN Y1r receptors to promote hunger
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Neuropeptide Y
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Presence of high levels of glucose, amino acids and fatty acids in plasma produces _ effects
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Anorexigenic
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Thirst can be initiated by increases in _ which act on _
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Plasma osmolarity or plasma angiotensin II
Subfornical organ and organum vasculosum of lamina terminalis |
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Osmoreceptor neurons regulate ADH release (supraoptic and paraventricular ) as well as thirst in _ nucleus of hypothalamus
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PREOPTIC
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Volume receptors are located on _
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Veins and atria
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Wetting mouth and gastric filling transiently relieve thirst via _
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Vagal afferents
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Desire for specific nutrient that is driven by physiological need is called _
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APPETITe
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Thirst and salt appetite are both stimulated by factors induced by volume depletion _
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Angiotensin II, reduced baroreceptor firing and reduced volume receptor firing
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What stimulates salt appetite
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REDUCED PLASMA Na - NOT changes in osmolarity
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Patient presents with eating of inorganic, non-food items - behavior associated with true defficiency in iron, calcium and possibly iodine - this condition is called _
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PICA
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Hedonic centers (eating for pleasure ) are located in _
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CINGULATE GYRUS and parts of limbic system
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Determines time between meals
Determines length of given meal |
HUNGER
SATIETY |
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Filling of stomach inhibits hunger by reducing release of _ and also promotes satiety by vagal afferents
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Orexigenic peptide - GHRELIN
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Mechanical stimulation of chewing and food movement causes "metering" effect sensed by metering nucleus in _
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ANTERIOR HYPOTHALAMUS
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_ is released into duodenal canal in response to luminal fats (also peptides and carbohydrates)
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Cholecystokinin
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Intestinal CCK acts by stimulating _
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Vagal afferents
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Most posterior aspect of thalamus is egg shaped and called _
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PULVINAR
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Forms much of the lateral wall of the third ventricle
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THALAMUS
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Thalamus is separated from caudate nucleus by bundle of fibers called _
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Stria terminalis
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_ nuclei of thalamus function with the limbic system
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Anterior
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_ nuclei of thalamus is interconnected with frontal lobe and hypothalamus - integrate sensory information and affect
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MEDIAL NUCLEI
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Receives input from almost all cortical areas - DOES NOT PROJECT BACK TO CORTEX - and gets collaterals of thalamocortical axons
Uses what NT |
Thalamic reticular nucleus
GABA |
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VPM/VPL project to _
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Somatosensory cortex
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VA/VL project to _
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Motor cortex
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Amygdala --> DM nucleus projects to _
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Frontal lobe
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Mammilary body --> anterior thalamus project to _
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Cingulate cortex
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Pulvinar projects to _
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Extravisual areas
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IC --> MG -->
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Auditory cortex
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Almost all of the output of the thalamus is directed to _
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Cortex
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Almost of the input of the cortex arises from _
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Thalamus
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In the awake/attentive state thalamus acts as _
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high fidelity relay
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During sleep thalamus is oscillating rhythmically and output is _ to external environment
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UNRELATED
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Thin cellular band that covers cerebral hemispheres
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Cerebral cortex
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Vast majority of cortex has 6 layers and is called _
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Isotypical cortex
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Name 6 layers of cerebral cortex
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Molecular
External granular External pyramidal Internal granular Internal pyramidal Multiform |
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Largest neurons of cerebral cortex are located in which layer
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INTERNAL PYRAMIDAL - layer V
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Motor layers have thicker layers _ and thin layers _
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V
II and IV |
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Sensory areas have thick layers _ and thin _
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II, III, IV
V |
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Sensory cerebral cortex is also called _
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GRANULAR
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Part of cerebral cortex that has only three layers (mostly limbic areas ) is called _
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ALLOCORTEX
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Transitional region - has between 3 and 6 layers (hippocampal formation and piriform cortex)
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MESOCORTEX
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Most excitatory neurons are _ and these neurons are the output of cerebral cortex
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PYRAMIDAL
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Excitatory local circuit neurons of cerebral cortex
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STELLATE
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Functional unit of cerebral cortex is _
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Vertical column
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Input layers of cerebral cortex
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II, III, IV
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Output layers of cerebral cortex
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V, VI
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Interconnecting layers of cerebral cortex
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I, II, III
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Efferent projection fibers
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Corticofugal
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Thalamocortical afferent projection fibers
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Corticopetal
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Connect cortex with lower parts of the brain - all converge on corpus callosum
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Projection fibers (corticofugal and corticopetal)
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6 main functional regions of frontal lobe
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Primary motor cortex
Pre-motor Frontal eye fields Supplementary motor Pre-frontal - association BROCAS AREA - LANGUAGE - INFERIOR FRONTAL GYRUS L SIDE |
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If you have lesion of primary motor cortex what is the manifestation
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APRAXIA
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Lesions of _ result in lack of concentration, patients are easily distracted, apathy and disinhibition (inappropriate behaviors)
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PREFRONTAL AREAS
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Responsible for conjugate movements of eyes to opposite side, contributes to VOLUNTARY movements
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Frontal eye fields
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Do frontal eye fields project directly to nuclei of extraocular muscles
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NO
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4 main functional areas of parietal lobe
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Primary somatosensory
Secondary somatosensory Gustatory Association |
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Lesions of parietal lobe result in _
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Apraxia
Sensory deficits Astereognosis Receptive aphasia Alexia and agraphia Conduction aphasia Transcortical aphasia |
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3 parts of temporal lobe
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Primary auditory cortex
Temporal association area Hippocampus/amygdala |
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Lesions of temporal lobe
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Hearing/visual
Categorization and organization of language - cannot make connections or derive meaning from language Long term memory Personality/affect Altered sexual behavior |
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Occipital lobe parts
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Primary visual cortex
Occipital eye field Visual association area |
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Occipital eye center is largely responsible for _
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INVOLUNTARY MOVEMENTS
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Patient cant tract but can direct eyes to certain location - where is the lesion
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OCCIPITAL EYE CENTER
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Lesions to occipital lobe results in _
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Visual agnosia
Alexia without agraphia |
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Involved in cognitive behavior and motor planning, weigh consequences and future actions and plan accordingly
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Prefrontal association area
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Patient is 49 year old male post stroke - presents with dperession, unruly behavior, loss of social graces, ignores cleanliness and lacks insight - what is most probable location of lesion
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Prefrontal association area
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Association cortex that involves memory and emotional behavior
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Limbic association cortex
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Lesions of this area result in abnormal body images and perception of spatial relations (contralateral neglect)
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Parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex
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Lesions of Brocas area result in _
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Expressive aphasia - speech is absent or slow with poor articulation (usually also involves problems with writing)
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Lesions of Wernicke area result in _
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Receptive aphasia - production of words unaffected but USAGE IS INCORRECT, cannot comprehend language in any context
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What disconnect syndrome results from lesion in corpus callosum secondary to infarct in anterior cerebral artery so that person can comprehend command but CANNOT EXECUTE UIT
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TRANSCORTICAL APRAXIA
Wernickes area of the left hemisphere cannot communicate with the right primary motor cortex because of the lesion of corpus callosum |