• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/100

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)

Chromatin condensation and fragmentation, dilation and blebbing of the nuclear membrane, and cellular shrinkage


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Chromatin condensation and fragmentation, dilation and blebbing of the nuclear membrane, and cellular shrinkage


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Mobilization of the immune system


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Mobilization of the immune system


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

The mechanism of cell death and radiation therapy


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

The mechanism of cell death and radiation therapy


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Type of cell death detected by the annexin V/propidium iodide assay


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Type of cell death detected by the annexin V/propidium iodide assay


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Pharmacologic strategies that inhibit caspase 8 may decrease this form of cell death


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Pharmacologic strategies that inhibit caspase 8 may decrease this form of cell death


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Rapid cell lysis


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Rapid cell lysis


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Translocation of phosphatidylserine to the outer plasma membrane is an early characteristic of this mode of cell death


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Translocation of phosphatidylserine to the outer plasma membrane is an early characteristic of this mode of cell death


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

DNA ladder formation on gel electrophoresis


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

DNA ladder formation on gel electrophoresis


A. Apoptosis


B. Necrosis


C. Both


D. Neither

Which of the following ion channels is partly responsible for carrying current during the repolarization phase in cochlear hair cells?


A. Na channel


B. Ca Channel


C. Ca sensitive K channel


D. CL channel


E. Mg channel

Which of the following ion channels is partly responsible for carrying current during the repolarization phase in cochlear hair cells?


A. Na channel


B. Ca Channel


C. Ca sensitive K channel


D. CL channel


E. Mg channel

Which of the following causes an increase in decerebraterigidity?

A. Sectioning the dorsal roots


B. Chemically inactivating the lateral vestibular nucleus


C. Sectioning they motor neurons


D. Activating the medullary reticular formation


E. Destruction of the flocculonodular lobe of thecerebellum

Which of the following causes an increase in decerebrate rigidity?

A. Sectioning the dorsal roots


B. Chemically inactivating the lateral vestibular nucleus


C. Sectioning they motor neurons


D. Activating the medullary reticular formation


E. Destruction of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum

Transection between superior and inferior colliculi disrupts communication:


- lateral vestibular nucleus, pontine reticular formation released from inhibition from cortex


- red nucleus to spinal cord connections are disrupted, which normally inhibit extensor muscles of arms/legs


- medullary reticular formation to cortex disrupted, which usually inhibits extensor tone

Neurotransmitter release at the synaptic terminal is triggeredmainly by which ion?


A. Na


B. K


C. Cl


D. Ca


E. Mg

Neurotransmitter release at the synaptic terminal is triggered mainly by which ion?


A. Na


B. K


C. Cl


D. Ca


E. Mg

Which of the following would hyperpolarize a resting neuron?


A. Increase in Cl conductance


B. Increase in Na conductance


C. Increase in Ca conductance


D. Decrease in K conductance


E. Increase in K conductance

Which of the following would hyperpolarize a resting neuron?


A. Increase in Cl conductance


B. Increase in Na conductance


C. Increase in Ca conductance


D. Decrease in K conductance


E. Increase in K conductance

Which of the following would increase conduction velocityin an axon?


1. Increasing the diameter of an axon


2. Increasing the transmembrane resistance (Rm)


3. Decreasing the capacitance of the memhrane (Cm)


4. Decreasing the membrane length constant




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following would increase conduction velocity in an axon?

1. Increasing the diameter of an axon


2. Increasing the transmembrane resistance (Rm)


3. Decreasing the capacitance of the memhrane (Cm)


4. Decreasing the membrane length constant




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following about the utricle and saccule is correct?




A. With the head in an upright position, the utricle is oriented vertically on the medial wall of the vestibule


B. They respond to angular acceleration


C. In the utricular macula, the hair cells are arrangd with the kinocilium oriented away from the striola


D. The surface of the macula extends into the membraneous labyrinth and is bathed in perilymph


E. The tips of the hair cells are covered by the overlying otolithic membrane, which is embedded with calcium carbonate crystals (otoconia)

Which of the following about the utricle and saccule is correct?




A. With the head in an upright position, the utricle is oriented vertically on the medial wall of the vestibule


B. They respond to angular acceleration


C. In the utricular macula, the hair cells are arrangd with the kinocilium oriented away from the striola


D. The surface of the macula extends into the membraneous labyrinth and is bathed in perilymph


E. The tips of the hair cells are covered by the overlying otolithic membrane, which is embedded with calcium carbonate crystals (otoconia)

A 52-year-old male underwent subtotal resectionof a glioblastoma multiforme originating in the right frontallobe and extending into the deep nuclei of that hemisphere .Postoperatively, he underwent whole-brain radiation therapyand received 1, 3-bis-2-chloroethyl-1-nitrosourea (BCNU).The patient succumbed to his disease process 8 months later.




Resistance of this tumor to BCNU may have resulted from


A. A high concentration of O6-alkylguanine-DNA alkyltransferase( O6-AGAT) in tumor cells


B. The tumor was in the S phase of the cell cycle ( resistantphase) during administration of BCNU


C. The tumor cells lacked topoisomerase II, which causestransient DNA strand breaks during chemotherapyinduction


D. The tumor cells lacked cell surface proteins that recognizeBCNU


E. An agent that disrupts the blood-brain barrier was notadministered concurrently with BCNU

Resistance of this tumor to BCNU may have resulted from


A. A high concentration of O6-alkylguanine-DNA alkyltransferase ( O6-AGAT) in tumor cells


B. The tumor was in the S phase of the cell cycle ( resistant phase) during administration of BCNU


C. The tumor cells lacked topoisomerase II, which causes transient DNA strand breaks during chemotherapy induction


D. The tumor cells lacked cell surface proteins that recognize BCNU


E. An agent that disrupts the blood-brain barrier was not administered concurrently with BCNU

A 52-year-old male underwent subtotal resection of a glioblastoma multiforme originating in the right frontal lobe and extending into the deep nuclei of that hemisphere . Postoperatively, he underwent whole-brain radiation therapy and received 1, 3-bis-2-chloroethyl-1-nitrosourea (BCNU). The patient succumbed to his disease process 8 months later.




Which of the following agents could potentially increase response rates to BCNU chemotherapy?


A. Irinotecan (CPT-11)


B. Tamoxifen


C. Suramin


D. O6-benzylguanine


E. 1-(2-chloroethyl)-3-cyclohexyl-1-nitrosourea (CCNU)

Which of the following agents could potentially increase response rates to BCNU chemotherapy?


A. Irinotecan (CPT-11)


B. Tamoxifen


C. Suramin


D. O6-benzylguanineE. 1-(2-chloroethyl)-3-cyclohexyl-1-nitrosourea (CCNU)

Experimental studies using the HSV-tk/GCV suicidegene transfer approach in animal models have shown tumorregression and long-term survival in spite of transductionefficiencies of less than 10%. Successful application of suicidegene cancer therapy in these studies despite incompletedelivery of genetic vector to all tumor cells was likely theresult of

A. The transfer of phosphorylated GCV (pGCV) intountransduced tumor cells via gap junctions


B. The ensuing inflammatory reaction produced by theviral vector, resulting in the activation of cell death signalingpathways (Fas/AP0-1)


C. The upregulation of p53, which immediately causesrelease of apoptotic mediators (e.g., caspase 8) fromthe mitochondria


D. Upregulation of cAMP, a second messenger known tohalt tumor proliferation in the G 1 phase of the cell cycle


E. Transfer of viral vectors into untransduced tumor cellsvia clathrin-coated pits

Experimental studies using the HSV-tk/GCV suicide gene transfer approach in animal models have shown tumor regression and long-term survival in spite of transduction efficiencies of less than 10%. Successful application of suicide gene cancer therapy in these studies despite incomplete delivery of genetic vector to all tumor cells was likely the result of


A. The transfer of phosphorylated GCV (pGCV) into untransduced tumor cells via gap junctions


B. The ensuing inflammatory reaction produced by the viral vector, resulting in the activation of cell death signaling pathways (Fas/AP0-1)


C. The upregulation of p53, which immediately causes release of apoptotic mediators (e.g., caspase 8) from the mitochondria


D. Upregulation of cAMP, a second messenger known to halt tumor proliferation in the G 1 phase of the cell cycle


E. Transfer of viral vectors into untransduced tumor cells via clathrin-coated pits

What is the only neurotransmitter synthesized in thesynaptic vesicle?


A. Dopamine


B. Norepinephrine


C. Acetylcholine


D. Serotonin


E. Substance P

What is the only neurotransmitter synthesized in the synaptic vesicle?


A. Dopamine


B. Norepinephrine


C. Acetylcholine


D. Serotonin


E. Substance P

Most sensitive to skin stretch




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Most sensitive to skin stretch


A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Particularly sensitive to vibration (600 stimuli/second)




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Particularly sensitive to vibration (600 stimuli/second)


A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Mostly found in clusters at the center of the papillary ridge




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Mostly found in clusters at the center of the papillary ridge


A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Provide sharpest resolution of spatial pattern




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Provide sharpest resolution of spatial pattern




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Line the alimentary tract




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Line the alimentary tract




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Afferent fibers to the stretch reflex




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Afferent fibers to the stretch reflex




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Transmit information about pressure and texture




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Transmit information about pressure and texture




A. Free nerve endings


B. Meissner's corpuscles


C. Pacinian corpuscles


D. Ruffini's corpuscles


E. Merkel's discs


F. None of the above

Which of the following structures is assessed by the doll's eye maneuver?




A. Lateral vestibulospinal tract


B. Medial vestibulospinal tract


C. Vestibular nerve


D. Cerebellum


E. Cerebral cortex

Which of the following structures is assessed by the doll's eye maneuver?




A. Lateral vestibulospinal tract


B. Medial vestibulospinal tract


C. Vestibular nerve


D. Cerebellum


E. Cerebral cortex

Which of the following statements about phototransductionin the retina is correct?




A. Cones perform better than rods in most visual tasksexcept detection of dim light at night


B. The presence of light results in the opening of sodiumchannels in the photoreceptors of the retina


C. The flow of sodium into photoreceptor cells is mediatedby cAMP channels


D. In the dark, the hyperpolarization of photoreceptorcells of the retina is the result of outward sodium flow


E. Metarhodopsin II, a breakdown product of rhodopsin,deactivates phosphodiesterase molecules

Which of the following statements about phototransduction in the retina is correct?




A. Cones perform better than rods in most visual tasks except detection of dim light at night


B. The presence of light results in the opening of sodium channels in the photoreceptors of the retina


C. The flow of sodium into photoreceptor cells is mediated by cAMP channels


D. In the dark, the hyperpolarization of photoreceptor cells of the retina is the result of outward sodium flow


E. Metarhodopsin II, a breakdown product of rhodopsin, deactivates phosphodiesterase molecules

Gap junctions close in response to waht stimuli?




A. Decreased concentration of intracellular Ca


B. Increased extracellular K concentration


C. Elevated intracellular proton concentration


D. Increased extracellular Ca concentration


E. Gap junctions, unlike ion channels, remain open continuously

Gap junctions close in response to waht stimuli?




A. Decreased concentration of intracellular Ca


B. Increased extracellular K concentration


C. Elevated intracellular proton concentration


D. Increased extracellular Ca concentration


E. Gap junctions, unlike ion channels, remain open continuously

Unipolar neurons mainly innervate what structure(s)?




A. Sympathetic nervous system


B. Exocrine gland secretions and smooth muscle contractility


C. Cardiac muscle cells (AV node)


D. Adrenal gland secretions and the renal glomerulus


E. Small and large bowel muscle contractility

Unipolar neurons mainly innervate what structure(s)?




A. Sympathetic nervous system


B. Exocrine gland secretions and smooth muscle contractility


C. Cardiac muscle cells (AV node)


D. Adrenal gland secretions and the renal glomerulus


E. Small and large bowel muscle contractility

Which of the following statements about the cochlea iscorrect




A. High frequency sounds cause the basilar membrane tovibrate maximally at its apex


B. Hair cells of the cochlea do not typically adapt tosustained stimuli unless provoked by low-frequencysounds


C. An endocochlcar potential of +40mV exists betweenthe perilymph and the endolymph


D. Deflection of stereocilia in either direction can cause depolarization


E. The hair cells form chemical synapses with bipolarcells of the spiral ganglion

Which of the following statements about the cochlea is correct




A. High frequency sounds cause the basilar membrane to vibrate maximally at its apex


B. Hair cells of the cochlea do not typically adapt to sustained stimuli unless provoked by low-frequency sounds


C. An endocochlcar potential of +40mV exists between the perilymph and the endolymph


D. Deflection of stereocilia in either direction can cause depolarization


E. The hair cells form chemical synapses with bipolar cells of the spiral ganglion

Which of the following statements about olfactory receptors is correct?




A. An olfactory receptor displays rapid adaptation initially


B. The life span of olfactory receptor cells is approximately 9 months


C. A single olfactory receptor cell typically responds to only a single odorant


D. The receptor potential occurs when Na channels are closed in a manner similar to phototransduction


E. They are cGMP-regulated

Which of the following statements about olfactory receptors is correct?




A. An olfactory receptor displays rapid adaptation initially


B. The life span of olfactory receptor cells is approximately 9 months


C. A single olfactory receptor cell typically responds to only a single odorant


D. The receptor potential occurs when Na channels are closed in a manner similar to phototransduction


E. They are cGMP-regulated

Which of the following sensory systems sends signals directly to both the thalamus and cerebral cortex?




A. Two-point discrimination


B. Taste


C. Olfaction


D. Pain


E. Balance

Which of the following sensory systems sends signals directly to both the thalamus and cerebral cortex?




A. Two-point discrimination


B. Taste


C. Olfaction


D. Pain


E. Balance

Cells most sensitive to radiation therapy

Cells most sensitive to radiation therapy

Cells most sensitive to radiation therapy


G2 phase


Mitosis

Nutrient depletion or physical crowding are conditions that encourage cells to move into this phase of the cell cycle

Nutrient depletion or physical crowding are conditions that encourage cells to move into this phase of the cell cycle

Nutrient depletion or physical crowding are conditions that encourage cells to move into this phase of the cell cycle


G0 phase

Cells can incorporate thymidine analogues into their nuclear DNA

Cells can incorporate thymidine analogues into their nuclear DNA

Cells can incorporate thymidine analogues into their nuclear DNA


S phase

Cells most resistant to radiation therapy

Cells most resistant to radiation therapy

Cells most resistant to radiation therapy


S phase

p15 and p16 cause growth arrest in this cell-cycle phase

p15 and p16 cause growth arrest in this cell-cycle phase

p15 and p16 cause growth arrest in this cell-cycle phase


G1 phase

TP53-dependent growth arrest following DNA damage occurs in this phase

TP53-dependent growth arrest following DNA damage occurs in this phase

TP53-dependent growth arrest following DNA damage occurs in this phase


G1 phase

Most variable phase of the cell cycle in terms of duration

Most variable phase of the cell cycle in terms of duration

Most variable phase of the cell cycle in terms of duration


G1 phase

What is the resting membrane potential for nerve cells?




A. -100mV


B. -90mV


C. -80mV


D. -65mV


E. -40mV

What is the resting membrane potential for nerve cells?




A. -100mV


B. -90mV


C. -80mV


D. -65mV


E. -40mV

What is the extracellular concentration of Ca ions in the brain?




A. 0.7mM/L


B. 2mM/L


C. 125mM/L


D. 150mM/L


E. None of the above

What is the extracellular concentration of Ca ions in the brain?




A. 0.7mM/L


B. 2mM/L


C. 125mM/L


D. 150mM/L


E. None of the above

Columns of neurons in area 3a of the somatic sensorycortex receive input primarily from what type of receptor(s)?




1. Rapidly adapting skin receptors


2. Slowly and rapidly adapting skin receptors


3. Pressure and joint position receptors


4. Muscle stretch receptors




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Columns of neurons in area 3a of the somatic sensory cortex receive input primarily from what type of receptor(s)?




1. Rapidly adapting skin receptors


2. Slowly and rapidly adapting skin receptors


3. Pressure and joint position receptors


4. Muscle stretch receptors




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following is true of action potentials?




1. Action potentials are mediated entirely by changes inK voltage-gated channels


2. The rate of Na influx begins to slow as the membranepotential approaches EK


3. The threshold for initiating action potentials is usuallyaround +15 mV


4. The falling phase of the action potential is mediated bydelayed activation of K conductance




A. 1, 2, and 3 arc correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 arc correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following is true of action potentials?




1. Action potentials are mediated entirely by changes in K voltage-gated channels


2. The rate of Na influx begins to slow as the membrane potential approaches EK


3. The threshold for initiating action potentials is usually around +15 mV


4. The falling phase of the action potential is mediated by delayed activation of K conductance




A. 1, 2, and 3 arc correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 arc correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Cells with concentric receptive fields along the visualpathway are found in what location(s)?




A. Retina


B. Retina and optic nerve


C. Retina and lateral geniculate nucleus


D. Retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, layer 4 of the visualcortex


E. Cells in the premotor cortex only

Cells with concentric receptive fields along the visual pathway are found in what location(s)?




A. Retina


B. Retina and optic nerve


C. Retina and lateral geniculate nucleus


D. Retina, lateral geniculate nucleus, layer 4 of the visual cortex


E. Cells in the premotor cortex only

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell?




A. Glycine


B. Acetylcholine


C. GABA


D. Serotonin


E. Glutamate

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the Renshaw cell?




A. Glycine


B. Acetylcholine


C. GABA


D. Serotonin


E. Glutamate

A patient with homonymous hemianopsia due to aparietal lesion will have deficient pursuit eye movements______ of the lesion, resulting in opticokinetic nystagmus.The opticokinetic nystagmus will be decreased when thedrum is rotated _______the side of the lesion.




A. Opposite the side, toward


B. Toward the side, away from


C. Opposite the side, away from


D. Toward the side, toward


E. None of the above

A patient with homonymous hemianopsia due to a parietal lesion will have deficient pursuit eye movements ______ of the lesion, resulting in opticokinetic nystagmus. The opticokinetic nystagmus will be decreased when the drum is rotated _______the side of the lesion.




A. Opposite the side, toward


B. Toward the side, away from


C. Opposite the side, away from


D. Toward the side, toward


E. None of the above

All of the following biochemical features regarding receptorsfor chemical neurotransmitters are correct EXCEPT?




A. They may be membrane-spanning proteins


B. They can work in a direct or indirect fashion toinfluence synaptic response


C. They can influence cells by activating second messengers,such as cAMP or diacylglycerol


D. They can help reinforce the pathways involved withlearning


E. The binding site on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptorusually includes hoth the a and βsubunits

All of the following biochemical features regarding receptors for chemical neurotransmitters are correct EXCEPT?




A. They may be membrane-spanning proteins


B. They can work in a direct or indirect fashion to influence synaptic response


C. They can influence cells by activating second messengers, such as cAMP or diacylglycerol


D. They can help reinforce the pathways involved with learning


E. The binding site on the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor usually includes hoth the a and β subunits

All of the following statements about the semicircularcanals are correct EXCEPT




A. The movement of endolymph within each canal isopposite to the direction of head rotation


B. Primary afferent fibers do not discharge after headrotation ceases


C. Linear acceleration of the head is sufficient to activatethe posterior semicircular canal


D. The floor of the ampulla contains a ridge of specializedhair cells that is covered by a layer of gelatin called thecupula


E. Hair cells in the horizontal canal are polarized towardthe utricle, and those in the anterior and posteriorsemicircular canals are polarized away from the utricle

All of the following statements about the semicircular canals are correct EXCEPT




A. The movement of endolymph within each canal is opposite to the direction of head rotation


B. Primary afferent fibers do not discharge after head rotation ceases


C. Linear acceleration of the head is sufficient to activate the posterior semicircular canal


D. The floor of the ampulla contains a ridge of specialized hair cells that is covered by a layer of gelatin called the cupula


E. Hair cells in the horizontal canal are polarized toward the utricle, and those in the anterior and posterior semicircular canals are polarized away from the utricle

Slow synaptic transmission be tween nociceptors anddorsal horn neurons is mediated primarily by what neurotransmitter?




A. Substance P


B. Glutamate


C. Acetylcholine


D. ATP


E. Serotonin

Slow synaptic transmission be tween nociceptors and dorsal horn neurons is mediated primarily by what neurotransmitter?




A. Substance P


B. Glutamate


C. Acetylcholine


D. ATP


E. Serotonin

A motor unit is composed of




A. A group of a motor neurons to a given muscle


B. A group of a andy motor neurons to a given muscle


C. A group of a motor neurons to a given muscle and all ofthe muscle fibers they innervate


D. A group of muscle fibers innervated by a single motorneuron


E. All muscle groups innervated by the ventral root

A motor unit is composed of




A. A group of a motor neurons to a given muscle


B. A group of a andy motor neurons to a given muscle


C. A group of a motor neurons to a given muscle and all of the muscle fibers they innervate


D. A group of muscle fibers innervated by a single motor neuron


E. All muscle groups innervated by the ventral root

Group 1b sensory fibers from muscle are most sensitiveto what sensory modality?




1. Muscle length


2. Deep pressure


3. Rate of change in length


4. Muscle tension




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above are correct

Group 1b sensory fibers from muscle are most sensitive to what sensory modality?




1. Muscle length


2. Deep pressure


3. Rate of change in length


4. Muscle tension




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above are correct

Which of the following is a component of the muscle spindle?




1. Intrafusal muscle fibers


2. Annulospiral endings


3. Flower-spray endings


4. γ motor fibers




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following is a component of the muscle spindle?




1. Intrafusal muscle fibers


2. Annulospiral endings


3. Flower-spray endings


4. γ motor fibers




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Striking the ligamentum patellae with a reflex hammerresults in the activation of which of the following structure(s)?




1. Annulospiral endings


2. Flower spray endings


3. a motor neurons


4. Quadriceps muscle




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above are correct

Striking the ligamentum patellae with a reflex hammer results in the activation of which of the following structure( s)?




1. Annulospiral endings


2. Flower spray endings


3. a motor neurons


4. Quadriceps muscle




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above are correct

Which of the follow statements about neurons is correct?




A. Golgi type I neurons form the short fiber tracts of the brain and spinal cord


B. Golgi type II neurons have long axons that terminate in the neighborhood of the cell body


C. Golgi type I neurons are inhibitory


D. The volume of cytoplasm within the cell body always exceeds that found in the neurites


E. Golgi type II neurons greatly outnumber type I neurons

Which of the follow statements about neurons is correct?




A. Golgi type I neurons form the short fiber tracts of the brain and spinal cord


B. Golgi type II neurons have long axons that terminate in the neighborhood of the cell body


C. Golgi type I neurons are inhibitory


D. The volume of cytoplasm within the cell body always exceeds that found in the neurites


E. Golgi type II neurons greatly outnumber type I neurons

Retrograde transport



A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Retrograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Fast anterograde transport



A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Fast anterograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Slow anterograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Slow anterograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

GTP- dependent




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

GTP- dependent




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Binds vinblastine and colchicine to inhibit fast anterograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

Binds vinblastine and colchicine to inhibit fast anterograde transport




A. Kinesin


B. Dynein


C. Dynamin


D. None of the above


E. All of the above

All of the following are true about GABA-responsive channels EXCEPT?




A. The GABA-A receptor consists of five subunits (α2β2γ)


B. Picrotoxin inhibits the GABA-A receptor after binding to the β subunit


C. The GABA-b receptor increases K+ conductance and generates an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) after binding baclofen


D. The β subunit of the GABA-A receptor binds benzodiazepines


E. The binding of alcohol, barbituates, or benzodiazepines to the GABA-A receptor increases Cl- conductance

All of the following are true about GABA-responsive channels EXCEPT?




A. The GABA-A receptor consists of five subunits (α2β2γ)


B. Picrotoxin inhibits the GABA-A receptor after binding to the β subunit


C. The GABA-b receptor increases K+ conductance and generates an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) after binding baclofen


D. The β subunit of the GABA-A receptor binds benzodiazepines


E. The binding of alcohol, barbituates, or benzodiazepines to the GABA-A receptor increases Cl- conductance

What ion blocks the ion pore of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptor at resting membrane potential?




A. Ca2+


B. Na+


C. K+


D. Mg2+


E. Cl-

What ion blocks the ion pore of the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) glutamate receptor at resting membrane potential?




A. Ca2+


B. Na+


C. K+


D. Mg2+


E. Cl-

Inhibits glycine release




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Inhibits glycine release




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSDK. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Binds to α-subunit of nicotinic receptors




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Binds to α-subunit of nicotinic receptors




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Cleaves the protein synaptobrevin




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Cleaves the protein synaptobrevin




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Cleave t-SNAREs and v-SNAREs




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Cleave t-SNAREs and v-SNAREs




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Selectively activates Gs




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Selectively activates Gs




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Nondepolarizing inhibitor of nicotinic cholinergic receptors




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Nondepolarizing inhibitor of nicotinic cholinergic receptors




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Inactivates Gi




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Inactivates Gi




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Agonist of the 5-HT1c receptor




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Agonist of the 5-HT1c receptor




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Antagonist of the 5-HT3 (ionotropic) receptor




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Antagonist of the 5-HT3 (ionotropic) receptor




A. Tetrabenazine


B. α-bungarotoxin


C. D-tubocurarine


D. Strychnine


E. Tetanus toxin


F. Cholera toxin


G. Barbiturates


H. Botulinus toxin


I. Pertussis toxin


J. LSD


K. Ondansetron


L. None of the above

Clinical evidence of neurologic deficit may not appear until regional blood flow has fallen to 50% or below average levels. At what rate of cerebral blood flow (in mL/100g/min) does cytotoxic edema develop from failure of the Na+K+-ATPase?




A. 40-50


B. 25-30


C. 16-20


D. 10-12


E. <10

Clinical evidence of neurologic deficit may not appear until regional blood flow has fallen to 50% or below average levels. At what rate of cerebral blood flow (in mL/100g/min) does cytotoxic edema develop from failure of the Na+K+-ATPase?




A. 40-50


B. 25-30


C. 16-20


D. 10-12


E. <10

Which of the following is believed to be the major vasoactive mediator that plays an intergral role in vasomodulation?




A. Carbon monoxide


B. Arachidonic acid metabolites


C. Nitrous oxide


D. Adenosine


E. ATP

Which of the following is believed to be the major vasoactive mediator that plays an intergral role in vasomodulation?




A. Carbon monoxide


B. Arachidonic acid metabolites


C. Nitrous oxide


D. Adenosine


E. ATP

Neural crest cells give rise to all of the following structures EXCEPT?




A. Ventral root ganglia


B. Postganglionic cells of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia


C. Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla


D. Melanocytes


E. Schwann cells

Neural crest cells give rise to all of the following structures EXCEPT?




A. Ventral root ganglia


B. Postganglionic cells of the sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia


C. Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla


D. Melanocytes


E. Schwann cells

Which of the following are common features of Wallerian degeneration?




1. Degeneration and phagocytosis of the distal axonal segment


2. Chromatolysis (peripheralization of rough endoplasmic reticulum w/ a concomitant increased protein synthesis) due to decreased retrograde neurotrophic factor deliver


3. Proximal axonal segment swelling due to continued anterograde axonal transport


4. Greater neuronal cell death of postsynaptic neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) than the central nervous system after axotomy




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Which of the following are common features of Wallerian degeneration?




1. Degeneration and phagocytosis of the distal axonal segment


2. Chromatolysis (peripheralization of rough endoplasmic reticulum w/ a concomitant increased protein synthesis) due to decreased retrograde neurotrophic factor deliver


3. Proximal axonal segment swelling due to continued anterograde axonal transport


4. Greater neuronal cell death of postsynaptic neurons in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) than the central nervous system after axotomy




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Striated muscle fibers




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Striated muscle fibers




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Contain large amounts of mitochondria, contract and relax slowly




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Contain large amounts of mitochondria, contract and relax slowly




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Aerobic metabolism capacity




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Aerobic metabolism capacity




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Contain large stores of glycogen




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Contain large stores of glycogen




A. Red muscle fibers


B. White muscle fibers


C. Both


D. None of the above

Composed solely of actin filaments

Composed solely of actin filaments

Composed solely of actin filaments

E

Composed solely of actin filaments




E

Shortens during muscle contraction

Shortens during muscle contraction

Shortens during muscle contraction

B, E

Shortens during muscle contraction




B, E

H zone

H zone

H zone

B, D

H zone




B

A band

A band

A band

A, D

A band




D

Z disc

Z disc

Z disc

A, C

Z disc




A

A consulting neuropathologist is asked to determine the gestational age of a stillborn infant thought to have been of approximately 18 weeks gestational age. What is the best neuroanatomic criterion the pathologist can use to determine the infant's gestational age around this time period?




A. The degree of neural tube closure


B. The pattern of cerebral sulci


C. The extent of myelination


D. The amount of α-fetoprotein in the mother's serum


E. Thickness of ependymal layer lining the ventricular cavity

A consulting neuropathologist is asked to determine the gestational age of a stillborn infant thought to have been of approximately 18 weeks gestational age. What is the best neuroanatomic criterion the pathologist can use to determine the infant's gestational age around this time period?




A. The degree of neural tube closure


B. The pattern of cerebral sulci


C. The extent of myelination


D. The amount of α-fetoprotein in the mother's serum


E. Thickness of ependymal layer lining the ventricular cavity

Which of the following is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?




A. 90% is secreted by the choroid plexus


B. Volatile anesthetic agents and CO2 increase CSF formation


C. The exit of CSF via the arachnoid villi is volume dependent


D. About 750mL of CSF is produced each day


E. Norepinephrine increases the rate of CSF formation

Which of the following is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?




A. 90% is secreted by the choroid plexus


B. Volatile anesthetic agents and CO2 increase CSF formation


C. The exit of CSF via the arachnoid villi is volume dependent


D. About 750mL of CSF is produced each day


E. Norepinephrine increases the rate of CSF formation

Caudal neuropore closure




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Caudal neuropore closure




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Notocord begins to develop




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Notocord begins to develop




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Neural folds almost fused




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Neural folds almost fused




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Rostral neuropore closure




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Rostral neuropore closure




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Neural groove development




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Neural groove development




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Bilaminar disc formed




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Bilaminar disc formed




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Prosencephalon divides into telencephalon and diencephalon




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

Prosencephalon divides into telencephalon and diencephalon




A. Day 12


B. Day 14


C. Day 16


D. Day 18


E. Day 21


F. Day 24


G. Day 26


H. None of the above

What neurotransmitter is responsible for generating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?




1. Acetylcholine


2. GABA


3. Glutamate


4. Glycine




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

What neurotransmitter is responsible for generating an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)?




1. Acetylcholine


2. GABA


3. Glutamate


4. Glycine




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

What occurs during acute metabolic acidosis to maintain the pH homeostasis in the CNS?




1. Compensatory hyperventilation


2. Reduction in CSF pCO2


3. Paradoxic CSF alkalosis


4. Carbonic anhydrase-catalyzed generation of bicarbonate by the choroid plexus




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

What occurs during acute metabolic acidosis to maintain the pH homeostasis in the CNS?




1. Compensatory hyperventilation


2. Reduction in CSF pCO2


3. Paradoxic CSF alkalosis


4. Carbonic anhydrase-catalyzed generation of bicarbonate by the choroid plexus




A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct


B. 1 and 3 are correct


C. 2 and 4 are correct


D. Only 4 is correct


E. All of the above

Meningiomas have been shown to be associated with the expression of progesterone receptors. In what part of the tumor cell do they reside?




A. Endoplasmic reticulum


B. Cell membrane


C. Nucleus


D. Ribosomes


E. Golgi complex

Meningiomas have been shown to be associated with the expression of progesterone receptors. In what part of the tumor cell do they reside?




A. Endoplasmic reticulum


B. Cell membrane


C. Nucleus


D. Ribosomes


E. Golgi complex

Binds to smooth endoplastic reticulum, causing release of CA2+ ions




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Binds to smooth endoplastic reticulum, causing release of CA2+ ions




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Second messenger, which activates protein kinase C




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Second messenger, which activates protein kinase C




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Activates protein kinase A




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Activates protein kinase A




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Has three subunits termed α,β,γ




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Has three subunits termed α,β,γ




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Splits PIP2 into two molecules that act as second messengers




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above

Splits PIP2 into two molecules that act as second messengers




A. G proteins


B. Protein kinase A


C. Protein kinase C


D. Phospholipase C (PLC)


E. Diaglycerol (DAG)


F. Inositol triphosphate (IP3)


G. cAMP


H. None of the above