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339 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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In a T1 weighted image the CSF appears?
a. White b. Black c. Grey |
b. Black
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In a T2 weighted image the white matter appears?
a. White b. Black c. Grey |
b. Black
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In a T2 weighted image the Putamen would appear?
a. White b. Black c. Grey |
c. Grey
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Interneurons which are not inhibitory are found in which layer of the cortex?
a. Molecular (plexiform) layer b. External Pyramidal layer c. Internal Granule layer d. Ganglionic Layer |
c. Internal Granule layer
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The Betz cells of the cortex are found in which layer?
a. Molecular (plexiform) layer b. External Pyramidal layer c. Internal Granule layer d. Ganglionic Layer |
d. Ganglionic Layer
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Thalamic neurons end in which layer of the cortex?
a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V |
d. IV
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Which tract starts in the motor cortex in layer V and winds up crossing over?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
b. Lateral Corticospinal tract
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Which tract starts in the motor cortex in layer V and doesn’t cross over?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract
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Which tract uses Internal arcuate fibers to cross in the medulla?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
d. Dorsal Column
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Which tract crosses in the anterior white commissural fibers?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
c. Spinothalamic
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Which tract crosses at the pyramidal decussation?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
b. Lateral Corticospinal tract
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A patient comes in not able to feel pain below her waist, a component of which tract must be damaged?
a. Ventral Corticospinal tract b. Lateral Corticospinal tract c. Spinothalamic d. Dorsal Column |
c. Spinothalamic
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A capsular infarct is caused by damage to which artery?
a. Anterior cerebral b. Middle cerebral c. Posterior cerebral d. AICA e. PICA |
b. Middle cerebral
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A Capsular infarct will damage?
a. Motor control b. Proprioception c. Pain sensation d. None of the above |
a. Motor control
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The posterior spinal arteries usually come off of which artery?
a. Anterior cerebral b. Middle cerebral c. Posterior cerebral d. AICA e. PICA |
e. PICA
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The cingulated gyrus is supplied by which artery?
a. Anterior cerebral b. Middle cerebral c. Posterior cerebral d. AICA e. PICA |
a. Anterior cerebral
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Brain arteries constrict when?
a. Blood pressure goes down b. Blood pressure goes up c. None of the above |
b. Blood pressure goes up
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Which of the following are the smallest fibers?
a. Aα b. Aδ c. B d. C |
d. C
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Which of the following is the largest fiber size?
a. Aα b. Aδ c. B d. C |
a. Aα
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A decrease in myelination will lead to a ?
a. Increase in the length constant b. Decrease in the length constant c. A longer spread of the potential without degradation d. None of the above |
b. Decrease in the length constant
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Which of the following will cause an increase in the length constant?
a. Increased axonal radius b. Decreases membrane resistance c. Increased internal resisitance d. Less ATP |
a. Increased axonal radius
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A 1 mV signal travels 1 length constant the signal is now?
a. 0.67 mV b. 0.5 mV c. 0.37 mV d. 0 mV |
c. 0.37 mV
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A myelinated axon has a diameter of 5μm what is its conduction velocity?
a. 10 m/s b. 25 m/s c. 30 m/s d. 60 m/s |
a. 10 m/s
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Local anesthetics:
a. Block K+ entry into the cell b. Block Na+ from exiting the cell c. Block K+ from exiting the cell d. Block Na+ from entering the cell |
d. Block Na+ from entering the cell
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4-aminopyridine:
a. Block K+ entry into the cell b. Block Na+ from exiting the cell c. Block K+ from exiting the cell d. Block Na+ from entering the cell |
c. Block K+ from exiting the cell
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α-scorpion toxins:
a. Block Na+ channel activation b. Block Na+ channel inactivation c. Block K+ channel activation d. None of the above |
b. Block Na+ channel inactivation
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What is the delay of synaptic transmission?
a. About 100ms b. About 50ms c. About 10 ms d. About 1ms |
d. About 1ms
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The Ia afferent causes the release of what neurotransmitter?
a. AcH b. Glutamate c. Glycine d. GABA e. Noradrenaline |
b. Glutamate
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When 2 EPSP’s arrive at the axon hillock from different sites at the same time it is called?
a. Destructive interference b. Temporal summation c. Spatial summation d. None of the above |
c. Spatial summation
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When 2 EPSP’s arrive at the axon hillock one right after the other it is called?
a. Destructive interference b. Temporal summation c. Spatial summation d. None of the above |
b. Temporal summation
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The threshold for an action potential is a 5mV EPSP, if a 7mV EPSP arrives at the axon hillock followed by a 5 mV IPSP will there be an Action Potential?
a. Yes b. No |
a. Yes
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The threshold for an action potential is a 5mV EPSP, if a 7mV EPSP arrives at the axon hillock at the same time as a 5 mV IPSP will there be an Action Potential?
a. Yes b. No |
b. No
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Renshaw cell release what neurotransmitter?
a. Ach b. Gly c. Glu d. GABA |
b. Gly
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Inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord release what neurotransmitter?
a. Ach b. Gly c. Glu d. GABA |
b. Gly
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Preganglion neurons in the ANS release what neurotransmitter?
a. Ach b. Gly c. Glu d. GABA |
a. Ach
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When an excitatory cell synapse on an inhibitory cell which then synapse on that same excitatory cell it is called?
a. Presynaptic inhibition b. Recurrent inhibition c. Disinhibition d. None of the above |
b. Recurrent inhibition
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When an inhibitory cell synapses on and inhibitory cell which then synapses on an excitatory cell this is called?
a. Presynaptic inhibition b. Recurrent inhibition c. Disinhibition d. None of the above |
c. Disinhibition
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When an inhibitory cell synapses on an excitatory cell (soma) this is called?
a. Presynaptic inhibition b. Recurrent inhibition c. Disinhibition d. None of the above |
d. None of the above
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A neuron is firing at a normal rate however a lower then normal release of neurotransmitter is taking place this is most likely because of?
a. Presynaptic inhibition b. Recurrent inhibition c. Disinhibition d. None of the above |
a. Presynaptic inhibition
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Which of the following drugs travels retrogradely back to an inhibitory interneuron and blocks there release?
a. Strychnine b. Cocaine c. Tetanus toxin d. Morphine |
c. Tetanus toxin
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Which of the following drugs blocks release of glycine in the CNS?
a. Strychnine b. Cocaine c. Tetanus toxin d. Morphine |
a. Strychnine
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Which drug acts by inhibiting C fiber terminals?
a. Strychnine b. Cocaine c. Tetanus toxin d. Morphine |
d. Morphine
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A motor unit is:
a. A group of motor neurons and the muscle fiber the innervate b. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates c. A motor neuron only d. A motor neuron and an inhibitory interneuron |
b. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
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Acetylcholine is synthesized?
a. In the cell body of the neuron b. In the nerve terminal c. In an adjacent glial cell |
b. In the nerve terminal
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Which of the following drugs enters the nerve terminal and cause a massive release of Ach depleting the stores?
a. Botulinum toxin b. Omega-conotoxin c. Lartotoxin d. Neostigmine e. Sarin |
c. Lartotoxin
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Which of the following drugs blocks voltage gated Ca2+ channels in the nerve terminal?
a. Botulinum toxin b. Omega-conotoxin c. Lartotoxin d. Neostigmine e. Sarin |
a. Omega-conotoxin
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Which drug block the release of AcH from the nerve terminal permanently?
a. Botulinum toxin b. Omega-conotoxin c. Lartotoxin d. Neostigmine e. Sarin |
a. Botulinum toxin
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Which of the following is derived from plants and blocks the action of ACh esterase?
a. Botulinum toxin b. Omega-conotoxin c. Lartotoxin d. Neostigmine e. Sarin |
d. Neostigmine
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Which of the following can be used as a weapon and also blocks the activity of ACh esterase?
a. Botulinum toxin b. Omega-conotoxin c. Lartotoxin d. Neostigmine e. Sarin |
e. Sarin
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Which of the following binds to the nAChR and causes prolonged depolarization?
a. D-tubocurarine b. α-bungarotoxin c. Decamethonium d. Propanolol |
c. Decamethonium
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Which of the following is a comepetitive antagonist of nAChR’s?
a. D-tubocurarine b. α-bungarotoxin c. Decamethonium d. Propanolol |
a. D-tubocurarine
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Which of the following is an irreversible antagonist of the nAChR?
a. D-tubocurarine b. α-bungarotoxin c. Decamethonium d. Propanolol |
b. α-bungarotoxin
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Which protein is responsible for fast retrograde axonal transport?
a. Kinesin b. Dynein c. Neither |
b. Dynein
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Which protein is responsible for fast anterograde axonal transport?
a. Kinesin b. Dynein c. neither |
a. Kinesin
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Which of the following is produced from snake venom, binds to actin and prevents ACh release?
a. α-bungarotoxin b. β-bungarotoxin c. larotoxin d. none of the above |
b. β-bungarotoxin
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Which subunit composition is that of a fetal nAChR?
a. 2αβδε b. 2α3β c. 2αβγδ |
c. 2αβγδ
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How many ACh need to bind to the receptor in order for it to open?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 8 |
b. 2
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Which muscarinic receptor causes a decrease in cAMP?
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 |
b. M2
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Which muscarinic receptor causes an increase in glandular secretion?
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 |
c. M3
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Which muscarinic receptor cause both a decrease in gK and an increase in [Ca]i?
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 |
a. M1
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Which muscarinic receptor causes both a increase in gK and a decrease in gCa?
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 |
b. M2
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Which of the following blocks α adrenoreceptors?
a. Isoprenaline b. Phentolamine c. Propanolol |
b. Phentolamine
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Which of the following blocks β adrenoreceptors?
a. Isoprenaline b. Phentolamine c. Propanolol |
c. Propanolol
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Which of the following activates β adrenoreceptors better then α adrenoreceptor?
a. Isoprenaline b. Phentolamine c. Propanolol |
a. Isoprenaline
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Which adrenoreceptor would lead to an increased rate and strength of contraction of the heart?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
c. β1
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Which adrenoreceptor would cause bronchodilation?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
d. β2
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Which adrenoreceptor would cause arteriole constriction?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
a. α1
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Which adrenoreceptor would cause pupil dilation?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
a. α1
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Which of the following coverings is avascular?
a. Dura mater b. Arachnoid mater c. Pia mater |
c. Pia mater
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The basilar artery :
a. Arises from the internal carotid artery b. Terminates as the superior cerebellar artery c. Gives off PICA d. Gives off AICA e. None of the above |
d. Gives off AICA
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The insular cortex is supplied by:
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery
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Broca’s area is mostly supplied by
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
b. Middle Cerebral Artery
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Damage of which artery will affect the Globus pallidus (internal)?
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
e. Anterior choroidal
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A patient comes in with damage to his hippocampus, which artery is the most likely culprit?
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
e. Anterior choroidal
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Which artery supplies the amygdala?
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
e. Anterior Choroidal
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Which artery supplies the body of the caudate?
a. Anterior Cerebral Artery b. Middle Cerebral Artery c. Posterior Cerebral Artery d. AICA e. Anterior choroidal |
b. Middle Cerebral Artery
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Area’s 44 and 45 correspond to?
a. Wernicke's b. Broca’s c. Somatosensory cortex d. Motor cortex e. Primary auditory cortex |
b. Broca’s
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The majority of blood in the sinuses arrives through the ?
a. Cerebral veins b. Diploic veins c. Emissary veins |
a. Cerebral veins
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Which veins connect extracranial with intracranial veins?
a. Cerebral veins b. Diploic veins c. Emissary veins |
c. Emissary veins
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Which is the smallest sinus?
a. Superior longitudinal b. Straight c. Occipital d. Transverse e. Sigmoid |
c. Occipital
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Which sinuses receives blood from the inferior cerebrum, cerebellum and emissary veins?
a. Superior longitudinal b. Straight c. Occipital d. Transverse e. Sigmoid |
c. Occipital
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Which sinus drains into the internal jugular veins after receiving blood from the straight sinus?
a. Superior longitudinal b. Straight c. Occipital d. Transverse e. Sigmoid |
e. Sigmoid
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When arterial CO2 is raised brain arterioles?
a. Constrict b. Dilate c. Don’t change |
b. Dilate
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When O2 or pH is raised brain arterioles?
a. Dilate b. Decrease blood flow c. Don’t change |
b. Decrease blood flow
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How much is the volume of intracellular fluid in the brain?
a. 1200mL b. 720mL c. 480mL d. 150mL e. 70mL |
b. 720mL
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How much volume is the brains blood plasma?
a. 1200mL b. 720mL c. 480mL d. 150mL e. 70mL |
e. 70mL
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The rate of CSF production is closest to?
a. 1200mL/day b. 500mL/day c. 5000mL/day d. 200mL/day |
b. 500mL/day
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Which of the following has a low oil/water partition coefficient but is found in the brain fluids at a high degree?
a. Morphine b. Ethanol c. Dopamine d. L-DOPA |
d. L-DOPA
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The A-system of transporters?
a. Use facilitated diffusion to transport neutral AA’s (Na+-dependent) b. Uses a co-transport system to transfer glycine (Na+-dependent) c. Uses facilitated diffusion to transfer glucose d. None of the above |
b. Uses a co-transport system to transfer glycine (Na+-dependent)
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The L system of transporters?
a. Use facilitated diffusion to transport neutral AA’s (Na+-dependent) b. Uses a co-transport system to transfer glycine (Na+-depndent) c. Uses facilitated diffusion to transfer glucose d. None of the above |
a. Use facilitated diffusion to transport neutral AA’s (Na+-dependent
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The ependymal cell lining the ventricles allow transfer of solutes via?
a. Transcellular transport b. Paracellular transport c. Don’t allow any transport |
b. Paracellular transport
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In what disease is there elevated IgG in the CSF?
a. Bacterial meningitis b. Brain tumor or abscess c. Multiple sclerosis d. Guillain-Barre syndrome |
c. Multiple sclerosis
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In what disease is <10 mononuclear leukocytes, elevated protein and normal glucose in the CSF?
a. Bacterial meningitis b. Brain tumor or abscess c. Multiple sclerosis d. Guillain-Barre syndrome |
d. Guillain-Barre syndrome
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What condition is characterized by High polymorphonuclear neutrophils, High protein, and low glucose?
a. Bacterial meningitis b. Brain tumor or abscess c. Multiple sclerosis d. Guillain-Barre syndrome |
a. Bacterial meningitis
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Tumors of the choroids plexus with excess CSF lead to?
a. Noncommunicating (obstructive) hydrocephalus b. Communicating hydrocephalus c. Normal pressure hydrocephalus |
b. Communicating hydrocephalus
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Muscle Ia afferents release ________________ on __________________ receptors in the postsynaptic neuron.
a. Ach; Glycine b. Glycine; GABAA c. Glutamate; Non-NMDA d. Norepinephrine; adrenergic |
c. Glutamate; Non-NMDA
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The Ek= -70mV, the ENa = +70 and ECl = -70mV. If the resting membrane potential is 0mV, the membrane is probably _________________?
a. Equally permeable to K+ and Cl- b. More permeable to K+ then to Na+, impermeable to Cl- c. Equally permeable to Na+ and Cl- and impermeable to K+ d. Equally permeable to all 3 ions |
c. Equally permeable to Na+ and Cl- and impermeable to K+
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Which drug would block an action potential in the muscle?
a. Neostigme b. Atropine c. Saxitoxin d. Nicotine |
c. Saxitoxin
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Neuron A release Glycine on Neuron B. Neuron B release Glutamate on Neuron A and Neuron C. Increased stimulation of Neuron B will ______________?
a. Cause inhibition of neuron B b. Cause a depolarization in neuron A c. Cause a hyperpolarization in neuron B d. All of the above e. None of the above |
d. All of the above
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The degradation of catecholamines?
a. Requires acetylcholine esterase b. Occurs in the basal lamina of the NMJ c. Causes an increase in sympathetic tone d. Requires the enzyme MAO. |
d. Requires the enzyme MAO.
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Sweat glands are innervated by ______________ neurons which release _______________.
a. Sympathetic; norepinephrine b. Sympathetic; AcH c. Parasympathetic; norepinephrine d. Parasympathetic; AcH |
b. Sympathetic; AcH
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Which of the following will lead to an increase skeletal muscle contraction?
a. Succinylcholine b. α-bungarotoxin c. Hexamthonium d. None of the above |
a. Succinylcholine
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Which of the following receptors leads to a decrease in cAMP?
a. M1 b. M2 c. M3 d. None of the above |
c. M3
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If you wanted to just activate β receptors and not α receptors you would use?
a. Norepinephrine b. Epinephrine at high concentrations c. Isoprenaline d. Dopamine |
c. Isoprenaline
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The agonist sensitivity described is characterisitic of ___________________ receptors. Noradrenaline > adrenaline > isprenaline?
a. α adrenoreceptor b. β adrenoreceptor c. M1 receptor d. nACh receptor |
a. α adrenoreceptor
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Which of the following receptors leads to a decrease in cAMP?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
b. α2
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Which of the following receptors leads to a reduction in transmitter release via autoreceptors?
a. α1 b. α2 c. β1 d. β2 |
b. α2
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A neuron has a resting membrane potential of -70mV. Upon addition of drug X the membrane potential depolarizes and stays depolarized. The most likely explanation for this is?
a. The drug was TTX b. The drug was TEA c. The drug was digitalis d. The drug was ω-conotoxin |
c. The drug was digitalis
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112. A conductance of 50 μS was measured with a resting membrane potential of -70mV and a Equilibrium potential of +70mV. What is the current through the channel?
a. 7 nA b. 20 nA c. 1 nA d. cannot be determined |
a. 7 nA
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Which of the following sensory system only use chemoreceptors?
a. Visual b. Vestibular c. Olfactory d. Somatosensory |
c. Olfactory
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An increase in stimulation intensity will most likely lead to a?
a. Decrease in the amplitude of Action Potentials b. An increase in the amplitude of action potentials c. An decrease in the frequency of Action Potentials d. An increase in the frequency of Action Potentials |
d. An increase in the frequency of Action Potentials
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For some reason when u pick up a pen, u know its there. However all of a sudden the feeling of it being there disappears. This is most likely because?
a. The feeling was carried by slowly adapting receptors b. The feeling was carried by rapidly adapting receptors c. The release of neurotransmitters has increased to a saturating level. d. None of the above |
b. The feeling was carried by rapidly adapting receptors
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A stimulus is shined on the eye and an electrode recording responses detects a signal when the light passes over a certain area, this is known as a?
a. Receptive field b. 2 point discriminative field c. proprioceptive test field d. none of the above |
a. Receptive field
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Multiple neuron seem to be releasing neurotransmitter on one neuron this is known as?
a. Convergence b. Divergence c. Lateral inhibition |
a. Convergence
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Stimulation of neuron B, which sits in between Neurons A and C, causes a 20mV depolarization. Neurons A and C however are depolarized by 5mV. If a neuron sitting next to neurons A or C was checked (not neuron B; assuming simple lateral inhibition is occurring), it would have been depolarized by (roughly)?
a. 3mV b. 20mV c. 10mV d. 25mV |
c. 10mV
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The process of lateral inhibition?
a. Increases the intensity of a signal b. Increases the contrast of a signal c. Changes the modality of a signal d. None of the above |
b. Increases the contrast of a signal
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Which of the following pathways uses the largest diameter fibers to carry signals?
a. Temperature b. Pain c. Vibration d. C and B |
c. Vibration
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Meissners corpuscles are?
a. Rapidly adapting b. Slowly adapting c. Found superficially in skin d. Found deep in skin e. A and C f. B and D g. A and D h. B and C |
e. A and C
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Ruffini endings are?
a. Rapidly adapting b. Slowly adapting c. Found superficially in skin d. Found deep in skin e. A and C f. B and D g. A and D h. B and C |
f. B and D
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Merkel disk receptors are?
a. Rapidly adapting b. Slowly adapting c. Found superficially in skin d. Found deep in skin e. A and C f. B and D g. A and D h. B and C |
h. B and C
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Skin cooling is carried by?
a. Aδ fibers b. C fibers c. Ia fibers d. Ib fibers |
a. Aδ fibers
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Pricking pain is carried by?
a. Aδ fibers b. C fibers c. Ia fibers d. Ib fibers |
a. Aδ fibers
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Burning pain is carried by?
a. Aδ fibers b. C fibers c. Ia fibers d. Ib fibers |
b. C fibers
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Skin warming is carried by?
a. Aδ fibers b. C fibers c. Ia fibers d. Ib fibers |
b. C fibers
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Signals from the Golgi tendon organ are carried via?
a. Aδ fibers b. C fibers c. Ia fibers d. Ib fibers |
d. Ib fibers
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The L1 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Middle finger b. Nipple line c. Groin d. Big toe |
c. Groin
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Fibers of the upper limbs traveling in the dorsal column tract?
a. Are medial to the central canal and travel in the cuneate fasiculus b. Are lateral to the central canal and travel in the cuneate fasiculus c. Are lateral to the central canal and travel in the gracile fasiculus d. Are medial to the central canal travel in the gracile fasiculus |
b. Are lateral to the central canal and travel in the cuneate fasiculus
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Syringomyelia usually affects the __________________ most prominently
a. Dorsal column/Medial lemniscus b. Lateral corticospinal c. Anterolateral tract (spinothalamic) d. Rubrospinal tract |
c. Anterolateral tract (spinothalamic)
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A hemisection of the spinal cord because of slow growing mass, causes?
a. A loss of the ascending and descending fiber tracts b. Inability to assess location of limbs c. Is known as Brown-Sequard syndrome d. All of the above |
d. All of the above
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In brown-sequard the patient would have loss everywhere except?
a. Ipsilateral propioception at level of lesion b. Ipsilateral pain at level of lesion c. Ipsilateral propioception at level below the lesion d. Ipsilateral pain at level below the lesion |
d. Ipsilateral pain at level below the lesion
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The L4 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Middle finger b. Nipple line c. Groin d. Big toe |
d. Big toe
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The C7 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Middle finger b. Nipple line c. Groin d. Big toe |
a. Middle finger
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The T4 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Middle finger b. Nipple line c. Groin d. Big toe |
b. Nipple line
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The C6 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Thumb b. Nipple line c. Middle Finger d. Big toe |
a. Thumb
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The T10 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Nipple line b. Umbilicus c. Top of the foot d. Bottom of the foot |
b. Umbilicus
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In regard to the gate control theory of pain?
a. Interneurons release substance P on the postsynaptic neuron b. The presynaptic opioid receptors control the sensation of pain alone c. Presynaptic and postsynaptic opioid receptors are influenced by Enkephalin d. Pain is mediated by touch receptors |
c. Presynaptic and postsynaptic opioid receptors are influenced by Enkephalin
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Pain can be physiologically modulated by all of the following except
a. Descending fibers from the periaqueductal grey b. Descending fibers from the nucleus raphe magnus c. Descending fibers from the Locus ceruleus d. Descending fibers from the VPL |
d. Descending fibers from the VPL
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A dorsal Rhizotomy?
a. Is used to treat motor spasms b. Is used to treat unmanageable pain c. Is used to treat somatosethetic dysfunction d. can be used to treat dysfunction in olfaction |
b. Is used to treat unmanageable pain
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The crossing over of fibers in the dorsal column/medial lemniscus occurs at the level of?
a. Midbrain b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla e. Spinal cord |
d. Medulla
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The internal arcuate fibers are found at the level of the?
a. Midbrain b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla e. Spinal cord |
d. Medulla
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The pyramidal decussation occurs in what structure?
a. Midbrain b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla e. Spinal cord |
d. Medulla
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The anterior white commissure is found in which structure?
a. Midbrain b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Medulla e. Spinal cord |
e. Spinal cord
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Area 17 is also known as?
a. Primary visual cortex b. Primary auditory cortex c. Wernicke's area d. Primary motor cortex e. Broca’s area |
a. Primary visual cortex
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Brodmann's area 41 and 42 are also called?
a. Primary visual cortex b. Primary auditory cortex c. Wernicke's’ area d. Primary motor cortex e. Broca’s area |
b. Primary auditory cortex
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Which area is involved in motor planning?
a. Premotor cortex b. Primary motor cortex c. Prefrontal cortex d. Area 5 |
c. Prefrontal cortex
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Which of the following is an input to the Motor cortex but not to the Pre-motor cortex?
a. Primary somatosensory cortex b. Brodman Area 5 c. Basal Ganglia d. Cerebellum |
a. Primary somatosensory cortex
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The neurotransmitter released by the 1st order neurons in the Lateral corticospinal tract are?
a. GABA b. ACh c. Glutamate d. Dopamine |
c. Glutamate
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The ventral corticospinal tract is unique in that?
a. It starts at Layer 4 in the cortex b. It has no decussating fibers c. Controls the contraction of skeletal muscles d. None of the above |
b. It has no decussating fibers
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Severing the lateral corticospinal tract at level C1 leads to?
a. Contralateral hemiparesis b. Ipsilateral hemiparesis c. Syringomyelia d. Contralateral hemiparathesia |
b. Ipsilateral hemiparesis
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Lesions in the corticospinal tract at the level of the superior colliculus will produce?
a. Symptoms ipsilateral to lesion b. Wasting away of the muscles c. No Extensor plantar response d. Hyperreflexia |
d. Hyperreflexia
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A Lower motor neuron lesion leads to?
a. Areflexia b. Missing Plantar response c. Flaccid paralysis d. Wasting of the muscles e. C and D f. All of the above |
f. All of the above
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All of the following are diseases of upper motor neurons except?
a. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis b. Anterior Spinal artery syndrome c. Central Medullary syndrome d. Lesions in the internal capsule |
a. Amyotropic Lateral Sclerosis
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An increased deep tendon reflex is consistent with?
a. An interrupted dorsal column b. An interrupted spinothalamic tract c. An interrupted corticospinal tract d. None of the above |
c. An interrupted corticospinal tract
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Loss of pain and temperature ~2 levels below the lesion is associated with?
a. An interrupted dorsal column b. An interrupted spinothalamic tract c. An interrupted corticospinal tract d. None of the above |
b. An interrupted spinothalamic tract
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Loss of vibration sensation on the same side of lesion is associated with?
a. An interrupted dorsal column b. An interrupted spinothalamic tract c. An interrupted corticospinal tract d. None of the above |
a. An interrupted dorsal column
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A flaccid paralysis followed by spasticity is associated with?
a. An interrupted dorsal column b. An interrupted spinothalamic tract c. An interrupted corticospinal tract d. None of the above |
c. An interrupted corticospinal tract
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An infarction in the internal capsule, will cause all of the following via corticobulbar fibers except?
a. Contralateral hemiplegia b. Deviation of tongue toward side of lesion c. Paralysis of contralateral face muscles d. Gaze palsy toward side of lesion e. All of the above |
a. Contralateral hemiplegia
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Which of the following tracts do not decussate?
a. Rubrospinal b. Lateral corticospinal c. Medial vestibulospinal d. Medial reticulospinal |
d. Medial reticulospinal
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Which of the following control extensor muscles?
a. Rubrospinal b. Lateral spinothalamic c. Medial vestibulospinal d. Medullary reticulospinal |
c. Medial vestibulospinal
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Which of the following tracts does not receive information from the cerebral cortex?
a. Rubrospinal b. Pontine Reticulospinal c. Medial vestibulospinal d. Medullary reticulospinal |
c. Medial vestibulospinal
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The major differences between the Lateral and Medial Vestibulospinal tracts are that?
a. The Medial tract is uncrossed b. The Lateral tract innervates the lower limbs c. The medial tract lies in the Midbrain d. The lateral tract receives information from the cortex |
b. The Lateral tract innervates the lower limbs
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Which of the following tracts primarily influences Gamma motor neurons?
a. Rubrospinal tract b. Pontine Reticulospinal tract c. Medial Vestibulospinal tract d. Lateral Vestibulospinal tract |
b. Pontine Reticulospinal tract
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Which of the following tracts activates the myotactic reflex?
a. Rubrospinal b. Lateral corticospinal c. Pontine Reticulospinal tract d. Medial vestibulospinal e. Medullary reticulospinal |
c. Pontine Reticulospinal tract
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Which of the following tracts exerts a large excitatory drive on Alpha motor neurons?
a. Pontine reticular b. Medullary reticular c. Medial vestibular d. Lateral vestibular |
d. Lateral vestibular
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Lesion above the red nucleus will lead to?
a. Disruption of the corticobulbar tract b. Disruption of the rubrospinal tract c. Disruption of the vestibulospinal tract d. A and B e. All of the above |
a. Disruption of the corticobulbar tract
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Lesions below the red nucleus will lead to?
a. Disruption of the corticobulbar tract b. Disruption of the rubrospinal tract c. Disruption of the corticospinal tract d. A and B e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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Decerebrate posturing is caused by prolonged uncal herniation?
a. True b. False |
a. True
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Decorticate posturing can be caused by uncal herniation?
a. True b. False |
a. True
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In decorticate posturing_____________?
a. There is an increased flexion in the upper limbs b. There is an increased flexion in the lower limbs c. There in an increased Extension in the upper limbs d. There is an increased extension in the lower limbs e. A and B f. A and D g. C and D |
f. A and D
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In decerebrate posturing_____________?
a. There is an increased flexion in the upper limbs b. There is an increased flexion in the lower limbs c. There in an increased Extension in the upper limbs d. There is an increased extension in the lower limbs e. A and B f. A and D g. C and D |
g. C and D
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Signs associated with a midbrain lesion include all of the following except?
a. Pupil dilation b. Laterally directed gaze c. Unconsciousness d. Extended arms and legs e. Loss of olfaction |
e. Loss of olfaction
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The type Ia fibers measure?
a. Length b. Rate of change of length c. Tension d. Depth pressure e. Pain and chemicals f. A and B g. A and D |
f. A and B
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The group II fibers measure?
a. Length b. Rate of change of length c. Tension d. Depth pressure e. Pain and chemicals f. A and B g. A and D |
g. A and D
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The group Ib fibers measure?
a. Length b. Rate of change of length c. Tension d. Depth pressure e. Pain and chemicals f. A and B g. A and D |
c. Tension
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The group III fibers measure?
a. Length b. Rate of change of length c. Tension d. Depth pressure e. Pain and chemicals f. A and B g. A and C |
e. Pain and chemicals
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Which of the following is not involved in measuring constant length?
a. Dynamic nuclear bag fibers b. Static nuclear bag fibers c. Nuclear chain fibers d. None of the above |
a. Dynamic nuclear bag fibers
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The flexors of the fingers would be located in the?
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn b. Ventro-medial ventral horn c. Dorso-Lateral ventral horn d. Dorso-medial ventral horn |
c. Dorso-Lateral ventral horn
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The flexors of the chest muscles would be located in the?
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn b. Ventro-medial ventral horn c. Dorso-Lateral ventral horn d. Dorso-medial ventral horn |
d. Dorso-medial ventral horn
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The extensors of the little toes would be located in the?
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn b. Ventro-medial ventral horn c. Dorso-Lateral ventral horn d. Dorso-medial ventral horn |
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn
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The extensors of the fingers would be located in the?
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn b. Ventro-medial ventral horn c. Dorso-Lateral ventral horn d. Dorso-medial ventral horn |
a. Ventro-lateral ventral horn
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The process when collaterals of Ia afferents synapse on interneurons that inhibit antagonist muscle groups is called?
a. Synaptic inhibition b. Reciprocal innervation c. Collateral inhibition d. None of the above |
b. Reciprocal innervation
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During sustained stretch
a. increased muscle spindle activity b. decreased muscle spindle activity c. neither |
a. increased muscle spindle activity
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During increased Ia afferent discharge.
a. increased muscle spindle activity b. decreased muscle spindle activity c. neither |
b. decreased muscle spindle activity
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During increased Ia and gamma motor neuron discharge.
a. increased muscle spindle activity b. decreased muscle spindle activity c. neither |
a. increased muscle spindle activity
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The physiological function of gamma motor neurons is to ______________.
a. Flex the upper limb mucles b. Increase Ia discharge c. Increase the sensitivity of the muscle spindle d. Decrease the sensitivity of the muscle spindle |
c. Increase the sensitivity of the muscle spindle
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An very rapid discharge of Ib firing leads to?
a. Aα motor neuron excitation b. Aα motor neuron inhibition c. Relaxation of the antagonist muscle d. Contraction of the homonymous muscle |
b. Aα motor neuron inhibition
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The fine movements of the extraoccular muscles?
a. Are controlled by motor neurons innervating about 100 muscle fibers b. Are controlled by motor neurons innervating about 1000 muscle fibers c. Are controlled by motor neurons innervating about 10 muscle fibers |
c. Are controlled by motor neurons innervating about 10 muscle fibers
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Maintaining balance and posture______.
a. Is controlled by motor neurons innervating about 10 muscle fibers b. Is controlled by motor neurons innervating about 100 muscle fibers c. Is controlled by motor neurons innervating about 1000 muscle fibers |
Is controlled by motor neurons innervating about 1000 muscle fibers
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Fast fatigue-resistant fibers are?
a. Type I b. Type IIA c. Type IIB |
b. Type IIA
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Slow-twitch fibers are?
a. Type I b. Type IIA c. Type IIB |
a. Type I
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Fast fatigable fibers are?
a. Type I b. Type IIA c. Type IIB |
c. Type IIB
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Damage to 2nd order (Corticospinal tract) neurons in the spinal cord can cause?
a. Upper motor neuron syndrome b. Lower motor neuron syndrome c. neither |
b. Lower motor neuron syndrome
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Damage to motor neurons or Ia afferents lead to?
a. Focal dystonia b. Hypotonia c. Hypertonia d. Multiple sclerosis |
b. Hypotonia
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Lambert-Eaton syndrome predominantly effects?
a. The soma b. The axon c. Schwann cells d. Nerve endings e. Synaptic cleft f. End plate g. Muscle Fiber |
d. Nerve endings
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Dipthera toxin predominantly affect?
a. The soma b. The axon c. Schwann cells d. Nerve endings e. Synaptic cleft f. End plate g. Muscle Fiber |
c. Schwann cells
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Lou Geyrig disease primarily affect?
a. The soma b. The axon c. Schwann cells d. Nerve endings e. Synaptic cleft f. End plate g. Muscle Fiber |
a. The soma
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Muscular dystrophy usually affects?
a. The soma b. The axon c. Schwann cells d. Nerve endings e. Synaptic cleft f. End plate g. Muscle Fiber |
g. Muscle Fiber
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Lambert-Eaton Syndrome
a. Associated with small cell cancers of the lung b. Ig to voltage gated Ca2+ channels are present c. There is an increase in ACh release d. A and B e. B and C |
d. A and B
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Lambert-eaton syndrome
a. Causes an increased EPP amplitude b. An increase in the number of mEPP c. An increase in the size of the mEPP d. Causes a decreased EPP amplitude e. A and C f. B and D |
d. Causes a decreased EPP amplitude
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A waning response is characteristic of?
a. Lambert-eaton syndrome b. Myasthenia gravis c. Myotonia Congentia d. None of the above |
b. Myasthenia gravis
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A waxing response to electrical stimulation is characteristic of?
a. Lambert-eaton syndrome b. Myasthenia gravis c. Myotonia Congentia d. None of the above |
a. Lambert-eaton syndrome
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Treatment by performing a plasma exchange is most useful in the treatment of?
a. Lambert-eaton syndrome b. Myasthenia gravis c. Myotonia Congentia d. None of the above |
b. Myasthenia gravis
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Difficulty in releasing a hand grasped during shaking maybe caused by?
a. Lambert-eaton syndrome b. Myasthenia gravis c. Myotonia Congentia d. Myasthenia |
c. Myotonia Congentia
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In myotonia congenital, which of the following are true?
a. It is X-linked b. Leads to increased excitability because of Ca2+ channel crosslinking c. An elevation of K+ ions in the tranverse tubules leads to depolarization d. The relaxation of muscles is shortened |
c. An elevation of K+ ions in the tranverse tubules leads to depolarization
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Which of the following is not associated with muscular dystrophy?
a. X-linked recessive b. Onset late in life (30-40) c. Absence of the muscle protein dystrophin d. Death ensue from cardiovascular and respiratory insufficiency |
b. Onset late in life (30-40)
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Which is usually related to more muscle fibers?
a. Fibrillation b. Fasciculations |
b. Fasciculations
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Reinnervation of denervated muscle can lead to?
a. Decrease in sponaneous activity b. A larger then normal response c. Addition of more adult nAChR’s d. Removal of voltage gated Na+ and Ca2+ channels |
b. A larger then normal response
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A disorder of which of the following sites would lead to a fluctuating amplitude of muscle electrical response (EMG) to repetitive stimulation of the motor nerve?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
c. NMJ
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A disorder of which of the following would lead to a decrease in motor nerve conduction velocity?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon)
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A disorder of which of the following would lead to EMG signs of denervation?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon)
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A disorder of which of the following mostly leads to fasciculations?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
a. Motor neuron soma or axon
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Wasting away or atrophy is associated with damage to all of the following locations except?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
c. NMJ
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Weakness or paresis is associated with a dysfunction in which of the following locations or processes?
a. Motor neuron soma or axon b. Schwaan cell (myelination of motor axon) c. NMJ d. Muscle e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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Hemisection of the spinal cord at T1 on the left side results in all of the following signs or symptoms except?
a. Plantar response flexor on the left side b. Loss of vibration sensation in the left leg c. Leg dystaxia on the right side d. Exaggerated knee jerk reflex on the left side e. Normal pain and temperature sensation on the left side |
a. Plantar response flexor on the left side
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Lower motor neuron lesions result in all of the following deficits or signs except?
a. Loss of muscle stretch reflexes b. Loss of superficial reflexes c. Fasciculations d. Muscle wasting e. Plantar reflex extensor |
e. Plantar reflex extensor
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The fifty year old hypertensive woman complained of numbness and weakness and left leg and foot. Occlusion which the following vessels may account for this complaint?
a. Anterior choroidal artery b. anterior cerebral artery c. interior carotid artery d. middle cerebral artery e. posterior artery |
b. anterior cerebral artery
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A 15-year-old boy's hit in the temple with a baseball becomes unconscious. After about 10 minutes, he regained consciousness, but he soon becomes lethargic, and over the next two hours, he becomes stuporous. His pupils on equal. Intracranial hemorrhage is suspected. Which of the following vessels is most likely to be the source of the hemorrhage?
a. anterior communicating artery b. basilar artery c. middle cerebral artery d. middle meningeal artery |
d. middle meningeal artery
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The optic chiasm is supplied by all the following arteries except the?
a. Internal carotid artery b. anterior communicating artery c. anterior choroidal artery d. posterior communicating artery e. anterior cerebral artery |
c. anterior choroidal artery
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A young boy has severed his radial nerve. Which of the following cells plays a major role in axonal regrowth?
a. Fiberous astrocytes b. Fibroblasts c. Oligodendrocytes d. protoplasmic astrocytes e. Schwann cells |
e. Schwann cells
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The muscle stretch reflex is initiated at which of the following receptors?
a. End bulbs of Krause b. Merkel disks c. muscle spindles d. Ruffini end bulbs e. paccician corpuscles |
c. muscle spindles
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All the following statement concerning sensory receptors are correct except?
a. Pain and dermal receptors utilize group IB fibers b. Meissner's corpuscles are found only in the dermal papilla of glabrous skin c. Merkel tactile disks mediated sensation of light touch d. Pacinian corpuscles are acceleration detectors that respond to vibration sensation e. annulus spiral endings project centrally in the dorsal column medial/lemniscus pathway |
a. Pain and dermal receptors utilize group IB fibers
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Neurological examination reveals an extensor plantar reflex on the left side, hyperreflexia on the left side, a loss of pain and temperature sensation the right side, and ptosis and miosis on the left side. A lesion in the causes this constellation of deficits could most likely be found in the?
a. Paracentral lobule, left side b. Crus cerebri, right side c. dorsal lateral medulla, left side d. cervical spinal cord e. lumbar spinal cord |
d. cervical spinal cord
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The fifty year old woman complained of clumsiness in her hands while working in the kitchen; she recently burnt hands without experiencing pain. The neurological examination reveals bilateral weakness of the shoulder girdles on this and hands as well as loss of pain and temperature sensation covering the shoulder and upper extremity in a cape like distribution. Severe atrophy is present in the intrinsic muscles and hands. The most likely diagnosis is?
a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. subacute combined degeneration c. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease d. Syringomyelia e. tabes dorsalis |
d. Syringomyelia
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The lateral column spinal cord contains the
a. lateral cortical spinal tract b. direct cortical spinal tract c. Lissayer’s tract d. gracile tract |
a. lateral cortical spinal tract
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A sign of upper motor neuron lesion in the spinal cord is
a. severe muscle atrophy b. hyperactive deep tendon reflexes c. flaccid paralysis d. absence of pathological reflexes e. absence of withdrawal responses |
b. hyperactive deep tendon reflexes
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The following fiber systems in the spinal cord are descending tracks except for the?
a. cuneate tract b. ventral spinocerebellar tracts c. spinothalamic tract d. spinal reticular tract e. reticulospinal tract |
e. reticulospinal tract
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Axons in the spinothalamic tracts decussate:
a. in the medullary decussation b. in the medullary lemniscus c. within the spinal cord 5 to 6 segments above the level where they enter d. within the spinal cord within 1 to 2 segments of the level where they enter e. in the medial lemniscus |
d. within the spinal cord within 1 to 2 segments of the level where they enter
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A 15-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after accident on his father's farm. The examination reveals weakness of the left lower extremity but no frank paralysis. There is a loss of pinprick sensation on the right side beginning at the TV dermatome, and dorsiflexion the great toe in response to plantar simulation. Based on this examination which of the following represents the most likely approximate location of this lesion?
a. T6 on the left side b. T6 on the right side c. T8 on the left side d. T8 on the right side e. T10 on the left side |
a. T6 on the left side
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To 47-year-old man is transported to the emergency department for the side of an automobile collision. The examination reveals a paralysis of both lower extremities. Which of the following most specifically identifies this clinical picture?
a. Alternating hemiplegia b. Hemiplegia c. Monoplegia d. Quadriplegia e. Paraplegia |
e. Paraplegia
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37-year-old man presents to his family physician to complaint of pain on his face the examination shows the gentle simulation of the cheek and corner of the mouth precipitates a severe sharp lancinating pain. A consulting neuron disorders and MRI T-2 weighted, which reveals a vascular loop that appears to be pressing on the trigeminal root proximal to the ganglion. Which of following vessels is most likely involved?
a. Anterior inferior cerebellar artery b. posterior cerebral artery c. posterior inferior cerebellar artery d. quadrigeminal artery e. superior cerebellar artery |
a. superior cerebellar artery
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The sagittal MRI of the 52-year-old man to a shows a small tumor in the area of the long and short gyri. These gyri characteristically found in which of the following lobes?
a. Frontal b. insular c. limbic d. occipital e. parietal |
b. insular
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Which of the following transport processes uses ATP most directly?
a. Transport of Na+ out of cells b. Transport of glucose into cells c. Transport of amino acids into cells d. Osmosis of water into cells e. Filtration of water out of capillaries |
a. Transport of Na+ out of cells
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A membrane permeable only to sodium separates 10M and 0.1 solutions of NaCl. Which of the following is the equilibrium potential for this system?
a. Between 100 and 130mV, 10M side positive b. Between 110 and 130mV, 0.1M side positive c. Between 70 and 110mV, 0.1 side positive d. Between 50 and 70mV, 10M side positive e. Between 50 and 70mV, 0.1 M side positive |
b. Between 110 and 130mV, 0.1M side positive
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Which of the following procedures will reduce the resting membrane potential to near zero instantaneously?
a. Poisoning the Na+ - K+ ATPase pump with a metabolic inhibitor like cyanide b. Replacing Na++ with choline in extracellular fluid c. Bathing the cells with isotonic KCl solution d. Replacing Cl- with SO4 2+ e. Blocking conductance channels for Cl- |
c. Bathing the cells with isotonic KCl solution
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A neurotoxin is applied to a resting skeletal muscle cell, which selectively and irreversibly increases sodium conductance, gNa, but has no effect on potassium conductance, gK. In the presence of this toxin the transmembrane potential will
a. Hyperpolarize b. Transiently hyperpolarize and then return to normal (prior to applying the neurotoxin) c. Depolarize d. Transiently depolarize and then return to normal (prior to applying the neurotoxin) e. Not change |
c. Depolarize
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The myelin sheath
a. Significantly decreases conduction velocity b. Is interrupted by nodes of Ranvier c. Decreases the relative refractory period d. Increases the energy expenditure for membrane recovery e. Is found in C-fibers |
b. Is interrupted by nodes of Ranvier
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In cardiac pacemaker cells of the sino-atrial node, the spontaneous depolarization
a. Slows with elevated plasma potassium (hyperkalemia) b. Results from decreasing potassium conductance, gK c. Results primarily from decreasing sodium conductance, gNa d. Speeds up in the presence of acetylcholine e. Depends upon a slowly decreasing intracellular calcium concentration |
b. Results from decreasing potassium conductance, gK
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Anticholinesterase inhibitors, such as neostigmine, may relieve the muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis, because they
a. Prevent the release of acetylcholine b. Prevent acetylcholine from depolarizing the muscle membrane c. Prevent the rapid enzymatic degradation of acetylcholine d. Inhibit the synthesis of acetylcholine e. Inhibit the rapid synthesis of cholinesterase |
c. Prevent the rapid enzymatic degradation of acetylcholine
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The neurotransmitter at an excitatory synapse produces an EPSP of greatest amplitude when the membrane potential of
the postsynaptic membrane is a. -80 mV b. -60 mV c. -40 mV d. 0 mV e. +10 mV |
a. -80 mV
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At the presynaptic nerve terminal calcium
a. Is found in high concentrations within the nerve terminal b. Permits fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic nerve terminal membrane c. Conductance decreases across the presynaptic nerve terminal with membrane depolarization d. Inhibits release of neurotransmitter e. Increases sodium conductance |
b. Permits fusion of synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic nerve terminal membrane
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Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released from
a. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons b. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons c. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons d. Somatic motor neurons (i.e., alpha motor neurons) e. All of the above are correct |
e. All of the above are correct
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In the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
a. The cell bodies of preganglionic neurons are found in the brainstem b. Postganglionic neurons release epinephrine c. Preganglionic neurons secrete Ach to excite muscarinic receptors d. Activity is highest under stressful conditions e. Preganglionic neurons are long and from synapses on or near the target organ |
d. Activity is highest under stressful conditions
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Sensory units is (are) the
a. Receptors that serve a single dermatome b. Area served by a given receptor c. Receptors that serve a single sensation d. Afferent axons of a single nerve trunk e. Area innervated by a single afferent axon |
e. Area innervated by a single afferent axon
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Generator potential of slowly adapting sensory receptors is
a. All or nothing in response b. Graded according to stimulus intensity c. Independent of stimulus duration d. Due to increased gK e. Due to increased gCl |
b. Graded according to stimulus intensity
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Spontaneous activity
a. Is found in most sensory fibers b. Does not occur in sensory fibers c. Is a sign of pathology d. Prevents transmission of normal signals e. Allows transmissions of more information, by both increases and decreases of frequency |
e. Allows transmissions of more information, by both increases and decreases of frequency
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Somatic sensory SI is characterized by
a. Bilateral representation of body surface b. Precise topographic representation of the contralateral body surface c. Absence of information concerning joints d. Receiving information only from the dorsal column medial lemniscal system e. Integrating visual and somatic input |
b. Precise topographic representation of the contralateral body surface
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Optimal discrimination between closely-spaced tactile stimuli, as in two-point discrimination, found in skin regions where the
a. Receptor thresholds are lowest b. Sensory axons leaving the region have uniform conduction velocities c. Receptive field sizes are largest d. Receptive field sizes are smallest e. Density of receptors is lowest |
d. Receptive field sizes are smallest
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The ascending pain system
a. Is essential for stereognosis b. Is excited by noxious heat and noxious cold c. Releases enkephalins to decrease pain d. Is arranged by fiber diameter in the ventral posterior lateral thalamic nucleus e. Transmits only somatic sensations |
b. Is excited by noxious heat and noxious cold
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Pricking pain
a. Is transmitted only to the reticular formation b. Has a long onset latency c. Is blocked by stimulating Group IV fibers d. Is carried primarily by Group III fibers e. Is transmitted via the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathways |
d. Is carried primarily by Group III fibers
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Under normal physiological conditions the strength of contraction of cardiac muscle fiber is controlled by
a. The number of fibers that contract b. Direct adjustment of intracellular contractile mechanisms c. Extracellular chloride concentration d. At the point of peak force generation e. The amplitude of the fast response action potential |
b. Direct adjustment of intracellular contractile mechanisms
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In cardiac muscle
a. Action is absent from myofibrils b. Action potentials may last several hundred milliseconds c. Strength of contraction is unaffected by neural activity d. Transverse tubules are absent e. Extracellular calcium is not required to initiate contraction |
b. Action potentials may last several hundred milliseconds
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The all-or-nothing principle, as applied to cardiac muscle, states that all cardiac muscle cells
a. Are capable of generating action potentials b. Contract when directly stimulated by Ach released from nerve terminals c. Are stimulated to contract if an action potential is generated anywhere in the heart d. Can be tetanized if the duration of the action potential is sufficiently long e. Are refractory for the entire period of the action potential |
c. Are stimulated to contract if an action potential is generated anywhere in the heart
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The baroreceptor reflex
a. Has sensors located in the carotid bodies b. Has sensors located in the aortic bodies c. Results in tachycardia when standing up d. Involves sympathetic vasodilator (cholinergic) fibers e. Operates in the normal range of arterial blood pressure |
e. Operates in the normal range of arterial blood pressure
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Which of the following receptors are unencapulated?
a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Muscle corpuscles c. Free nerve endings d. Golgi tendon organs e. Meissner's corpuscles |
c. Free nerve endings
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Each of the following statements about Golgi tendon organs is correct except:
a. They are encapusclated b. They are proprioceptors c. They have both sensory and motor innervation d. They are found in the tendon e. They contain collagen fiber bundles |
e. They contain collagen fiber bundles
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Neurotransmitter release is initiated by:
a. Metabotropic Ca+2 channels b. Voltage gated Ca+2 channels c. CAMP mediated channels d. Na- efflux e. GABA release at a presynaptic terminal |
b. Voltage gated Ca+2 channels
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The fourth cranial nerve emerges from the
a. Interpeduncular fossa b. Superior pontine sulcus c. Dorsal surface of the midbrain d. Lateral aspect of the pons e. Cerebellopontine angle |
c. Dorsal surface of the midbrain
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Which of the following structures separates the anterior cerebellar lobe from the posterior cerebellar lobe?
a. Sulcus limitans b. Horizontal fissure c. Primary fissure d. Posterolateral fissure e. Prepyramidal fissure |
c. Primary fissure
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The telencephalon includes all of the following structures except the
a. Thalamus b. Cerebral hemispheres c. Globus pallidus d. Caudate nucleus e. Internal capsule |
a. Thalamus
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The flexure that develops between the metencephalon and the myelencephalon is called the
a. Cephalic flexure b. Mesencephalic flexure c. Pontine flexure d. Cerebellar flexure e. Cervical flexure |
c. Pontine flexure
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All of the following statements concerning myelination are correct except it:
a. Is accomplished by neural crest cells b. Is accomplished by Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) c. Is accomplished by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS) d. Commences in the fourth fetal month e. Is completed by birth |
e. Is completed by birth
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All of the following statements concerning spina bifida are correct except
a. Spina bifida results from failure of vertebral arches to fuse b. Spina bifida is frequently associated Arnold-Chiari malformation c. Spina bifida usually occurs in cervicothoracic region d. Spina bifida occulta is the least severe variation e. Spinal bifida with myeloschisis is the most severe variation |
c. Spina bifida usually occurs in cervicothoracic region
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All of the following statements concerning ependymal cells are correct except
a. They are derived from the neural crest b. They line the central canal c. They are in contact with CSF d. They produce CSF e. They include tanycytes and choroid plexus cells |
a. They are derived from the neural crest
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Which statement concerning the lateral horn is false?
a. It receives viscerosensory input b. It is found at the level of the phrenic nucleus c. It is coextensive with the nucleus dorsalis of Clarke d. It contains a visceromotor nucleus e. It corresponds to Rexed lamina VII |
b. It is found at the level of the phrenic nucleus
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All of the following statements concerning spinal nerves are correct except:
a. Dorsal roots contain sensory input b. Ventral roots contain motor output c. All spinal nerves have gray communication rami d. All spinal nerves have white communicating rami e. The first cervical nerves frequently have no dorsal roots |
d. All spinal nerves have white communicating rami
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Destruction of the ventral horn results in all of the following deficits excepts
a. Loss of muscle stretch reflexes (MSRs) b. Loss of muscle bulk c. Flaccid paralysis d. Babinskis sign e. Loss of superficial abdominal reflexes |
d. Babinskis sign
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All of the following statements concerning the lateral spinothalamic tract are correct except:
a. It projects collaterals to the reticular formation b. It projects to intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus c. It projects to the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the thalamus d. It mediates pain and temperature e. Its cells of origin are in the dorsal horn |
c. It projects to the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus of the thalamus
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Which of the following statements concerning preganglionic sympathetic fibers is false?
a. They arise from the intermediolateral cell column b. They project without synapse to the adrenal medulla c. Their terminals elaborate acetylcholine (Ach) d. They are found in splanchnic nerves e. They synapse in the myenteric plexus |
e. They synapse in the myenteric plexus
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Which of the following does bleaching of the visual pigment in photoreceptors not cause?
a. Depolarization of rods and cones b. Hyperpolarization of bipolar cells c. Depolarization of bipolar cells d. Action potential production in ganglion cells e. It produces all of the above |
a. Depolarization of rods and cones
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Ganglion cells receive input directly from:
a. photoreceptors b. horizontal cells c. bipolar cells d. glia cells e. chromophores |
c. bipolar cells
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Contraction of the ciliary muscle of the eye causes :
a. the cornea to fly in b. the people to dilate c. the lens to flatten d. the lens to roundup e. the eyeball to shorten |
d. the lens to roundup
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Which of the following is not involved in color vision?
a. Cornea b. Retina c. Fovea d. rods e. cones |
d. rods
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Scotopic vision is colorblind because:
a. only cones are found in the fovea b. rods only work under low levels of illumination c. rods have only one kind of photopigment d. rod bipolar cells receive input from several cells at one time e. of interactions between amacrine cells |
c. rods have only one kind of photopigment
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Color vision requires:
a. cones b. rods c. both rods and cones d. a dark adapted retina e. accommodation |
a. cones
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The visual pigment in the rod photoreceptors is called:
a. photopsin b. scotopsin c. vitreous humor d. diopterin e. rhodopsin |
e. rhodopsin
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Most of focusing power of a normal eye is due to:
a. the cornea b. the aqueous humor c. the lens d. the vitreous human e. the optic disk |
a. the cornea
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Lateral inhibition in the retina:
a. provides the basis for color vision b. provides the basis for night vision c. provides the basis for photopic vision d. provides the basis for contrast enhancement e. is responsible for color blindness |
d. provides the basis for contrast enhancement
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Which is the following occur when one looks at a nearby object?
a. The pupils dilate, the eyes converge, and lens roundup b. The pupils dilate, the eyes converge, and the lenses roundup c. The pupils dilate, the eyes encourage, and the lenses flattens d. The pupils constrict, the eyes converge, and the lenses flattens e. The pupils constrict, the eyes converge, and the lenses rounds up |
e. The pupils constrict, the eyes converge, and the lenses rounds up
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Accommodation refers to:
a. light adaptation in the retina b. changes in the size of the pupil c. changes in the opacity of the cornea with age d. changes in the convergence of the two eyes e. changes in the shape of the lens |
e. changes in the shape of the lens
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Bipolar cells:
a. connective photoreceptors to the ganglion cells b. are involved in centers around organization of receptive fields c. in either hyperpolerize or depolarize in light falls on the retina d. all of the above e. none of the above |
d. all of the above
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In rod vision, visual transduction is mediated by?
a. Production of rhodopsin by binding of retinal to opsin b. Cleavage of rhodopsin into opsin and retinal c. Isomerization of opsin component of rhodopsin d. Isomerization of the retinal component of rhodopsin e. Photoreceptor depolarization |
d. Isomerization of the retinal component of rhodopsin
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The iris:
a. controls the amount of light reaching the retina b. controls the depth of focus of the eye c. response to emotional stimuli d. is located in the anterior chamber of the eye e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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Which the following statements is true?
a. Rods are more sensitive to light and cones, provide high visual acuity, and mediate color vision b. Cones are more sensitive to light and rods, provide high visual acuity, and mediate color vision c. Rods are more sensitive to light and columns, provide low visual acuity, and mediate color vision d. Columns are less sensitive to light and rods, provide high visual acuity, and mediate color vision |
d. Columns are less sensitive to light and rods, provide high visual acuity, and mediate color vision
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Our ability to detect edges is enhanced by the center surround organization of optic ganglion cells. The elimination of which are the following classes of cells would have minimum effect on this feature?
a. Rods b. cones c. bipolar cells d. horizontal cells e. amacrine cells |
e. amacrine cells
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Hypermetropia is corrected by:
a. concave lenses b. convex lenses c. cylindrical lenses d. beta-blockers e. atropine |
b. convex lenses
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Projection of information from the eyes to the visual cortex is:
a. ipsilateral b. contralateral c. bilateral |
c. bilateral
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Myopia can be corrected by
a. concave lenses b. convex lenses c. cylindrical lenses d. atropine e. controlling blood pressure |
a. concave lenses
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All of the following descriptions of primary somesthetic sensory cortex (S-I) are true except one which statement is false?
a. Primary S1 area are synonymous with Brodman’s areas 3, 1, 2 b. Is organized somatictopically c. receptive fields and neurons in S1 are identical to those of primary afferents d. cortical colonic projections from S1 do to ventral posterior lateral nucleus of thalamus e. S1 neurons contribute to the corticospinal tract |
c. receptive fields and neurons in S1 are identical to those of primary afferents
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292. The following contribute to the posture of decorticated rigidity but does not contribute to decerebrate rigidity :
a. lateral vestibulospinal tract b. medial reticulospinal tract c. lateral reticulospinal tract d. rubrospinal tract e. A and B. |
d. rubrospinal tract
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Myasthenia gravis and Lambert–Eaton syndrome share one of the following features and common. Which on is it?
a. Both examples of peripheral neuropathies b. Ulcer examples of myopathies c. Bolts resulting demyelination d. Bolts reduce the effectiveness of skeletal neuromuscular transmission e. Bolts results in loss of temperature and pain sensation |
d. Bolts reduce the effectiveness of skeletal neuromuscular transmission
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Which on the following statements about substance P is false
a. is a neuropeptide produced in the cell bodies of nociceptors b. it is released from nociceptors sensory endings by the axon reflex c. is taken back out into nociceptors sensory endings after release d. it causes sensitization receptor endings e. is released by the central terminals of nociceptors onto projection neurons |
c. is taken back out into nociceptors sensory endings after release
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Motor neuron soma’s are found in?
a. Rex lamina IX b. Rex lamina X c. Lateral and medial motor neuron nuclei d. Ventral root e. A and C |
e. A and C
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Which a following structures contained chemoreceptors?
a. Ventral surface of medulla b. Anterior hypothalamus c. Muscle d. Aortic body e. All of the above |
e. All of the above
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A patient presents with loss of pain in temperature on the left side from the hip downward. Ability to discriminate two points is lost from the umbilicus and below on the right side. Movement of the hip, leg, and foot on the right side was impaired. The right knee jerk was very brisk. What is most likely diagnosis?
a. Syringomyelia at T8 b. ALS c. Brown Sequard syndrome caused by a Schwanoma to T. 10 on the right d. Ependymoma and T. 10 e. Frederick’s ataxia |
c. Brown Sequard syndrome caused by a Schwanoma to T. 10 on the right
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Paroxysmal episodes of pain in right cheek lasting 30 seconds continued for several hours at 1 minute intervals in female patient to 44 years
a. Wallenberg syndrome b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Bell’s palsy |
c. Trigeminal neuralgia
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Loss of pain sensation from right face and left body with cerebellar ataxia, nystagmus, right droopy eyelid over constricted eye in 59 year old hypertensive male
a. Wallenberg syndrome b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Bell’s palsy |
a. Wallenberg syndrome
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Loss of crying, salivation, and taste from right side with hypotonic paresis of facial muscles of right side in 30-year-old male
a. Wallenberg syndrome b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Bell’s palsy |
d. Bell’s palsy
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During right lateral gaze and no adduction of left eye and 40-year-old male alcoholic:
a. Wallenberg syndrome b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia c. Trigeminal neuralgia d. Bell’s palsy |
b. Internuclear ophthalmoplegia
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A patient presents with left lateral strabismus and left lateral gaze paralysis. Where is the lesion most likely to be?
a. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus b. Right main oculomotor nucleus c. Left Edinger-Westphal nucleus d. Right paramedian pontine reticular formation e. Left abducens nucleus |
a. Left medial longitudinal fasciculus
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In Guillain-Barr syndrome the primary site of normal damage is:
a. Myelinated axons in the peripheral nervous system b. Lower motor neurons in the spinal cord c. Myelinated axons in the CNS d. Upper motor neurons in the cortex e. Unmyelinated axons in the peripheral nervous system |
a. Myelinated axons in the peripheral nervous system
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The contractile tension produced by skeletal muscle during voluntary contraction can degraded by altering:
a. the peak of the action potential in different muscle fibers b. the number of active motor units c. the consul release of acetylcholine d. the rate of activity of acetylcholinesterase e. the calcium influx into the motor nerve terminals |
b. the number of active motor units
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The entry of the anticonvulsant drug diazepam into the interstitial fluid of the brain is relatively fast because:
a. it passes through the paracellular route between endothelial cells in the blood brain barrier b. the passes to the phospholipids bilateral cell membrane in the blood brain barrier c. is actively secreted into the CSF by the choroids plexus d. it undergoes carrier mediate facilitated diffusion across the blood brain barrier e. is actively secreted into the interstitial fluid by the endothelial cells in the blood brain barrier |
b. the passes to the phospholipids bilateral cell membrane in the blood brain barrier
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Mitral cells:
a. Cochlear amplifier b. Regeneration of 11-cis retinal c. Synaptic transmission between photoreceptors and bipolar cells d. Transfer of olfactory information from olfactory bulb to pyriform cortex e. Sense of taste |
d. Transfer of olfactory information from olfactory bulb to pyriform cortex
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Outer plexiform layer:
a. Cochlear amplifier b. Regeneration of 11-cis retinal c. Synaptic transmission between photoreceptors and bipolar cells d. Transfer of olfactory information from olfactory bulb to pyriform cortex e. Sense of taste |
c. Synaptic transmission between photoreceptors and bipolar cells
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Outer hair cells:
a. Cochlear amplifier b. Regeneration of 11-cis retinal c. Synaptic transmission between photoreceptors and bipolar cells d. Transfer of olfactory informations from olfactory bulb to pyriform cortex e. Sense of taste |
a. Cochlear amplifier
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A patient initially exhibits tinnitus and some deafness in the right ear. Several months later she grows greater deafness in the right ear falling to the right side with Romberg’s test facial paralysis on the right side and loss of both epicritic and protopathic sensation from the left side of the body.what is the most likely diagnosis:
a. Alternating right facial hemiplegia b. Meniere’s disease c. Lesion of the right vestibular nuclei d. Right acoustic neuroma e. Left lateral medullary syndrome |
d. Right acoustic neuroma
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Pain and temperature information from the face is carried by trigeminal nerve afferents to the brain. In which nucleus to these afferents terminate?
a. Mesencephalic nucleus of 5 b. Main sensory nucleus of 5 c. Spinal nucleus of 5 d. Solitary nucleus e. Nucleus ambiguous |
c. Spinal nucleus of 5
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The patient is asked to close his eyes. The right eye remains open and moves upward what is most likely diagnosis
a. tic douloureux affecting right ophthalmic branch of 5 b. right Bell’s palsy c. gasserian zoster on right d. lesion of the right edinger-westphal nucleus e. lesion in the posterior commissure of pretectum |
b. right Bell’s palsy
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optic disc:
a. taste sensations b. synaptic transmission between mitral cells and pyramidal cells c. blind spot d. visual acuity e. synaptic transmission between olfactory cells and mitral cells |
d. visual acuity
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Glomeruli in olfactory bulb:
a. taste sensations b. synaptic transmission between mitral cells and pyramidal cells c. blind spot d. visual acuity e. synaptic transmission between olfactory cells and mitral cells |
e. synaptic transmission between olfactory cells and mitral cells
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Fungiform papilla:
a. taste sensations b. synaptic transmission between mitral cells and pyramidal cells c. blind spot d. visual acuity e. synaptic transmission between olfactory cells and mitral cells |
a. taste sensations
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Which one the following would never be seen with upper motor neuron syndrome?
a. Hemiplegia b. Pendular nystagmus c. Spasticity d. Clasp knife phenomenon e. Decorticated rigidity |
b. Pendular nystagmus
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Sensory testing of a patient showed loss of sensation on the radial aspect of the arm and thumb. This is most consistent with involvement of?
a. C6 sclerotone b. C7 myotome c. C6 dermatome d. C7 sclerotome e. T2 dermatome |
c. C6 dermatome
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Leg weakness on the right side could be due to a lesion of the corticospinal tract at:
a. left cerebral peduncle b. left internal capsule c. right side of spinal cord at C4 d. right side of spinal cord at T12 e. all of the above |
e. all of the above
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Velocity dependent increase in passive resistance is called:
a. festinating gait b. rigidity c. ataxia d. spasticity e. hypotonia |
d. spasticity
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Which one of the following statements about flow transduction in rods is false:
a. rhodopsin in the disc membranes absorbs light b. light absorption causes isomerization of 11 cis retinal to all-transretinal c. cGMP is converted to 5’ GMP d. activity of cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase is inhibited e. cyclic GMP gated sodium channels close in the outer segment |
d. activity of cyclic GMP phosphodiesterase is inhibited
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Complete destruction of the right optic tract would cause:
a. contralateral left homonymous hemianopia b. monocular blindness of the right eye c. bitemporal hemianopia d. upper contralateral left quadrantanopia e. none of the above |
a. contralateral left homonymous hemianopia
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A 75 year old woman experienced occlusive vascular incident involving the left posterior cerebral artery. Which one of the following visual disturbances is most likely to be found in this clinical situation:
a. detached retina b. bitemporal and opiate c. night blindness d. right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing e. scotoma of the central visual field of the right eye |
d. right homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
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The region of highest visual acuity is?
a. Macula b. Fovea c. Optic disk d. None of the above |
a. Macula
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The region with the highest density of cones which has no rods is known as the?
a. Macula b. Fovea c. Optic disk d. None of the above |
b. Fovea
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A papilledema is closely associated with which of the following?
a. Macula b. Fovea c. Optic disk d. None of the above |
c. Optic disc
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Destruction of the short ciliary nerve would be seen as?
a. Dilation of the pupil b. Constriction of the pupil c. Lateral gaze d. Medially positioned eye |
b. Constriction of the pupil
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The cornea has a refractive plasticity of approximately?
a. 43 D b. 0 c. 13 d. 13-26D |
b. 0
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The lens has a refractive power of?
a. 43 D b. 0 c. 13 d. 13-26D |
d. 13-26D
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A reduction of refractive plasticity with aging is called?
a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Emmetropia |
c. Presbyopia
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A normal individual with normal vision is said to have?
a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Emmetropia |
d. Emmetropia
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A person with a longer than normal eyeball cannot see objects at a distance, this is known as?
a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Emmetropia |
b. Myopia
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Correction of which type of vision requires concave lenses?
a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Emmetropia |
b. Myopia
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332. Correction of which type of vision requires convex lenses?
a. Hyperopia b. Myopia c. Presbyopia d. Emmetropia |
a. Hyperopia
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In the retina, an increased activity of cGMP phosphodiesterase is most closely associated with?
a. Rhodopsin activation b. Entering a lighted room from the dark c. A hyperpolarization of the cell d. All of the above e. None of the above |
d. All of the above
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An “ON center” bipolar cell is _____________ when the light is shined on its receptive field?
a. Depolarized b. Hyperpolarized c. Not changed |
a. Depolarized
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Vitamin A deficiency leads to?
a. SCC deficiency b. Night blindness c. Light sensitivity d. None of the above |
b. Night blindness
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A missing red cone is known as?
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia c. Anopia d. None of the above |
b. Protanopia
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A missing medium wavelength cone is known as?
a. Deuteranopia b. Protanopia c. Anopia d. None of the above |
a. Deuteranopia
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The C2 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Nipple line b. Back of Head c. Thumb d. Pinky & Ring Finger e. Middle Finger |
b. Back of Head
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The C8 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Nipple line b. Back of Head c. Thumb d. Pinky & Ring Finger e. Middle Finger |
d. Pinky & Ring Finger
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The C7 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Nipple line b. Back of Head c. Thumb d. Pinky & Ring Finger e. Middle Finger |
e. Middle Finger
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The S1 dermatome corresponds to the?
a. Pelvis b. Umbilicus c. Big Toe d. Little Toe |
d. Little Toe
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For myelinated axons the velocity of a nerve is ____ times its diameter:
a. 2x b. 3x c. 4x d. 6x e. 10x |
d. 6x
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