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149 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Cyanosis, shock, congestive heart failure, murmurs and arrhythmias can be signs/symptoms of what in the newborn?
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Congenital Heart Disease
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In instances where an infant is given 100% O2 and if the PO2 remains below __________, one would strongly suspect a cardiac cyanotic lesion.
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150
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PCO2 is normal or low in the presence of congenital heart disease when the infant is given 100% O2. True/False
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True
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Family history of congenital heart disease, multiple congenital anomalies and ________ are at high risk for congenital heart disease.
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Infants of Diabetic Mothers (IDM)
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PO2 >150 on 100% FIO2, elevated PCO2, Abnormal lung exam and lung findings, no murmur would be findings of cyanosis related to the heart. True/False
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False
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PO2 <150 on 100% FIO2, normal or low PCO2, Abnormal heart on CXR, clear lungs and presence of a murmur would be findings of cyanosis related to the heart. True/False
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True
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There are three ways in which cyanotic congenital heart disease disease can present.
1) Lesions with obstruction of pulmonary blood flow and a site of mixing 2) Complete mixed lesions with decreased pulmonary blood flow and 3)__________? |
Lesions with unfavorable streaming
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This is the most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion and is due to the underdevelopment of the right ventricular outflow tract.
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Tetrology of Fallot
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With Tetrology of Fallot, which is the most common cyanotic heart lesion, four things are present which are:
1) Right ventricular hypertrophy 2) Overriding aorta 3) Pulmonary stenosis and 4) ________________? |
Ventral Septal Defect
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Palliation for this cyanotic congenital heart lesion consists of Prostaglandin E1, Blalock Taussig Shunt, Balloon Pulmonary Valvuloplasty
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Tetrology of Fallot
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Tetrology of Fallot is commonly repaired completely in one surgery, however in premature infants or infants with coronary artery abnormalities, palliation is done. True/False
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True
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This type of cyanotic heart disease has unfavorable streaming where there are two parallel circulations.
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d-Transposition of the Great Arteries
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d-Transposition of the Great Arteries has two parallel circulations. The systemic veins, right atrium, right ventricle to ___________. Pulmonary veins, left atrium, left ventricle to ________________.
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Aorta
Pulmonary Artery |
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If there is not sufficient mixing of blood in the infant with d-Transposition of the Great Arteries, a balloon septostomy is done. True/False
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True
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When an arterial switch is done to repair a d-Transposition of the Great Arteries the coronary artery buttons must be removed from the aorta and transplanted to _____________ so that the cardiac muscle will have blood supply. It is possible to have kinks in the coronary arteries which can lead to cardiac ischemia.
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Neoaorta
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In any complete mixing lesion, there is going to be a/an ___________ of any valve.
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Atresia
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Complete absence of a communication is referred to as an atresia. True/False
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True
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Palliation for this congenital heart lesion which has unfavorable streaming is PGE1 and septostomy. Repair is an atrial switch (Mustard or Senning) and arterial switch.
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d-Transposition of the Great Arteries
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The arterial switch operation for d-TGA transects the aorta and pulmonary arteries above the valves, LeCompte manuver, reanastamosis of the aorta to the PA stump and PA to the aortic stump, remove coronary buttons from aorta and reimplant in the neoaorta and close the ASD and VSD(if present). True/False
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True
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This repair for d-TGA is intraarterial baffle directing, IVC & SVC to mitral valve, PV to tricuspid valve. RV is systemic ventricle and the risks associated with this Senning/Mustard operation is atrial arrythmias, RV dysfunction and ____________________?
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Venous obstruction
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In a complete mixing CHD lesion, there are two thing that determine how "pink" or how "blue" you are. What are these two things?
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Pulmonary blood flow
Systemic blood flow |
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This ratio determines oxygen saturation (SaO2) and is referred to as what?
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Pulmonary to systemic blood flow ratio (Qp/Qs ratio)
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This complete mixing lesion is a single ventricle DILV (double inlet left ventricle) and pulmonary to systemic flow determines O2 sat. If there is unrestricted pulmonary blood flow, there will be excessive pulmonary flow and _________?
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CHF
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The goal for surgical repair in single ventricle (DILV) is to get all of the "blue" blood to the lungs without going to the heart and all of the "red" blood to go out to the body. True/False
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True
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Repair of a single ventricle (DILV) is done in stages with the first being a PA band to restrict pulmonary blood flow, a Bidirectional Glenn shunt with atrial septectomy at 4-8 months of age and the Fontan or Damus-Kye-Stansel procedure at 2-4 years of age. True/False
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True
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The repair of a single ventricle (DILV) can also be done within the 1st year of life IF all repair procedures are done consecutively and with no more than 1 month between procedures. True/False
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False
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This procedure to repair a single ventricle (DILV) provides a cardiac baffle from the IVC to PA +- fenestration.
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Fontan Procedure
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This procedure which may be used to repair a single ventricle (DILV) provides a connection from PA to aorta (if necessary).
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Damus-Kay-Stansel
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By maintaining an open PDA with PGE1, you are increasing the Qp/Qs the ratio. True/False
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True
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This CHD is complete mixing and all systemic venous flow must cross the ASD and pulmonary blood flow must cross the ________ or ________.
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Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) or Patent Ductus Arteriosis (PDA)
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For repair of Tricuspid Atresia a Blalock-Taussig shunt may be needed as well as ______________. It may/may not be proceeded by a Glenn procedure.
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Fontan
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There are several forms of TAPVR. The two discussed by Dr. Johns in the lecture were ___________ which may be obstructed or unobstructed and _________________ which is usually obstructed.
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Supracardiac TAPVR
Infracardiac TAPVR |
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In fetal development, the pulmonary veins arise from the lungs and join the back of the left atrium. True/False
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True
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In this complete mixing lesion the fetal connections between systemic and pulmonary will persist.
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Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)
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In supracardiac TAPVR the left common cardinal vein persists. True/False
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True
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Due to persistant streaming inn supracardiac TAPVR the highest SaO2 is likely to be where?
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Feet
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There are two CHD that you will have greater O2 saturations in the feet. One is a complete mixing lesion and is __________________, the other is one with unfavorable streaming which is ____________?
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Supracardiac Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return and
Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA) |
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This complete mixing lesion is due to the persistence of the fetal vitelline system.
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Infracardiac Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)
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Infracardiac TAPVR is a complete mixing lesion in which both pulmonary edema and pulmonary obstruction are present. Infants with this CHD often have profound cyanosis and need emergent surgical intervention. True/False
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True
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Inadequate systemic perfusion with cardiogenic shock will present with lethargy, poor feeding, irritability, decreased urine output, poor cap refill, cool extremities, tachycardia, normal or increased BP (early), hypotension (late) and _____________ on an ABG?
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Acidosis
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What 3 mechanisms contribute to shock in CHD?
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Left sided obstructive lesions
Sustained tachycardia Profound bradycardia |
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This three forms of CHD present with left sided obstruction?
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Coarctation of the Aorta
Critical Aortic Stenosis Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome |
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Inadequate systemic perfusion is known as what?
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Shock
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When supraventricular or ventricular tachycardia is persistant and sustained for a few hours the infant will go into shock. True/False
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False
Must be persistent and sustained for 24-48 hours |
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Bradycardia is most often the response rather than the cause of shock in CHD. True/False
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True
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This CHD lesion is a left sided obstruction, has LA pressures which are increased, pulmonary edema, poor perfusion, shock, acidosis and decreased pulses and BP in the lower extremities.
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Coarctation of the Aorta
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The majority of Coarctation of the Aortas occur juxtaductally which is right at the site of the ductus. True/False
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True
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Infant's with Coarctation of the Aorta typically present between 10 days and ______ weeks of age.
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Three
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In Coarctation of the Aorta when the ductus closes, there is a decrease of blood to the aortic arch, decrease blood to the LV, increase in afterload in LV leading to decreased cardiac output. This increase pressure in the LA and PA forces fluid from the intracellular space to the interstitium and alveoli and causes pulmonary edema. True/False
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True
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Any infant who presents in cardiogenic shock should be ______________ to decrease their work of breathing.
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Intubated
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What percentage of babies who are on PGE1 will have apnea?
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15%
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When using PGE1 to maintain a patent ductus with cyanotic lesions you increase/decrease pulmonary blood flow?
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Increase
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In CHD where there is obstruction of systemic blood flow by maintaining patency of the ductus with PGE1, you allow the RV to pump blood out to body to decrease/increase systemic perfusion.
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Increase
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________________ is used to improve LV function in Coarctation of the Aorta.
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Dobutamine
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It is important to consider Coarctation of the Aorta when an infant presents in shock the first month of life and Dr. John's recommends being adamant about checking ____________ ______________ when infants are in the nursery.
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Femoral pulses
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When there is a consistent >20mmHg difference in upper and lower pulses, one should consider what CHD?
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Coarctation of the Aorta
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Treatment for Coarctation of the Aorta is PGE1 and surgery. True/False
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True
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Infants with this left sided obstructive lesion will often present the same as an infant with Coarctation of the Aorta.
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Critical Aortic Stenosis
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In Critical Aortic Stenosis when the ductus closes, there is a decrease of blood to the aortic arch, decrease blood to the LV, increase in afterload in LV leading to decreased cardiac output. This increase pressure in the LA and PV forces fluid from the intracellular space to the interstitium and alveoli and will decrease pulmonary edema. True/False
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False
It causes pulmonary edema |
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Treatment of Critical Aortic Stenosis would include PGE1, balloon valvotomy, surgical valvotomy and if the left ventricle is not large enough would need a ______________ procedure.
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Norwood
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The ultimate left sided obstructive CHD is _____________ ________ _________ according to Dr. Johns.
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Hypoplastic left heart
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Two goals in performing the Norwood procedure are #1 To provide limited pulmonary blood flow and #2 to provide a way to get blood from the _________ ________ out to the aorta.
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Right Ventricle
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Because the shunts do not grow as the infant with HLHS after the Norwood procedure is done, a second stage surgical procedure will be done. True/False
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True
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Use of oxygen in infant who have had the Norwood procedure for HLHS must be very judicious due to the fact that it is a potent pulmonary vasoconstrictor.True/False
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False
O2 is a potent pulmonary vasodilator. |
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The use of oxygen must also be used very judiciously in infants not only in infant with HLHS which has been repaired, but also with complete mixing lesion. True/False
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True
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Failure of the heart to pump adequately is known as what?
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Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
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Infants in CHF typically have deficient systemic perfusion. True/False
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False
Systemic perfusion is adequate |
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Infant with CHF present with the following; increased respiratory effort, tiring with feedings, poor growth, sweating and an ___________ _____________.
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Enlarged liver
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Lesions with large L to R shunts present with CHF. These are a VSD, AVSD, Truncus Arteriosus, Single Ventricle __________ Pulmonary Stenosis.
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Without
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Left sided obstructive lesions that present with CHF because there is adequate systemic blood flow are Aortic Stenosis, Coarctation of the Aorta and __________ __________ ___________ _____________.
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Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome
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In this defect, there is communication between the LV and the RV.
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Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)
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Due to the continued decreased in pulmonary vascular resistance as the infant gets older they are also developing physiologic _______________. This contributes more and more blood crossing the VSD.
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Anemia
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Holosystolic murmur, possible diastolic rumble at apex, increased LA pressure, pulmonary edema, increased work of breathing and poor growth is seen in what CHD?
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Ventricular Septal Defect
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Murmur of a very large VSD may not be heard whereas a murmur with a small VSD may be _________ pitched.
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High
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The diastolic rumble which may be heard at the apex is best heard with the bell or diaphragm of the stethoscope?
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Bell
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Left to right shunt via atria and ventricles, increased blood pulmonary blood flow, common AV valve, increased pulmonary arterial pressure and normal saturations are all findings of what CHD.
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Atrioventricular Septal Defect
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Twice the amount of blood flow across the valve is present if you hear a diastolic rumble and the Qp/Qs is >2. True/False
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True
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The pathophysiology of an Atrioventricular Septal Defect is similar to __________ ________ ___________.
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Ventral Septal Defect
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This CHD is commonly misclassified as a cyanotic heart disease. It has a predominate L to R shunt, increased pulmonary blood flow, minimal cyanosis, common truncal valve, increase PA pressure, near normal O2 sat and low diastolic pressure.
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Trucus Arteriosis
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Infant with Trucus Arteriosis can present with myocardial ischemia and ____________ __________.
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Sudden Death
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Increase in myocardial __________ consumption and low diastolic pressure can lead to sudden death in infants with Truncus Arteriosis and PDA.
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Oxygen
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Repair of a Truncus Arteriosus consists of patching the VSD, committing truncal valve to LV, disconnecting MPA from truncus arteriosus and placing a conduit from RV to the distal PA. True/False
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True
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Single ventricle (DILV) which is a complete mixing lesion can present with excessive pulmonary flow and CHF when there is _______________ pulmonary blood flow.
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Unrestricted
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A __________ is defined as a feeling on the base of your fingers is placed on the chest over the heart and a "purring" feeling is felt.
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Thrill
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Any murmur which is a grade 4-6 that has a thrill is abnormal and should be investigated. True/False
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True
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According to Dr. Johns, ________ percent of children will have a murmur at some point in their lifetime and high percentage of normal newborns have murmurs.
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Eighty
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The difference between a 3/6 and a 4/6 murmur is that in addition to the murmur being loud a _____________ is heard.
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Thrill
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Murmurs classified as functional, innocent or __________ murmurs are typically systolic, less than a grade 4/6, increase with increase in cardiac output and are specific types.
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Normal
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With this common normal murmur in the premature infant, it is heard in the right axillae and is as loud/louder in the remainder of the chest and L axillae. Dr. Johns referred to it as diamond shaped, crescendo/decrescendo and gets softer and louder.
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Peripheral pulmonic stenosis murmur (PPS)
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Also diamond shaped, this is a short systolic ejection murmur heard at the L sternal border and increases with increased cardiac output.
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Pulmonary Flow Murmur
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There are two transitional murmurs that are heard. One occurs when there is a closure and the other is oftentimes seen in asphyxiated infants or infants with PPHN.
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PDA Closure
Transient Tricuspid Regurgitation |
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This transitional murmur is heard at the upper L sternal border or infraclavicular area and is systolic or continuous and can be occasionally vibratory. It is heard at 12-48 hours of age and tends to get louder as this closes. Dr. Johns reminds that when this continuous murmur is heard it is most certainly this type.
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PDA
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This murmur is heard at the LL sternal border and is regurgitant, systolic and typically resolves over several days. It is often seen with asphyxiated infants or infants with PPHN. Dr. Johns referred to this as a retangular murmur.
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Transient Tricuspid Regurgitation
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When the murmur is loud, diastolic, don't fit into category of innocent murmurs or are accompanied by other signs such as CHF, cynosis or shock. What should the NNP do?
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Obtain a cardiac evaluation
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Septal defects (ASD, VSD), outflow tract obstruction (valvar, subvalvar and supravalvar or pulmonic stenosis) and PDA. These types of murmurs may present as __________________ murmurs.
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Asymptomatic
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This murmur is a systolic ejection murmur heard at the URSB and radiates to the neck. There is a systolic ejection click audible at the apex and a thrill may be felt at the suprasternal notch.
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Aortic Stenosis
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This murmur is a systolic ejection murmur heard at the ULSB and radiates to the back. There is a systolic ejection click audible at the LLSB and a thrill may be felt at the suprasternal notch.
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Pulmonic Stenosis
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There is sometimes some confusion related to PPS (peripheral pulmonic stenosis) and Pulmonic stenosis murmurs. The distinguishing factor for Pulmonic stenosis Dr. Johns reiterated is that it is heard loudest at the ULSB. True/False
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True
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There are three things which Dr. Johns uses to define neonatal arrythmias. They are:
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Too fast
Too slow Too irregular |
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This tachycardia has a narrow QRS complex, P waves were visible, rate is <230, has GRADUAL onset and termination, and is associated with pain, fever or hypovolemia.
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Sinus Tachycardia
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This distinguishing finding between Sinus Tachycardia and Supraventricular Tachycardia is found on L1 and aVF on 12 lead EKG.
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Positive P Wave
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Management of Sinus Tachycardia includes volume, antipyretics, and analgesics. What would you NOT want to give?
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Antiarrythmic Drugs
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This tachycardia has a narrow complex and P waves are often buried in the T wave, rate is >240 and monotonous. Onset and termination are SUDDEN.
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Supraventricular Tachycardia
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There are two mechanisms associated with SVT which are considered accessory connections. They are __________ __________ __________ and concealed.
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Wolffe Parkinson White (WPW)
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ORT refers to orthodromic reciprocating tachycardia in SVT. True/False
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True
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There are four mechanisms of SVT are accessory connections (WPW, concealed), AV Node reentry, Intraarterial reentry (atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation) and automatic _____________ tachycardia.
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Atrial
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In Wolff Parkinson White (WPW) this form of SVT a __________ ___________ is seen in sinus rhythm, but NOT in SVT.
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Delta Wave
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Acute treatment of SVT when shock is present is what?
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Synchronized DC cardioversion
SHOCK! 0.25-1 Joules/kg |
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It is important to get this before, during and after termination of SVT to help with diagnosing origin of SVT.
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EKG
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Use of vagal maneuvers to provide transient resolution of SVT are gagging, performing rectal temp, pressing on infant's abdomen to elicit valsalva and placing a glove filled with ice/water. True/False
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True
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By utilizing water with ice in a glove and applying to infant's eyes and bridge of nose, there is improved __________ ___________.
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Thermal contact
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Vagal maneuvers are transient to convert to normal sinus rhythm only and not curative. True/False
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True
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If unable to convert utilizing vagal maneuvers, ____________ is the next treatment option.
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Adenosine
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Adenosine provides a transient AV block, slows the sinus node and has an extremely __________ duration of action.
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Short
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Dose of Adenosine is 0.05 to 0.25 mg/kg with 12mg being the maximum. True/False
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True
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Adenosine's effect on accessory connection mediated tachycardia (ORT(orthodromic reciprodcating tachycardia)) is that it blocks the AV node and terminates tachycardia. Tachycardia loop includes the AV node. True/False
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True
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Adenosine's effect on atrial flutter which does not include the AV node and the AV block does not terminiate tachycardia. True/False
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True
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This tachycardia is uncommon and the atria is slower than the ventricles. There is a wide QRS and it may only be slightly > than normal QRS, AV dissociation may been seen. Underlying cause of hyperkalemia, acidosis, drugs, abnormal myocardium or a long QT syndrome.
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Ventricular Tachycardia
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Drugs that would be an underlying cause of this arrythmia are antiarrythmics, tricyclics.
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Ventricular Tachycardia
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Abnormal myocardium conditions which would contribute to Ventricular Tachycardia would be CHD, myocarditis and _____________.
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Cardiomyopathy
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Acute treatment of Ventricular Tachycardia when shock is present is?
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Synchronized DC Cardioversion
SHOCK!! 0.5-2 Joules/kg Correct underlying cause |
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If infant is hemodynamically stable you would want to get a ___________ for Ventricular Tachycardia.
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12 Lead EKG
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Administration of Lidocaine IV or Procainamide are drugs used to treat VT. True/False
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True
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Administration of Procainaminde IV should be done ONLY when the Neonatologist is present. True/False
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False
Cardiologist should ALWAYS be present |
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Either in Supraventricular Tachycardia or Ventricular Tachycardia and shock is present what should you do?
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SHOCK, SHOCK, SHOCK!!!
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These are the two types of bradycardia.
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Sinus and AV block
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This bradycardia is almost always vagally mediated and can be caused from apnea, hypoxemia, pharyngeal or laryngeal stimulation. Good perfusion, normal BP and w/o symptoms may be normal.
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Sinus Bradycardia
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The P wave is seen ___________ the QRS in Sinus Bradycardia.
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Before
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Treatment of the underlying cause of Sinus Bradycardia is priority and if there is not response, medications may be used. The two medications used are ________________ and ____________________.
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Atropine
Isoproterenol |
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Pacing may be done either tranvenous or transcutaneous in acute episodes of sinus bradycardia. True/False
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True
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AV Block can be congenital, surgical, infectious, vagal or ____________ induced.
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Drug
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Congenital AV Block is seen from structural heart disease and ___________ antibodies.
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Maternal
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In congenital AV block, maternal antibodies are passed in utero and cause AV block. True/False
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True
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Drugs which can cause AV Block are Digoxin, Ca2 blockers and for that reason, ACE inhibitors like Verapamil are almost NEVER used in neonates. True/False
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True
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Surgically, the _______ node may be damaged and contributes to block.
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AV
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Infections which would cause AV block is _______ ___________?
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Lyme Disease
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In infants with impaired renal impairment and was on ___________, the NNP would consider that as a culprit if AV block is seen.
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Digoxin
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To treat Ca2 blocker which is causing AV Block, what would be the antidote?
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Calcium
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To treat Digoxin toxicity causing AV block, what would be the antidote?
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Digibind
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Many times, no treatment is required on AV Block if there is adequate _____________. Many times a sustained heartrate of 70-80 may be acceptable.
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Perfusion
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Dr. John's mentions that ZOLL transcutaneous pacing pads can have ________ _________ ________ when used in neonates and cautions against having to use them.
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Fatal Tissue Necrosis
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Irregular rhythms include sinus arrythmia, premature atrial contractions (PAC), premature ventricular contractions (PVC's) and second degree _____ block.
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Atrioventricular
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This irregular rhythm has normal QRS morphology, normal sinus P waves are present, heartrate varies with respiration and often NO treatment is needed. Other escape rhythms may be present. May have PROFOUND arrythmia but this is a hallmark finding.
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Sinus Arrythmia
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These irregular premature contractions are very very common in the newborn (term and premature) and are benign and generally require no treatment. They have a normal QRS morphology, P waves are present (may be in T wave) and P wave may be blocked or conducted aberrantly.
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Premature Atrial Contraction
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This irregular premature contraction has wide QRS morphology, no preceeding P wave is present, may have a compensatory pause and is very common.
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Premature Ventricular Contraction
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Sometimes, presence of PVC may be indicative of electrolyte disturbances. In this instance one would order a __________ and __________ level.
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Potassium
Magnesium |
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Metabolic contributions to PVC's may be hyperkalemia, acidosis, hypoxemia. Drugs such as Digoxin, tricyclics, caffeine, bronchodilators, etc. are responsible. Normal finding which is idiopathic and there is a mechanical stimulation which can cause, this is _____________?
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PICC or CVP catheter
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When there are paired and tripled PVC's there is a concern that this could lead to _______________ _____________.
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Supraventricular Tachycardia
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This second degree AV block (Type I) is often block PAC's, may be related to vagal tone and hypoxemia. May be a manifesation of congenital AV block and could possibly be drug related.
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Wenckebach
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