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987 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What occurs at the rough endoplasmic reticulum
Protein systhesis
What packages material into membrane bound vesicles
Golgi
Most digestion and absorption in
Small intestine
In the small intestine, what part digests the most
Duodenum
In the small intestine, what part absorbs the most
Jejunum and Ileum
Consist of the protein actin and interacts with myosin
Microfilaments
Protein fibers that have a load bearing function i.e. Keratin
Intermediate filament
Most conspicuous cytoskeleton component, composed of protein tubulin
Microtubules
An amino acid is distinguished by what side chain
R-group
The AA sequence of its polypepitide chain is the result in a
Primary Polypeptide Structure
The Secondary structure of protein organization includes
Alpha-helix & Beta-Pleated sheet
The Tertiary structure of protein organization includes
Folded Alpha-Helix & Beta-Pleated sheet (3-D) Spatial arrange of protein
The Quaternary structure of protein organization includes
subunits
Protein classes determined by being soluble or insoluble
Globular & Fiberous respectivity
Proteins produced by B-lymphocytes. Which mature in the bone marrow?
Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
Which Ig is found predominantly in intestinal tract, saliva, sweat, & tears
IgA
Which Ig is present in the blood in very small amounts whose function is unknown
IgD
Which Ig is present in the blood in minute amounts & implicated in allergic reaction
IgE
What is the most common Ig, equally disturbed between the blood & interstital fluid
IgG
What is the only Ig to cross the placenta
IgG
Most effective Ig when it comes to invading organisms
IgM
The first Ig to be secreted in response to an antigen
IgM
2 identical heavy & light chains of an antibody are held together by
Disulfide bonds & noncovalent interactions
2 identical Fab fragments of Ab form the
Arms
1 Fc region of the Ab forms the
Trunk
Ig that can exist as a monomer, dimer or trimer
IgA
Major strees bearing component of connective tissue i.e. bone, teeth, tendon
Collagen
Defects in covalently cross linked collagen is responsible for disease such as
Ehlers danlos, Marfans, Osteogen-Impediment
Competes directly with a substrate for an enzymatic binding site
Competitive Inhibitor
Binds directly to the enzyme-substrate complex but not the free enzyme
Uncompetitive Inhibitor
Enzyme that destroys bacterial walls by hydrolyzing links of NAM & NAG
Lysozyme
Rxn that requires work/energy
Endergonic
Rxn that produces work/energy
Exergonic
ATP is an energy rich nucleotide because its triphosphate unit contains what
2 phosphoanhydride bonds
Reduced form of NAD and FAD
NADH & FADH
A set of reactions that convert glucose to pyruvate
Glycolysis
It is the prelude to the TCA and all rxn's in the Cytosol
Glycolysis
Formation of 2 pyruvate molecules from 1 glucose molecule produces
2 ATP's
Net products from glycolysis are
2 ATP, 2 Pyruvate, 2 NADH
What molecule enters the TCA
Acetyl CoA
One turn of the TCA yields (multiple by 2 for complete cycle)
3 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 CO2, 1 ATP
Converts pyruvate to glucose in the liver
Gluconeogenesis
When breaking down fat for energy shortage of oxaloacetate for Acetyl CoA
Extra Acetyl CoA leads to Ketone body
Precursor to all steroid hormones
Pregnenolone
Bonds that hold together Guanine & Cytosine
3 H-bonds
Bonds that hold together Adenine & Thymine
2 H-bonds
Cytosine, Uracil & Thymine are
Pyrimadines
Adensine, Guanine & Uric acid are
Purines
The coding region of DNA is called
Exons
The coding region that is cut from the original genome
Introns
Double stranded DNA, Equal mass of Histones & a small amount of RNA
All contained in Chromatin
DNA is supercoiled in a left handed helix over the structure of a histone
In nucleosomes (subunit of chromatin)
In RNA, which pyrimadine replaces DNA's thymine
Uracil
DNA & RNA exist as what type of helical molecules
Double & Single stranded respectivity
Enzyme responsible for sealing up Okazaki fragments into newly formed DNA
Ligase
Enzyme responsible for unzipping 2 stranded DNA so that replication can begin
Helicase
Group of hormones that require secondary messengers to produce changes
Group II hormones
Capable of causing cancer
Oncogenes
Involves the change in structure of an oncogene but not necessarily the amount
Single-point mutation
Ig's differ from each other by
Size, charge, AA component & Carb. Content
Digested food moelcules absorbed into bloodstream from intestines pass
Directly to the liver by hepatic portal vein
Fuel is abundant fatty acids that are synthesized, esterified, & sent from the liver to
Adipose tissue in the form of LDL
Building blocks for proetins, precursors for hormones, & oxidation of carbohydrate skeleton
Amino acids
Number one protein priority in the body
Blood
Major source of biological energy
Carbohydrates
Nourishes the brain, nervous system, & fuel for energy
Carbohydrates
Simple sugars that have no nutrional value on their own
Simple Carbohdrates
Found in grains, legumes, fruits & vegetables - excellent source of energy
Complex Carbohydrates
How many types of Amino acids
23 or 20
which organ converts saturated fat into cholesterol
Liver
Organic micronutrients required only in milli or micro quantities
Vitamins
Beri-beri is neurological disorder cause by
Thiamine deficiency
Scurvy is caused by
Vitamin C deficiency
Fat soluble vitamins
Vitamin A,D,E
Vitamins that act as anti-oxidants
Vitamin A,C,E & Selenium
Inorganic micronutrients
Minerals - Ca, P, Mg, Iron, Zinc
pH=7 exponentially means
10 to the (-7)
pH=1
Very acidic
pH=14
Very basic
pKA=14 equals a pH of
pH=1
Transplanting from one part of the body to another
Autograft
Transplanting from one identical twin to another
Isograft
Transplanting from genetically different individual to another of the same species
Allograft
Blood type A can receive/donate to which types
A & O / A & AB
Blood type B can receive/donate to which types
B & O / B & AB
Blood type AB can receive/donate to which types
AB, A, B, & O / AB only
Blood type O can receive/donate to which types
O only / O, AB, A & B
If a molecule inhibits activity of an enzyme by binding to active site, it is
Competitive inhibitor
Rate limiting step in the production of cholesterol produces what?
HMG CoA
ATP is what type of structure?
Nucleotide
Protein coat of a virus
Capsid
Enzyme in HIV virus that can convert RNA to DNA
Reverse transcriptase
The primary structure of a protein is
Amino acid sequence
The pentose shunt pathway produces
NADPH
A protein being made from RNA is called
Translation
Increased concentratin of what ion in the extracellular space of the cell has the greatest effect on the membrane potential
K+
Visual acuity at birth
20/200
Visual acuity at 6 months
20/20
Stereopsis begins to develop at
3-6 months
Contrast sensitivity peaks at
18-39 years
Accommodation is present at birth, but becomes useful at
4 months
Color vision is appreciate at
2 months
Refractive error at birth
+2.00 D
Refractive error at 1 year old
+1.00 D
Premature refractive error
-0.50 D
Pupillary light reation
1 month
Horizontal conjugate gaze
Birth
Vertical conjugate gaze
2 months
Ocular alignment
1 month
Fusional convergence
6 months
Baby pupillary light reflex
2 months
Fixation
1 month
Baby walk
12-15 months
Baby sits up unsupported when
6-8 months
Full term baby had what refractive error
Less than or equal to +2.50
With increased age, there CSF loss in
High spatial frequencies
With increased age, astigmatism changes to
Against the rule
What is the easiest for a child to draw
Circle
What immunoglobulin passes the placenta
IgG
What immunoglobulin is a pentamer
IgM
What immunoglobulin is an atopic reactions
IgE
First cell to get a bacterial infection
Neutrophil
Thymic cells become what
Helper T cells
Neutrophils, Monocytes, and Macrophages are all considered
Phagocytes
Lysozyme breaks down
Gram Negative
Tuberculosis is an example of what type of hypersensitivty reaction
Type IV
What determines the type of Ig
Heavy chain
Hypervariable region on both heavy and light chains
Fc
Lymphocytes, Macropahges, and Plasma cells are present in
Chronic Inflammation
Markers for T-cells
CD-4(60%) and CD-8(40%)
Natural Killer Cell Marker
CD-16
Humoral immunity contains
T4-cells and MHC II
Cellular immunity contains
T8-cells and MHC I
HLA (major histocompatability antigen) is T-cell mediated and
Rejects transplants
Natural killer cells fight against
Cancer
Most common antibody (75%) that crosses the placenta
IgG
Immunoglobulins in tears
IgA, IgG, IgE
Activator of primary immune system
IgD
Ig in allergic responses/histamine
IgE
There are 5 different classes of Ig which are differentiated by
Variability of H chains
The antigen binds to what part of the immunoglobulin
FAB portion
4 polypeptide chains (2 Heavy & 2 Light) held together by disulfide bonds is
Antibody
Monocytes turn into
Huge Macrophages
Cells that have Fc receptor for Ab and destroy Ag is Ag-Ab complex is form
Natural Killer Cells (usually IgG)
Mast cells have surface receptors that will fit
IgE
Only immunoglobulins to activate complement
IgG3 and IgM
Most B cells will secrete
Antibodies
If B cells don't secrete antibodies, they become a subset called
Memory cells
Cells that have capacity for accelerated immune response upon 2nd exposure to an Antigen
Memory cells
Cell mediated immunity (CMI)
T-cells
A macropahge must process and present foreign body on its cells surface to a Lymphocyte
For activation of T-cell in CMI
Histamine, Kinins, Complement, and Interferon are all part of this group
Secondary defense - Non-specific response
Speeds the release of other agents via vasodilation and capillary permeability
Histamine
Attract phagocytes, vasodilates, and stimulates capillary permeability
Kinins
20 Plasma proteins that speed phagocytosis and kill bacteria via lysis
Complement
Complement recognition site on a phagocyte
C3b
Blocks viral protein synthesis and viral entry
Interferon
Secondary defense - Non-specific cellular includes
Phagocytes, Basophils, and NK cells
Engulf bacteria - 3 types Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Monocytes
Phagocytes
Kills worm larvae
Basophils
Attack cancer cells
NK cells
Phagocytes and bacteria lock together via C3b receptors
Opsonization
Neutrophils, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils and Lymphocytes are all considered
White Blood cells
Both red blood cells and white blood cells are produced here
Red bone marrow - Red pulp
Remains of phagocytes can be observed in the form of
Pus
Weakly phagocytic, attacks and kills paracytic worms
Eosinophils
First cell to site of invasion and in large numbers
Neutrophils
Grow into huge macrophages
Monocytes
Originates as sub-populations of certain lymphocytes, attack and kill cancer cells
Natural Killer cells
Attack and kill cells harboring viruses
Natural Killer cells
Only attack the body's own diseased cells
Natural Killer cells
Primary Lymphoid tissue
Thymus and Red Bone Marrow
Secondary Lymphoid tissue
Nodes, Tonsils, Adennoids, Spleen
Where lymphocytes develop and mature
Primary Lymph tissue
Where lymphocytes begin critical roles of defense
Secondary Lymph tissue
Differentiates in the thymus
T-cells
Differentiates in the red bone marrow & fetal liver
B-cells
In the inactive state, it's hard to tell what two cells apart
T-cell from B-cell
In the active state, it forms extensive endoplasmic reticulum
B-cells
In the active state, it forms a large concentration of ribosomes
T-cells
Make and secrete antibodies (humoral)
B-cells specifically Plasma cells
Direct attack against diseased body cells, cell-mediated response
T-cells
Can activate B-cells and moderates & suppresses immune response
T-cells
Branching ends of enzymes which bind to matching antigen
Variable region
Same for each antibody of a certain class
Constant region
Antigen-Antibody binding site
Fab portion
Phagocyte-Antibody binding site
Fc region on Ab-Fc receptor on Phagocyte
Transplant rejection is due to
MHC same as HLA
Acts as a badge for cells to identify them as self
MHC I or MHC II
Amoung the few cells that bear both MHC I and MHC II surface proteins
Macrophage
Cell mediated, cytotoxic T-cell
MHC I CD8
Humoral, Helper T-cells
MHC II CD4
Stimulate T-cell cloning and Activate B-cells
Helper T cells
Plasma cells and Memory B-cells come from
B-cells
Messenger that stimulates cell proliferation and clones of T-cells
Interleukin-1
Identify, attacks, and kills infected cells bearing the antigen that brought its response
Arousal - Cytotoxic T-cell, other are Memory cells
Natural Killer cells can be activated via
Interleukin-2
This immunoglobulin has a secretory components and is secreted from the lacrimal gland
IgA
Antigen binds to which part of the immunoglobulin>
Variable region of heavy and light chains
What vitamin reduces the oxidation of membranes
Vitamin E
Hardest place to pick up precancerous cell growth
Pancreas
This cell kills virally infected cells
Natural Killer Cells
Immunoglobulin with the lowest concentration in blood
IgE
Proto-oncogenes are able to produce
Growth factors
Corresponding muscles of each eye receive equal innervation
Hering's Law of Equal innervation
Whenever an agonist receives inner to contract, antagonist receives equivalent to relax
Sherrington's Law of Reciprocal innervation
For times less than critical duration (100ms), Change in Luminance x t = Constant
Bloch's Law
Absolute intensity of both test and background are unimportant as long as constant
Weber's Law
Large stimulus is more easily seen than a small one
Spatial summation
A static stimulus presented for 20ms is more easily seen than one present for 10ms
Temporal summation
Antibiotic susceptibility testing is done to
Test for resistance of bacteria
What stain is used for Mycobacteria
Acid fast
Fungi produce what in their body
Hyphae and Spores
DNA virus & double stranded
Herpes
RNA retro-virus & single stranded
AIDS
PPP substrate
NADPH
DNA is held together by what type of bonds
Phosphodiester bonds
The TCA cycle takes place in
Mitochondrial matrix
Catalase, Superoxide Dismutase, Glutathione, and Vitamin E
Antioxidants
Diagnosis for TB includes Tuberculin, Chest X-ray, and
Exam Sputum for acid fast bacteria
Nuclear membrane present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Golgi, ER, Lysosymes, and Peroxisomes present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
Mitochondria present
Eukaryotic cell, not in Prokaryotes
In Prokaryotic cell, what serves the same purpose as the Mitochondria in Eurkaryotes
Plasma membrane
Cell wall present
Prokaryotic cell
Algae, Protozoa, anf Fungi are
Eukaryotes
Bacteria are
Prokaryotes
Multiple chromosomes composed of nucleic acid
Eukaryotic cell
Single chromosome composed of nuclei acid
Prokaryotic cell
Substance that surrounds bacterial cells, its major function is adherence
Glycocalyx - Capsule or slime layer
Whip like appendages that propel bacteria
Flagella
Amphitricious flagella
Single flagella at both ends of the cell
Has two or more flagella at one or both poles of the cell
Lopotrocious flagella
Flagella distributed over the entire cell body
Peritricious flagella
Spirochetes (i.e. Treponema Pallidum) are unique and move in this manner
Corkscrew motion - Axial filaments
Functions to adhere to surfaces and ionic bacterial cells prior to DNA transfer
Pili - helically arranged proteins (hairlike)
Main function is to protect the cell from rupturing when Osmotic pressure > Pressure inside cell
Cell wall
No cell wall
Mycoplasm
Macromolecular network called peptiodglycan (murein)
Cell wall
Layers of Peptidoglycan are considerably thicker in
Gram Positive
Cell walls contain Teichoic acid
Gram Positive
Stains dark violet or purple
Gram Positive
Ratio of RNA to DNA in Gram(+) and Gram(-)
8:1 in Gram(+) and 1:1 in Gram(-)
Suspectibility to pencillin and sulfonamides
Gram Positive
Stains pink or red
Gram Negative
Cell wall distruption by lysozyme
Gram Positive
Degree of pathogencitiy
Virulance
Increases virulance by impairing phagocytosis
Capsule
Heat and Acid resistant protein
M-protein
M-protein can be found in
Streptococcus pyogens
Have the ability to destroy neutrophils
Leukocidines
Cause the lysis of red blood cells
Hemolysins
Clot the fibrinogen in the blood
Coagulases
Part of the outer portion of the cell wall of most gram(-) bacteria
Endotoxins (lipopolysacharides)
Proteins secreted by the cell
Exotoxins (protein)
Bacterial reporoduction
Tranverse fission
I - Cell elongates, C - Bacterial chromosomes replicate, D - Plasma membrane pinches
Cell wall thickens = Bacterial life cycle
Cells metabolically active, little or no cell division
Lag Phase - Bacteria
Exponential growth phase, peak efficiency and activity
Log Phase
Drugs are most effective in this phase of growth
Log Phase
Number of deaths = Number of new cells
Stationary Phase
Dead cells outnumber new cells
Death Phase
O2 required, free O2 is final acceptor, Substrate-level, and Oxidative phosphorylation
Aerobic
Aerobic metabolis, creates how many ATP
38 ATP's (20X more than Anaerobic)
O2 not required, final acceptor is NO3 or SO4, Oxidative Phosphorylation only
Anaerboic
ATP molecules are produced using anaerobic
Variable
Can grow with or without oxygen
Facultative anaerobe
Bacterial mechanism in which genetic material is transferred from one cell to another
Conjugation
Microbes that cause disease
Pathogen
Relationship between the normal flora of a healthy person and the person
Symbiosis
One of the organisms is benefited and the other is unaffected
Commensalism
Both organisms benefit from the relationship
Mutualism
One organism benefits at the expense of the other organism
Parsitism
Normal flora of the skin
Staph epidermis and Aureus
Normal flora of the respiratory
S. Aureus, H. Influenza, N. Meningitis, Strep. Pneuomonie
Normal flora of the conjunctiva
S. Epidermis, S. Aureus, Diptheria
Normal flora of the urinary tract
S. Candida, Clostridium, Trichroma
Normal flora of the mouth
Strep, Staph. Neisseria, Hemopholius Candida
Gram(+) Cocci found in grape-like clusters (very resistant to PCN)
Staphyococci
Causes Toxic Shock, Fetal Pneumonia, Conjunctivitis, Blepharitis, Keratitis, and Hordeolem
Staph Aureus
Spherical Non-motile gram(+) bacteria that grows in long chains
Streptococci
Most common species of Strep causing Strep throat
Strep Pyogenenes
Most common etiological agent in bacteria pneumonia, responsible more mortality
Strep. Pneumonia
Can lead to Scarlet and Rheumoid Fevers, Meningitis, Otitis Media, and Pneumonia
Strep Throst (i.e. Pneumonia)
Gram(-), Motile, Aerobic Rod, generally opportunistic
Pseudomonas
Transmission usually occurs after foreign body removal
Pseudomonas
If untreated, severe necrosis of the cornea and perforation can occur in 48 hours
Pseudomonas
Gram(-), Encapsulated, non-motile, Coccobacillus, and causes Pink Eye
Haemophilus Influenza
Capable of entering uncompromised corneal epithelium
Haemophilus Influenza
Gram(-), Aerobic, Diplobacillus that can lead to conjunctivitis and Periphery corneal ulcer
Moraxella Lacunata
Transmission is associated with immunosuppressed individuals, alcoholics, and disabled
Moraxella Lacunata
Non-motile, Aerobic, Kidney-shaped, Gram(-), Diplococci which causes Hyperacute conjuctivitis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Can penetrate an intact cornea
Neissaria Gonorrhea
The reason silver nitrate is put on neonates after birth
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Culture on Thayer-Martin medium for diagnosis
Neissaria Gonorrhea
Anaerobic, motile, helical, or coiled Gram(-) bacteria
Spirochetes
Responsible for Symphillus
Treponema Pallidum -Spirochete
Responsible for Lyme Disease
Borrella Burgdorferi -Spirochete
Characterized by small single, painless, red ulcer (10 days - 3 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Primary stage
Characterized by skin rash, fever, sore throat, conjunctivitis, and hair loss (2-10 weeks)
Treponema Pallidum - Secondary stage
Presents with neurological problems, optic atrophy, vascular problems, MR possible
Treponema Pallidum - Tertiary stage
Tests to diagnose Treponema Pallidum include
VDRL, FTA-ABS, Immunofluo exam for the flu
Aerobic, Gram(+) bacteria that appear fungus-like form, Hyphae and Asexual
Actinomycetes
Slightly curved or straight aerobic rods that cause TB and Leprosy, Acid-fast
Mycobacteria
Pathogen invades the peripheral skin and nerve cells and becomes an obligate intracellular parasite
Mycobacteria Leprae
Gram(-), non-motile, coccoid bacteria which in an obligate intracellular parasite
Chlamydia
Can grow and reproduce only within the host
Obligate intracellular parasite
Causes Trachoma and Adulte Inclusion conjunctivitis
Chlamydia
Stage1 - may be asymmetric, Stage2 - Trachoma with folicles, Stage3-Trichasis, Entropion, Conjuncitiva scarring, Stage4-Post-inflammatory, adult inclusion conjunctivitis, large opalescent follicles in fornacles
Stages of Chlamydia
Procaryotes that are pleomorphic in shape and are smallest bacteria capable of reproduction
Mycoplasma
Gram(-) Coccobacilli bacteria, Obligate intracellular parasite
Rickettsia
Causes Rocky mountain spotted fever
Rickettsia
Vectors for Rickettsia
Fleas, Ticks, Mites, and Lice
Lack of cell wall, susceptible to lysis by osmotic shock, most Facultative anaerobes
Mycoplasma
Lowest concentration of drug that prevents growth of a particular organism
Minimal Inhibitory concentration
Lowest drug concentration that kills the microorganism
Minimal lethal concentration
All living cells, viable spores, and viruses are destroyed or removed from habitat
Sterilization
Must be used to destroy endospores by heating at 121 degrees and 15 lbs of pressure
Autoclave
Blood agar
Bacteria
Sabauods
Fungi
Chocolate agar
H. Influenza, Gonorrhea
Parietal cells secrete
HCl
Whole cell intact, secretion through membrane
Mesocrine - pancreas, salivary
Separating off with cytoplasm, 1/2 of the cell is secreted and 1/2 of the cell stays
Apocrine - mammary, sweat glands
Entire cell is secreted
Holocrine - testes, ovaries
Osteoclasts
Bone marrow - break down Ca2+
Ductless glands secreting into blood
Endocrine
Secretes into ducts
Exocrine
Cells stays intact, secretes by exoctosis
Merocrine
Communication of metabolites and ions
Nexus gap junctions
Most white blood cells are formed in
Agranular lymphocytes
Contains red blood cells and white blood cells
Red pulp
Tuncial media consists of
Smooth muscle and elastin
Lysosomes are activated by
A decrease in pH
Exocrine has 3 secreting glands
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous
Chief cells secrete
Pepsinogen
Mucous cells secrete
Alkaline
Least likely mode of transmission of Treponema Pallidum?
Respiratory droplets
Which test is used to differentiate Staph Aureus from Staph Epidermis
Coagulase
Diencephalon comes from what embryonic structure?
Prosencephalon
Cell bodies for movement of hand are located where?
Ventral grey
What is part of the auditory system?
Inferior colliculus
CSF has a higher concentration than blood of what
Na+
Lesion in the brainstem at nucleus 6, if it keeps growing, what is effected first
CN VII
If you have a hemisection at t12 on the right side, what goes on OS?
Loss of pain and temperature
What is the biggest nucleus in the cerebellum
Dentate nucleus
You have loss of hearing on one side, where is the damage
Cochlear nucleus
Contains 2 superior and 2 inferior colliculi and cerebral punducles
Tectum - Midbrain
CN - IV has afferent connections to vestibular nuclei via
MLF
Red nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, Substantia Nigra, ML, LL, MLF, ST, ST
Level of Superior Colliculus - Midbrain
ON-OC-OT-Superior Colliculus synapse, Pretectal nucleus - Ipsilateral and
Ciliary - light reflex (PARA)
contralateral, EWN - Ciliary ganglion
constriction
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Superior division goes to
Levator and Superior rectus
After CN III goes through the Cavernous sinus breaks, Inferior division goes to
MR, IR, IO
One of the most important sensory centers of the brain, derived from diencephalon
Thalamus
Medial and Lateral geniculate bodies can be found here
Dorsal Thalamus
Relay station for the visual pathway
Lateral Geniculate
Relay station for the auditory pathway
Medial Geniculate
Part of the brain derived from diencephalon
Thalamus, Hypothalamus
Regulation of body temperature, fat, water, carbohydrates, metabolism, sleep, sex drive, emotion
Hypothalamus
Forms the floor of the 3rd ventricle
Hypothalamus
Forms the roof of the 3rd ventricle
Epithalamus
Contains the choroid plexus which produces cerebral spinal fluid
Epithalamus
Relay sensory info to cortical regions concerned with vision and auditory
Subthalamus
What part of the brain develops from the Diencephalon
Cerebum
Grey matter of the cerebrum - inner
Basal Ganglia
Separates Occiptal lobes
Calcarine Fissure
Separates the left and right brain hemispheres
Sagittal sulcus
Separates the front and back brain
Central sulcus
Doesn't have axons going directly to the spinal cord
Visual cortex
What coordinates oculomotor function
Medial Longitudinal Fasiculus
Longest tract is from the feet to medulla, what tract is this
Gracilius
Fasiculus Gracilius
Primary tract
Fasiculus Cuneatus
Primary nucleus
Neonatal cortex is made up of how many layers
2 layers
What nerve controls the diaphragm
Phrenic
The pyramids can be found in the
Medulla
The union of dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor) nerves
Spinal nerves
Ventral Primary Rami of Thoracic nerves go directly to the body and all others
Come together to form plexuses
Between dorsal root & posterior median sulcus
(Cuneatus and Gracilius)
Posterior Funiculus
Between the dorsal and ventral roots
Lateral Funiculus
Between anterior median fissure & ventral root
Anterior Funiculus
Info regarding Touch, Temperature, and Pain - Terminates in the Thalamus
Spinothalamic
Info from skin, joints, tendons, regarding touch, pressure, and vibration
Cuneatus-upper limbs & Gracilius-lower limbs
Subconscious proprioception, Appreciation of body position, Not crossed
Posterior Spinocerebellar
Conveys info about movement and position of entire limbs, Crossed/uncrossed
Anterios Spinocerebellar
Reflex, postural move of head, neck, & upper extremities due to visual stimulation
Tectospinal
Maintain posture and equilibrium by muscle tone, Not crossed
Vestibulospinal
Regulates motor activity related to posture, Most uncrossed/some crossed
Reticulospinal
Muscle tone and posture to spinal nerves that innervation skeletal muscles, crossed
Rubrospinal
Its job is to maintain visceral functions in the restful state
Parasympathetic system
Cranio-sacral system because nuclei are located in the brain, nuclues in cord
Parasympathetic system
Thoraco-lumbar system because nuclei imtermediolateralis originates in spinal cord
Sympathetic system
Function is to maintain autonomic functions in excited state
Sympathetic system
What neurotransmitter is pre & post-synaptic in Parasympathetic and pre-synaptic in Sympathetic
Acetylcholine
Neurotransmitter of Post sympathetic fibers
Norepinephrine
High concentration in Substantia Nigra - Parkinson's
Dopamine
Neurotransmitter in brainstem
Serotonin
Inhibitory neurotransmitter
GABA
Part of myelencephalon, contains vital centers for BP, Respiratory, and Heart rate
Medulla
In the medulla, where 80% of pyramidal fibers cross
Level of Motor decussation
Above the level of motor decussation - Contains Nuclei Cuneatus and Gracilius
Level of Sensory decussation
Injury at the level of medial lemniscus causes what
Contralateral kinesthetic
Cranial nerves IX-XII originate here and have nuclei located here
Medulla
Vertigo, Ataxia, and Nystagmus may all result with a lesion of
Vestibular branch of CN VIII
Tinnitis is a common symptom of damage to the
Cochlear nerves of CN VIII
Vestibular connections to CN III, IV, and VI via vestibuloencephalic pathway
Form basis for conjugate eye movements
Separates Medulla from Midbrain and is derived from Metencephalon
Pons
Gives off CN VI, VII, and V
Pons
Connections of CN VI include afferent fibers from vestibular nucleus via
MLF
Location of Medial and Lateral Lemniscus, Superior cerebellular peduncle
Mid Pons
Broken down into Ophthalmic, Maxillary, Mandibular
CN V - trigeminal
Innervates submandibular and sublingual glands
Salvatory nucleus - CN VII
Innervates the lacrimal glands
Lacrimal nucleus - CN VII
Receives taste info from anterior 2/3rds of the tongue
Nucleus solitarius - CN VII
Derived from Mesencephalon, has a Tectum and Tegmentum
Midbrain
Precentral and Postcentral gyrus are
Anterior & Posterior to the central sulcus
Runs parallel to corpus callosum
Cingulate sulcus
Area 4 of the Frontal Lobe contains
Motor area
Area 1-3 of the Parietal Lobe contains
General sensation
Area 17 of the Occiptal lobe
Visual area
White matter that connects cortical areas between two hemispheres
Corpus callosum
Ascending and descending fibers that lie between the Caudate and Lentiform nucleus
Internal Capsule
Connects the Lateral Geniculate nucles with the visual cortex
Optic Radiations
Part of the brain that contains 2 hemispheres and vermis that connects them
Cerebellum
The vestibulocerebellulum - Flocculonodule lobe impacts what functions
Equilibrium, balance, and eye movements
Spinocerebellum - contains vermis & intermediate zone
Involved in muscle tone, posture, and receives most input from the spinal cord
Cerebrocerebellum - contains hemispheres and receives most its info from
Cerebral cortex
Cerebrocerebellum's main function is
Coordinate voluntary motor activity
Inferior cerebellular peduncle carries info to and from
Medulla and Spinal cord
Middle cerebellular peduncle carries info from
Pons
Superior cerebellular peduncle carries infrom from the Dentate nucleus to
Midbrain
Main functions of cerebellum are
Fine coordination of muscle movements, tone, balance, equilibrium
What system deals with transmission of Tactile Proprioceptive, Temperature, and Pain
Somatosensory system
Tactile receptors that respond to touch are called
Pacianian corpuscles
The position of the body's limbs is detected by
Proprioceptors
Sensory receptors that respond to temperature are called
Thermal receptors
Info from the motor cortex transmitted to spinal cord and brain stem
Corticospinal and Corticobulbar
As Corticospinal and Bulbar descend from the motor cortex, they form
Pyramidal tract
The Basal Ganglia receives input via its
Caudate nucleus and Putamen
The Basal Ganglia provides output vis its
Globus Pallidus
Major input to the Basal Ganglia is from
Neocortex then Thalamus and Substantia Nigra
Major output of the Basal Ganglia is to
Prefrontal and Premotor Cortex via the Thalamus
Actions of the ANS is considered to be
Subconscious
The adrenall medulla is considered to be a part of the
Sympathetic nervous system
The adrena medulla secretes which catacholamines
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine
In the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic, all preganglionic neurons are considered to be
Cholinergic
Which muscle has nothing to do with the eyebrow?
Levator muscle
What has the shortest latency?
Pursuits
Which gives bilateral stellate cataracts?
Phenothiazines
Capillaries of choroid are similar to capillaries in the
Ciliary body
What is the higher concentration in blood than in aqeuous?
Protein
What gives the most resistance to the outflow of aqeuous?
Juxtancanalicular tissue
Which doesn't enter the orbit around Annulus of Zinn
Trochlear nerve
Which doesn't supply the optic nerve
Long Posterior Ciliary arteries
This produces layer of tears that is lipid
Meibomian glands
When corneal epithelium is damaged, what happens first
Migration
Pupillary frill is formed by
Posterior pigmented epithelium rolling around edge of the iris
What is in the anterior border layer of the iris
Fibroblasts and Melanocytes
What doesn't come from surface ectoderm
Corneal stroma
Cells in a straight line down the cortex respond to what
Line orientation
What has the most blood in the eye
Choroid
Damage to CN7 causes what NOT to happen
Closure of the eye
When the eye is abducted, what is the action of the superior oblique?
Intorsion
Doing retinoscopy and you have neutrality, what is conjugate?
Patient's retina and the retinoscope (examiner's pupil)
Isopter of a 65 year old compared to a 20 year old is
Smaller
Lens of infant compared to the lens of a 20 year old
Transmits more UV and blue light
Where does the inferior oblique attach to the orbital wall
Anterior medial
What nerve innervates the lower eyelid
Infraorbital nerve
Antiangiogenesis factor in vitreous is
Hyaluronic acid
The direction of the jerk nystagmus is determined by
Fast phase
What is the best VA of a rod monochromate in optimal conditions
20/100
Which does NOT develop from surface ectoderm
Corneal Endothelium
Mueller cells do NOT produce the internal limiting membrane for what part
Optic Nerve Head
Where does the aqueous drain after leaving the Canal of Schlemm
External Collecting channels
Reason for use of cyclopentolate over atropine
Shorter duration of action
Tetracylcine causes what
Epiphoria
The majority of this structure's energy comes from anaerobic glycolysis
Crystalline lens
Eye movement occurring most during reading
Saccades
The layer of tears closest to the cornea are produced by
Goblet cells
Lean head forward, what is the compensatory movement of eyes
Eyes move upward
Volume of the Anterior Chamber is
0.25mL
Light adaptation to photoreceptors
Ca+
What does the atrophy of the Hyaloid artery determine
Size of the optic cup
Not enough oxygen of the lens, so it goes through what pathway
Glycolysis
Edmea of the lid is found in what layer
Subcutaneous layer
Pupillary ruff is due to
Posterior pigmented epithelium
Which layer of the cornea is formed from the surface ectoderm
Epithelium
The light reflex doesn't go to which structure
Laterl geniculate
Telencephalon develops into what
Visual cortex
Superior collliculus derivative
Mesencephalon
UVB is mostly absorbed by
Cornea
Lesion in the Sphenopalentine ganglia would
Stop tear production
Blood Retinal barriers
Tight junctions of RPE and CRA
What anomaly presents with anhydrosis, miosis, and ptosis
Horner's syndrome
Goblet cells produce which layer of the tear film
Mucin layer
The purpose of the lipid layer of tears is to
Reduce evaporation
Most common birth defect with the lacrminal system is
Plugged valve of Hasner
The only cell in the retina to under go Action potentials
Ganglion
The major cirlce of the iris is made up of
Long Posterior and Anterior Ciliary arteries
Hyperemia of the front part of the eye is due to
Anterior conjunctival artery
Divides superior and inferior parts of the retina
Long posterior Ciliary nerves
Which is NOT found in the macula
Mueller cells
The Patellar fossa can be found in the
Anterior vitreous
The sclera is found to be thinnest where
Behind the insertions of EOM's
The strongest attachment of the vitreous
Vitreous base
Cornea can be found to be thinnest
Central - 0.5mm and Periphery - 0.65mm
Longest, thinnest, and furtherest insertion is
Superior Oblique
Strongest Rectus
Medial Rectus
Weakest Rectus
Lateral Rectus
Longest Rectus
Superior Rectus
Shortest Rectus
Inferior Rectus
What can be found in the Cavernous sinus
CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, ICA
A lesion of the cavernous sinus will cause
Anesthesize the cornea
If you cover an eye (patch), what happens to the lateral geniculate
Cells get smaller
Contained in the inner neuroblastic layer
Ganglion, Amacrine, and Mueller cells
Contained in the outer neuroblastic layer
Rods, Cones, Bipolar, and Horizontal
During an ERG, the A wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Photoreceptors
During an ERG, the B wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Mueller cells
Durina an ERG, the C wave is consistent with what part of the retina
Subretinal space and RPE
During an ERG, the R1 wave is consistent with what
Lumi-rhodopsin to Meta-rhodopsin-1
During an ERG, the R2 wave is consistent with what
Meta-rhodopsin-1 to Meta-rhodopsin-2
Tear layer made of oil due to
Moll, Zeis, and Meibomian glands
Tear layer made of aqueous is due to
Krause, Wolfring, and Lacrimal glands
Newborns' optic cup size is due to
Atrophy of Bergmeister's papillae
Most blood in the eye is found where
Venous system
Most damaging UV light is
UVB
Ganglion cells project
Layer 4 of Lateral geniculate
Eye is down and out when
Damage to CN III
Ipsilateral MR, IR, IO, and contralateral SR is innervated by
CN III
VEP is performed on the
Central retina
What part of the eye secretes Aqueous and Hyaluronic acid
Pars Plana Non-pigmented Epithelium
Macula Adherens is
Desmosomes
Basal surface binding epithelial cells to basement membrane
Hemidesmosomes
The ciliary body is innervated by
Short ciliary nerves (Parasympathetic)
Which ocular vascular structure does NOT have autoregulation?
Choroid
Which does NOT have autonomic regulation: Choroid, CB, Retina or Iris?
Retina
CN II (afferent) to Visual cortex to VII (efferent) - Orbicularis Oculi (blink) is the pathwayfor what reflex?
Menace Reflex
CN V to Pons to CN VII (blink) is the pathway for what reflex
Corneal Reflex
If forcefully closed, the eye looks up and out in what
Bell's Phenomenon
Posterior chamber volume
0.06 mL
Iris sphincter is innervated by
Parasympathetics - short ciliary
Iris dilator is innvervated by
Sympathetics - long ciliary
When you remove a contact lens, you have a decrease in
Lactic acid
Greates difference between two eyes in the accommodative state
0.5 D
EOM insertion is furthest and closest respectively for which EOM's
SO and MR
The eyes becoming more myopic at night can be defined as
Purkinje shift
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 200-290nm
Cornea
Ocular media that best absorbs light at 290-365nm
Lens
Wavelengths that cause cataracts
295-320nm
Wavelengths greater than 365nm are absorbed by
Retina
pH of the eye when open / closed is
7.45 / 7.20
Light absorbing pigment - Opsin and derivation of Vitamin A retinal complex
Rhodopsin
Refers to the vacularized vitreous - hyaloid system
Primary vitreous
Refers to the vitreous proper
Secondary vireous
Refers to lens zonules
Tertiary vitreous
Type of collagen found in the cornal stroma
Type 1
Type of collagen found in the basement membrane
Type 7
Type of collagen found in the lens
Type 4
Type of collagen found in the Descemet's membrane
Type 4 and 8
Superior vortex veins drain into
Superior Ophthalmic Vein
Superior Ophthalmic vein drains into
Cavernous sinus
Inferior vortex veins drain into
Inferior Ophthalmic Vein
Inferior Ophthalmic veins drains into
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid Plexus
Cavernous sinus and Pterygoid plexus is connected by
Emissary veins
Cavernous sinus drains into
Inferior and Superior Petrosal Sinuses
Connects Superior and Inferior Ophthalmic veins
Angular Facial vein
Drains to cavernous sinus directly and through the superior ophthalmic vein
Central retinal vein
Telescope with 5mm ocular lens and 35mm objective lens, has what magnification?
7X
Panum's fusional area is larger where
In the Periphery
If someone has a strict criteria in their responses, it will lead to
More misses
To be sure that your patient doesn't light adapt, use
Ascending trials
Anti-reflective coating index equals
Square root of index (n)
Fog lights are yellow and therefor absorb more
Blue light
A yellow light in your eyes makes white look more
Blue
What most helps depth perception miles away
Overlay
Most resistant material the drop ball test
Polycarbonate
After image is larger where
In the distance
Ghost images appear from
AR coatings
Jump is calculated by
Add power x (Distance of OC to top of add)
Seg height is measured from the bottom of the frame to
Edge of lower lid
Pupil size is less than 2.5mm and defines blur
Diffraction
Difference in image sizes can be defined by
Anisekonia
What happens beyond Panum's Fusional area
Diplopia
Difference between object and surroundings can be defined as
Contrast
Power of IOL is calculated by
Corneal power and axial length
The change in Hue associated with change in Purity
Abney effect
The change in Hue associated with change in Luminance
Benzold Brucke effect
The change in Saturation associated with change in Luminance
Purdy effect
Mixed additivity Red and Blue is Magenta, which is complement to
Green
Mixed additivity Blue and Green is Cyan, which is complement to
Red
Mixed additivity Green and Red is Yellow, which is complement to
Blue
Three primary colors in appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Normal Trichromacy
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Red in color match is
Protanomaly
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Green in color match is
Deuteranomaly
An Anomalous Trichromacy that requires excess Blue in color match is
Tritanomaly
Two primary colors in any appropriate portions will match any perceived color
Dichromatism
Decreased photopic, Inability to differentiate Reds, Browns, Olives and Golds
Protanopia
Near normal photopic, confused with red, orange, yellow, blue, and purple
Deuteranopia
Normal photopic, confused with pastel blue and pastel green
Tritanopia
All portions of visible spectrum are seen as grays
Monochromatism
Brightest to dimmest Purkinje image order
1 > 3 > 4 > 2
Largest to smallest Purkinje image order
3 > 1 > 2 > 4
Anterior to Posterior Purkinje image order
2 > 1 > 4 > 3
Which Purkinje image is real and inverted
4
Which Purkinje images are virtual and erect
1,2,3
What is this order for: Gamma < X-rays < UV < Visual < IR < Radio < Microwave
Increasing wavelength
Visible light spectrum is what
430 to 750nm
The muscle doing predominant moving of right eye to the right (same direction - RLR) is
Agonist
The muscle that moves the eye in the left (opposite direction - RMR) is
Antagonist
RSR and RIO both move the right eye up and can be considered
Homolateral Synergists
RSO and LIR or RLR and LMR can be considered
Yoked muscles or Contralateral Synergists
Strabismus in which the angle of deviation is within 5PD in all positions of gaze is
Comitant strabismus
Info about direction, comitacy, magnitude, and accommodation is found on
Alternating cover test
Info about type of deviation, frequency, eye laterality, but NOT magnitude is found
Cover-Uncover test
Takes angle lambda into account (1mm = 22pd)
Hirschberg reflex
Visual field sizes 100, 75, 60, 60 correspond to
Temporal, Inferior, Superior, Nasal
Image size of aphake corrected with spectacles compared to contacts
Larger image
How is the image size of axial hyperope OD compared to refractive myopia OS corrected with spectacles OU and axial lengths are equal
Larger image OD
Critical angle of air surface interface is 33.7 degrees. What is the index of refraction?
1.8
Is velocity of light faster in air or water
Air (n=c/v)
Light is reflected by plane mirror. Mirror is moved by 15 degrees, what happens to the reflected light?
Moves by 30 degrees
Which lens is exempt from the drop ball test?
Fused bifocal
Frame has dimesions of 50/22. Patient has monocular PD of 30mm OD and 36mm OS. What is the total inset, if the add inset is 3mm?
9mm OD
Locus of points equidistant from observer forms what
Nonius horopter
Corneal Stroma origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Endothlium origin
Neural Crest
Cornea Descemet's Membrane origin
Neural Crest
Sclera 95% originates from
Neural Crest
Melanocytes originate from
Neural Crest
Meninges origin
Neural Crest
Ciliary body stroma origin
Neural Crest
Orbital Septum origin
Neural Crest
Connective tissue originates from
Neural Crest
Ciliary muscle origin
Neural Crest
Corneal Epithelium orginates from
Surface Ectoderm
The lens originates from
Surface Ectoderm
All glands originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Lid skin origin
Surface Ectoderm
Cilia originate from
Surface Ectoderm
Conjunctiva origin
Surface Ectoderm
Retinal Pigemented Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Sensory Retina origin
Neural Ectoderm
Smooth muscle (Iris sphincter and dilator) origin
Neural Ectoderm
Iris Epithelium origin
Neural Ectoderm
Lens Zonules origin
Neural Ectoderm
Muscles originate from
Mesoderm
Blood supply originate from
Mesoderm
Most common type of necrosis, usually found in the heart and kidney
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis with loss of nucleus, but cell shape is perserved
Coagulative Necrosis
Necrosis characteristic of ischemic destruction of brain tissue
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis common in bacterial lesions
Liquefaction Necrosis
Necrosis seen in adipose tissue due to action of lipase
Fat Necrosis
Chessy Necrosis - combination of Liquefaction and Coagulative
Caseous Necrosis
Necrosis found mainly in the center of Tuberculosis infections
Caseous Necrosis
Portion of the body that has loss its blood supply (Liquefaction and Coagulative)
Gangrenous Necrosis
In genetics, the coding description AaBb is called the
Genotype
In genetics, the description of blue eyes is called
Phenotype
Leading causes of cancer deaths in males are
1.Lung 2.Prostate 3. Colon
Leading causes of cancer deaths in females are
1.Lung 2.Breast 3. Colon
Leading sites of cancer in males
1.Prostate 2.Lung 3.Colon
Leading sites of cancer in females
1.Breast 2.Colon 3.Lung
Most cancer mortality age
55-75 years
Disorderly proliferation of cells, lose of uniformity and orientation
Dysplasia
Gene most commonly mutated in human cancers
Anti-oncogenes (tumor suppressors)
Cell division which occurs in the cell body, maintains 46 chromosomes
Mitosis
Gamete formation reduces the number of chromosomes to 23
Meiosis
Characteristic cell of a granuloma is a modified macrophage called
Epitheloid cell
Formed by the coalescence and fusion of macrophages
Giant cells or Langerhans
Which is an example of Type 1 reaction>
Bronchial asthma
Toxoplasmosis Gondii primarily affects what age group
Fetus
Tuberculosis is an example of
Caseous Necrosis
Adaptive change of epithelium from simple cuboidal to simple columnar is called
Metaplasia
Lack of Vitamin C causes Scruvy because
Proline can't be hydroxylated
Primary infection of Varicella-Zoster in an adult is
Shingles
Retinal damage are treated with
Cephalosporins
Increases tear production
Digitoxin
Side effects of this type of drug are weight gain, mood swings, but NOT diuresis
Steroids
Acetazolamide is
CAI
Most ineffective drug for diuresis
Mannitol
Irreversible indirect parasympathetic
Echothiophate
Used in acute ventricular arrithymia
Lidocaine
Beta-1 specific drugs were made to
Decrease systemic side effects
What do you treat pseudomonas aeruginosa with
Ciproflaxin
What causes Bulls eye retinopathy
Chloroquine
What drug lowers cholesterol
Lovestatin
What is most likely to be sensitive to the eye
Neomycin
Which drug doesn't induce bronchiospasm
Epinephrine
Which glaucoma med comes in a gel form
Pilocarpine
NSAID's inhibit
Arachondonic acid
Which drug causes transient myopic shifts
Pilocarpine
Catopril is a
ACE Inhibitor
Most potent diuretic is
Furosimide
Only penicillin that is not Beta-lactamase sensitive
Nafacillin
Antifungal most widely used for systemic conditions
Ampecterin B
Constant amount of alcohol being eliminated
Zero order kinetics
Betaxolol is
Beta-1 specific
Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
Cephalosporins
Carbechol is longer lasting than
Pilocarpine
What causes color changes in the retina
Chloroquine
Antiviral drugs have what negative effect when used topically
Tend to destroy the epithelium
What prevents white blood cells from reaching the site of injury
Glucocorticoids
Beta-1 specific drugs
Decrease side effects, especially in Asthma
Drug to be used with Epilepsy
Phenytoin
Locks Beta-1, Beta-2, Renin, and decreases cardiac output
Propranolol
Half life of Digoxin and Digitoxin
36 hours / 5-7 days
Inhibits the enzyme that activates Angiotensin-1 to Angiotensin-2
Captopril
Most effective type of diuretic
Loop
Aldosterone antagonist
Spirolactone
Direct anti-kaluretic
Triampterine
Histamin does what to the vascular system
Vasodilation
Decreased accommodation is a side effect of
NSAID's
Inhibits the release of histamine
Cromolyn Na+
Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxocity
Aminoglycosides
Drug used for Herpes Simplex Virus
Idoxuridine
Name two K+ sparing diuretics
Spirolactone and Triampterine
Reversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Salicylic acid
Irrversible NSAID (aracodonic acid to prostogian)
Ibuprofen
How does Norepinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
Effects alpha receptors more than beta receptors
How does Epinephrine effect alpha and beta receptors
Effects alpha and beta receptors equally
Acetylcholine activates two different types of receptors
Muscarinic and Nicotinic
Detoxification of drugs, toxins, etc. are carried out by
Liver
What is the mode of action of Cephaloporine
Inhibit T cell function (Immunospressive drug)
Cortisol does what to glucose blood levels
Raises glucose levels
Cigarette smoking reverses the effect of which drug
Theophylline
Which drug interferes with DNA gyrase
Fluoroquinolones
This drug is a pyrimidine antimetabolite that interferes with DNA
Trifluorothymidine (Trifluridine)
This blocks cyclooxygenase and has an anti-inflammatory property
Aspirin
This drug's major ocular side effect is miosis
Morphine
Major ocular side effect of Digoxin
Color vision changes
Which has the most effect on K+ (Hypokalemia)?
Dihydrochlorothiazide
What is the TI for TD50=2500mg and ED50=50mg
50
Which administration of drug is most variable in means of absorption
Oral
This drug blocks reuptake of Norepinephrine
Cocaine
On a log-dose curve, when an unknown drug is given and the curve shifts to the right, but everything else is the same
Competitive Antagonist
If a drug binds to the active site of an enzyme, what is it
Competitive inhibitor
Kupffer cells in the liver do what?
Phagocytosis
Lining of the ventricles consists of
Single layer of ependymal cells
What has simple ciliated cuboidal epithelium
Bronchioles
What do astrocytes NOT have
Action potentials
Bile is released into
Duodenum
Bile is stored
Gallbladder
Bile is produced in the
Liver
Medullary pyramids can be seen grossly in the
Kidney
Most resistance to blood flow is determined by
Diameter of the arterioles
Actin and Myosin make up what band
A band
Mental retardation is NOT associated with
Marfans
Which is NOT a urinary buffer
Hemoglobulin
NOT formed by the pancreas
Secretin
The ability of the glomerulus to reabsorb glucose is exceeded in what disease
Diabetes
Why does too much insulin cause a diabetic coma
No glucose to the brain
Distal Convoluted tubule and Collecting tubule become permeable to
ADH
Most lymph nodes can be found in the
Small intestine
Lipid synthesis takes place in
Smooth ER
Respiratory center of the brain is
Medulla
Lack of Dopamine in the substantia nigra results in
Parkinson's disease
During muscle contraction Ca+ binds to what and pulls what away
Troponin / Tropomyosin
Found in the greatest concentration inside the cell
K+
Acts at specific postsynaptic receptor sites to produce changes to target
Neurotransmitter
All reactions of metabolism take place where
Outside the nucleus in the Cytoplasm
Cytoskeletal fiber found just beneath the Plasma Membrane, solid, and made of Actin
Microfilaments
Cytoskeletal fiber found in deeper region of the cell
Microtubules
The nucleus of a cell is broken down to 80% protein and how much DNA and RNA
15% DNA and 5% RNA
Highly specialized smooth ER of a muscle cell
Sacroplasmic Reticulum
Function of the sacroplasmic reticulum is to
Remove Ca+ ions from the Cytosol
(+)Ribosomes, (+)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (-)Steroid synthesis
Rough ER
(-)Ribsomes, (-)Protein synthesis, (+)Lipid synthesis, (+)Steroid synthesis
Smooth ER
Organelles that contain about 50 different digestive enzymes
Lysosomes
About 36 ATP are produced for each molecule of Glucose in what cycle
Aerobic Respiration
Carbohydrates are stored as glycogen where
Cytoplasm
Major site of ATP production within the cell is
Mitochondria
Intracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
High K+ and Low Na+
Extracellular fluid has High and Low concentrations of what
High Na+ and Low K+
Extracellular fluid consists of three types of fluid
Interstitial, Plasma, and Lymph
Cation that easily passes through the cell membrane
Potassium
Resting membrane potential
-65 to -85mV
Na/K Pump
Na+ is pumped out and K+ is pumped in
Diffusion that usually requires the help of a protein
Facilitated diffusion
Integrated system of nervous plexi in the wall of the digestive tract
Enteric Brain
Enhances motility and digestive secretions, relaxes muscle sphincter
Parasympathetic ANS
Inhibits contraction of smooth muscle, inhibits enteric brain
Sympathetic ANS
Humoral control of GI activity involves
ACh, NE, and Serotonin
Stomach secretes gastric juices mostly produced by
Exocrine glands in the Fundus of the stomach
Exocrine gland secretory cells
Chief, Parietal, and Mucous cells
Initiates the digestion of protein in the digestive tract
Pepsin (Chief cells - Pepsinogen)
Activates pepsin and provides optimal pH for enzymatic action in the stomach
HCl (Parietal cells)
Necessary for the absorption of B-12
Intrinsic factor (Secreted by Parietal cells)
Capable of nearly completing the digestion of fodd in the absence of other secretions
Pancreatic juice
Area of most concentrated human bile
Gallbladder > Liver
Contraction of muscle, does NOT shorten, heat is released, get tension of muscle
Isometric contraction
Contraction of muscle, shortening of muscles, tension is constant, work is done
Isotonic contraction
Involuntary, uni-nucleated, non-striated, and smaller than skeletal muscle fiber
Smooth muscle
Albumin, globulin, and fibrinogen are made in the liver and are found in what fluid
Plasma
Glucose, AA, Fatty acids, Lactic acid, CO2, and O2 are found in what fluid
Plasma
Particles move from higher to lower contraction in what process
Diffusion
Water moves from lower to higher concentration in what process
Osmosis
Invagination of the plasma membrane
Endocytosis
Amount of solute per liter equals
One Osmole
Exchange of fluids happens at the capillary end and is determined by
Osmotic and Hydrostatic pressure
Pressure that drives H2O out of the capillaries
Hydrostatic pressure (35mmHg)
Pressure that pulls H2O back into the capillaries
Osmotic (22mmHg) and Tissue pressure
Hydrostatic pressure is generated by
Heart pumping
Net pressure for forcing fluid out of the capillary is
1mmHg
The glomerulus and Bowman's capsule make up
Renal Corpuscle
Plasma and Solutes leave the circulatory system through large pores in very permeable
Glomerular capillaries
Glomerular capillaries do NOT have large enough pores to let through
Platelets and Red & White blood cells
Na+ is actively transported out creating an electrial gradient so Cl- follows
Proximal Convoluted tubules
65% of the salt and water in the original glomerulus filtrate is reabsorbed back into the
Proximal Convoluted tubules
15% of filtered water and 25% of salt returned to the vascular system
Loop of Henle
In the Loop of Henle, as the tube descends, the Medulla outside does what
Increases in concentration
Water and salt passively leave the tubule
Descending Loop of Henle
Cl- is actively pumped out and Na+ follows
Ascending Loop of Henle
Impermeable to water making the tubule fluid more dilute
Ascending Loop of Henle
Relatively permeable to water keeping tubular fluid dilute
Distal Convoluted Tubule
Impermeable to water, but NOT salt, H2O drawn out by osmosis until exiting urine is constant
Collecting tubule
Permeability of collecting tubule is controlled by
ADH
Only capillary beds to be drained by arterioles rather than venules
Glomeruli
Surrounds the Loop of Henle and take up water which exits the descending limb
Vasa Recta
Depolarization is due to the
Inflow of Na+
Repolarization is due to the
Outward flow of K+
What drives H2O out of capillaries
Heart's Hydrostatic pressure
Increase in Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion
Aldosterone
Parathyroid hormone does what
Increase blood Ca+
Purkinje fibers are or come from
Modified cardiac muscle fibers
Most peripheral resistance is due to
Arterioles
Where does ADH effect the nephron
Colleting duct
Efferent from glomerulus is
Arteriole
What does NOT commonly metastasize
Brain
What organ does NOT commonly infarct
Liver
First part of the ciliary body to form is the
Greater Arteriole circle
The major circle of the iris can be found in the
Ciliary body
Endocardium of the heart is consistent with
Tunica Intima
Myocardium of the heart is
Tunica Media
Epicardium of the heart is
Tunica Adventicia
Oligodendrites are found in the
CNS
Hypothyroidism is associated with
Levothyroine (T4)
Proythiouracil is associated with
Hyperthyroidism
The thyroid gland is at maximal denisity when
Aldolescence
Rheumatoid arthritis is what type of disease
Autoimmunity
No anti-inflammatory properties
Aldosterone
Diagnosis of AIDS can be given when HIV infection is combined with what T4 cell count
CD4 count of <200 cells/mm3
Z line to Z line is called
Sacromere
Actin only (light band)
I Band
Myosin overlapping Actin (dark band)
A band
Myosin band only
H band
In muscle contraction Ca+ is bound to
Troponin
Troponin is bound to
Tropomyosin subunit of Actin F
Does Actin or Myosin pull the other along
Myosin head pulls Actin along
Significance of evoked potentials, CT, PET scanning and MRI
Neurological Diagnostic tests
Visual auditory or tactile stimuli that activate corresponding neuro tract
Evoked potentials
Provides rapid, non-invasive imaging of Sulci, ventricles, grey-white matter
CT-scan
This technique passes a series of collimated x-ray beams through region
CT-scan
Uses uptake of tracer amounts of radio isotopes to measure blood flow, glucose, & O2
PET position emission
Technique uses a magnetic field that aligns H protons in Direction of field
MRI
Useful in determining brainstem lesions, demylineating plaques, brain edema
MRI
Bound to Actin as to block the site of actin/myosin connection
Tropomyosin
Ca+ binds to what to change to the shape to remove tropomyosin from blocking
Troponin
Smooth muscle lacks Troponin and Tropomyosin so Ca+ binds to
Calmodulin
Acetylchloine is released from motor neuron and binds to
Receptor on muscle fiber of plasma membrane
The propagated action potential triggers the release of Ca+ from
Lateral sacs of sacroplasmic reticulum
Ca+ binds to troponin which is bound to the tropomyosin subunit of
Actin
Troponin pulls Tropomyosin away from its blocking position permits what
Actin and Myosin interaction
Energy stored in high energy myosin is discharged and myosin heads swivels
Pulling on the thin filaments
ATP binds with what and causes the release of from actin subunites
Myosin heads
ATP splites into what again and returns the myosin heads to high energy state
ADP and Phosphate
Glycogen synthesis, storage, and utilization is conducted where
Liver
Resting membrane potential
-60mV
Reason for membrane potential
High intracellular K+ and Low Na+
Inside or outside of the cell membrane is more negative
Inside
Brief increase in membrane permeability to Na+
Depolarization
Subsequent increase in membrane permeability to K+ leaving the cell
Repolarization
Muscle and nerve cells use what type of channels
Voltage-gated
Acts as a primary relay station between pre and post synaptic cells
Neurotransmitter
Excitatory neurotransmitters
Acetylcholine and Catacholamines
Inhibitatroy neurotransmitters
Glycine and GABA
Synthesized and stored in presynaptic nerve terminals
Neurotransmitter
Relaeased in response to an action potential in a Ca+ dependent manner
Neurotransmitter
Renal regulatory mechanisms are by
Constriction and Dilaton of Afferent Arteriole to Glomerulus
Stimulates constriction of afferent arteriole and will lead to decreased urine formation
Increased sympathetic activity
What pressure range will kidneys maintain a constant rate of urine formation
70-180mmHg
What happens when pressure falls below 70mmHg
Afferent Arterioles dilate
What happens when pressure falls below 70mmHg or above 180mmHg
Renal control of blood pressure and H2O balance
Decreased BP results in increased sympathetic activity and vasoconstriction of Afferent
Decreased urine production and increase BP
Releases in response to increased solute concentration
ADH from Posterior Pituitary
Causes increased resorbtion of water, less excretion and more concentrated urine
ADH
Normally how much water is reabsorbed
99%
Na+ and K+ are regulated in the distal tube by
Aldosterone
Aldosterone promotes and contributes to increased blood volume and pressure
Na+ retention and K+ loss from body
Kidneys regulate Acid-Base balance by excreting what?and retaining (+) ions produces...
H+ / Bicarbonate
Bicarbonate cannot cross the tubule wall so it is converted to
Carbonic acid
Filtrate of plasma is pushed out of the capillaries into urinary space via hydrostatic
Ultrafiltration
Efferent arteriole constriction increases resistance to outflow from glomerulus thus...
Increases glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and pressure
Which beats first the left or right side of the heart
Both sides beat stimultaneously
Ventricle contraction and ejection
Systolic
Begins with first heart sound, ends with occurance of 2nd heart sound
Systolic
Ventricular relaxing and filling occur during
Diastolic
Begins with second heart sound, ends with the first heart sound
Diastolic
Determines the rate at which the heart beats
Rate of Diastolic Depolarization
Depolarization of the arterial muscle
P-wave
Depolarization of the ventricles
QRS-complex
Repolarization of the ventricles
T-wave
Repolarization of the atrial muscles
Takes place during Ventricular depolarization
P-wave not followed by QRS-complex
Conduction is blocked between atrium and ventricle
QRS very broad and/or abnormal shape
Some ventricular muscle was activated late
Arterial pressure / resistance
Blood flow
The greatest pressure drop occurs at what level
Arterioles due to large resistance to flow
1/3 Pulse pressure + Diastolic pressure
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)
Systolic - Diastolic
Pulse pressure
Blood vessels are primarily innervated by
Sympathetic division of the ANS
Resting vascular tone is maintained by continuous sympathetic nerve activity, which originates in the...
Vasoactive centers of the Medulla
Blood vessels of Heart, skeletal muscle, and liver contain predominantly what type of receptor?
Beta receptors
Very potent vasoconstrictor that may play a role in regulation of renal circulation
Angiotensin II
Baroreceptor nerve activity is transmitted to cardiovascular control centers of
Medulla
Receptors located in walls of aorta and carotid sinus that respond to change to arterial
Baroreceptors
Increased BP increases baroreceptor nerve activity and decreases sympathetic nerve
Leads to decreased heart rate
activity to Cardiovasculature
and contractility
Blood volume and regulation is primarily controlled by
Kidneys and GI system
Blood is considered
A connective tissue
Contains Erythrocytes, Leukocytes, Thrombocytes, and Plasma
Blood
Normal % of Hemocrit
45%
Contains hemoglobulin - which transports oxygen
Erthrocytes
No hemoglobulin and comes as granulocytes or agranulocytes
Leukocytes
7,000 to 10,000 per mm cu
Leukocytes
Produced from Megakaryocytes
Thrombocytes or Platelets
Function in transport, pH maintainance, Blood Osmotic pressure, Coagulation
Plasma protein
Lymph vessels empty into the
Subclavian vein
The normal operation of the lymphatic system
Prevents edema
System of vessels that channel back into circulation fluid and plasma protein that have leaked to interstitial tissue
Lymphatic vessels
Secreted in response to chemical stimulators or neurotransmitters
Hormones
Produce releasing and stimulating hormones which go by vessels to Anterior pituitary
Neurons in the Hypothalamus
Stores and releases the hormones ADH and Oxytocin
Posterior Pituitary
Secretes corticosteroids
Adrenal cortex
Two catergories of corticosteroids
Mineralocorticoids and Glucocorticoids
A mineralocorticoid
Aldosterone
a Glucocortoid
Hydrocortisone
Secretes small amounts of androgens
Adrenal cortex
Regulates the adrenal cortex
Adrenocorticotrophic hormones
What does the adrenal medulla secrete
Catacholamine hormones
Two main catacholamine hormones
Epinephrine & NE
Hormone secreted into blood upon stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system
Catacholamines
Hormone from the thalamus which causes the release of TSH from the anterior pituitary
TRH
When TSH reaches the thyroid gland it causes the release of
T3 and T4 from the thyroid follicles
Act as negative feedback on Anterior pituitary to decrease the release of TSH
T3 and T4
Islets of Langerhans secretes insulin through its
Beta cells
Islets of Langerhans secretes glucagon through its
Alpha cells
What will cause an increase of insulin and decrease in glucagon
Increased glucose
Stimulates the breakdown of glycogen
Glucagon
Sympathtetic nerve stimulation causes this secretion
Glucagon
Parasympathetic nerve stimualtion causes this secretion
Insulin
Leads to increase of lipogenesis, decreased lipolysis, decrease of ketogenesis
Increased blood sugar which increases insulin
Promotes protein synthesis and stimulates the release of FA from adipose tissue
Growth hormones
A fall in blood calcium level stimulates the secretion of
Parathyroid hormone
Increases in Ca+ levels via bone resorption, intestinal resorption and renal resorption
Parathyroid hormone
A prehormone that is formed in the skin or ingested in the diet
Vitamin D
Has the same effect as parathyroid hormone, but also causes reabsorption of renal
Vitamin D
Lowers Ca+ levels by reducing bone resorption and increases clearance of Ca+ and phosphate
Tyrocalcitonin
Gonadotrophins
Leutenizing Hormone (LH) & Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
LH in females and FSH in males regulate
Development of egg and sperm
Stimulates growth and development of the gonads
FSH
Triggers ovulation as well as stimulate testerone production
LH
Prolactin levels rise, increases secretions on insulin, Aldosterone, Cortisol, and Thyroxin
During pregnancy
Stimulate breast development in preparation for nursing
Prolactin, Estrogen, Progesterone
Production and release of milk from the breast is largely controlled by
Prolactin and Oxytocin
Proteins are broken down in the stomach by
Pepsin
Which vascular system is not under autonmic control?
Retina
A band conists of what?
Myosin and Actin
The cell is bi-lobed and has granules stained red
Eosinophils
Cholesterol is carried to peripheral tissues by what?
LDL
What is the air expired after a strong inspiration>
Tidal volume
Bicarbonate to CO2 concentration ratio in blood is
20
The glomerulus is located in what part of the kidney
Cortex
This hormone has an ion channel and receptor located on one membrane complex unit
Nicotinic
Which organ has both endocrine and exocrine functions
Pancreas
What causes glomerular pressure to be so high?
Capillaries
Which part of the digestive tract has villi
Small intestine
Increased levels of ADH in the blood causes the tonicity of urine to
Increase
What is responsible for contraction of the inner and outer layer of a muslce as one unit
T-tubule
Cardiac output is equal to heart rate times
Stroke volume
Illusionary movement of an object in a dark room
Autokinetic effect
Cell bodies for the optic radiations are located where
LGN
Parvo cells of the LGN are responsible for
Small objects, stable, foveal, high SF vision
What are the units of luminous flux?
Lumens
A red screen is placed against a green screen, what comes out?
No light comes out
Look at a spiral spinning object and then it stops. What do you see?
Spiral spinning in the opposite direction
What VA is equivalent to 30cycles/degree?
20/20
Light deprived leads to
Myopia
Red chip and green chip appear equally bright in scoptopic conditions, but at photopic levels?
Red chip appears brighter