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716 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Bacteria are classified in which kingdom
Protozoa are...
unicellular eukaryotic
mastigophores are protozoa that use..
ciliophores are protozoa that use...
another name for nematode
round worm
another name for cestode
tape worm
what is symbiosis
close association of two dissimilar species
one organisms benefits
the other isnt harmed from symbiosis
both organisms benefit from symbiosis
one organism adversley affects the other
the ability of a pathogen to produce disease
Degree of pathogenicity (ability of a pathogen to produce disease)
Eosiniphils and neutrophils are
Phagocytic granulocytes
Agglutinins are antibodies that…
React with particulate antigen to cause agglutination
Precipitins are antibodies that…
React with soluble antigen to form a solid precipitate
how do Lysozymes affect bacteria?
Destroy the mucopeptide layer of bacterial cell wall
Sterilization is…
Elimination of all pathogens and spores…nothing is living
Disinfection is…
Removal of harmful organisms…some are left living
Autoclaving involves…
High temp. and high pressure – 121oC for 15 min
Iodine is a halogene that can
combine irreversibly with proteins as an oxidant
Lag phase of growth
Cells are metabolically active and grow in size
Log phase of growth
Cells divide to increase number of cells
Angular blepharoconjunctivitis is often caused by
Moraxella sp.
Causative agent of syphilis…
Treponema pallidum – not highly contagious
Primary syphilis
Chancre sore at the site of entry
Secondary syphilis
Skin rash, hepatitis, conjunctivitis, fever, sore throat, iritis
Tertiary syphilis
Neurological or cardiovascular in nature
Leprosy involves
A loss in sensitivity in an area of skin
Mycobacteria are
Acid fast bacilli
Mycoplasma bacteria are
The smallest bacteria capable of reproduction
Mycoplasma bacteria are resistant too...
Penicillin resistant b/c they can’t produce peptidoglycan
Herpes viruses have what kind of nucleic acid?
Double stranded DNA
HIV aka HTLV-III has what kind of nucleic acid
single stranded RNA
T helper cells (CD4) secrete
IL-2 which activates cytotoxic T cells (CD8)
Nucleolus is the site of
Ribosomal assembly
RER is the site of
Protein synthesis
SER is the site of
Lipid synthesis
Microtubules are composed of
Microtubules provide a
Supportive framework and a guide for organelle movement
Microfilaments are made of
microfilaments interact with
a peptide bond has a linkage of
globular proteins
tightly folded...watersoluble...most enzymes are globular
Fibrous proteins
Water insoluble … serve a structural or protective function
dimer in secretions like saliva sweat tears breast milk
protects against parasites, cause hypersensitivity allergy reactions
Most abundant…crosses the placenta
Ist antibody to be produced…2-3 days after exposure
Km, Michaelis constant
Substrate concentration at which V = ½ Vmax
Michaelis-menten equation
V0 = (Vmax [S]) / (Km + [S])
Competitive inhibitor
Resembles the substrate…binds to the same site blocks the actual substrate
uncompetitive inhibitor
binds to the enzyme-substrate complex-not a free enzyme
hemoglobin contains how many subunit
4,2a, 2b
oxygenation of hemoglobin
causes quaternary changes to the R state
deoxygenation of hemoglobin
causes iron to move into the heme plane-Tstate
structural changes of hemoglobin R-T take place where?
entirely across the alpha1-beta2 interface
lysozyme destroys what on a bacteria?
nam and nag in the cell wall peptidoglycan
serine proteases include
trypsin and chymotrypsin
endergonic rxns
require energy
exergonic rxns
produce energy
G coupled rxns use energy from
hydrolysis of atp to gtp for thermodynamically unfavorable reaction
Redox reactions
recucing agent (e- donor) and oxidizing agent (acceptor)
henderson hasselbach reaction
acetyl coa is the common product of
carbohydrate, fatty acid and amino acid catabolism
acetyl carbons are oxidized
to co2 in the tca cycle yielding nadh and fadh2
glucose + fructose
Glucose and galactose
Glucose and glucose
Glycosaminoglycans are polysaccharides…
with one negatively charged carboxylate or sulfate group
Examples of GAGs are
Chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparin
10 rxns in the cytosol…produces pyruvate and 2 ATP
Pentose monophosphate shunt
In cytosol…Generates reducing power
Products of the Pentose phosphate pathway
12 NADPH and ribose 5-monophosphate(for DNA,RNA etc)
OP pumps protons from
The matrix side > cytosolic side of the inner mito membrane
One molecule of glucose produces about
30 ATP when completely oxidized to CO2 and H2O
Cholesterol functions in
Membrane fluidity and as a precursor for steroid hormones
Beta oxidation is the process in which (occurs in mito)
Fatty acids are broken down into acetyl CoA groups
First intermediate in gluconeogenesis is
Oxalacetate – last intermediate of TCA cycle
Ketone bodies include
Aectoacetic acid, beta hydroxybutyrate and acetone
Fatty acid synthesis occurs in the cytosol as a
4 step process – 2 carbons added at a time
Molecule used in FA synthesis for chain lengthening
Malonate (3 carbons) – binds to –SH of acyl carrier protein
FA elongation takes place in the
Mitochondria or SER
Precursor to steroid hormones…
Cholesterol – side chains removed from D ring
Steroid hormones include
Mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, estrogens, progesterone
Adenine and guanine
Thymine (DNA only), cytosine and uracil (RNA only)
Adenine binds to
Thymine (2 H-bonds)
Guanine binds to
Cytocine (3 H-bonds)
Under physiological conditions DNA exists in the
B form
Termination codons
Initiation codon
AUG - methionine
GAG's are polysaccharides with
one negatively charged carboxylate or sulfate group
What are some examples of GAG's?
chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparin
What happens to pyruvate in the presence of oxygen?
it is converted to acetyl coA and enters the TCA cycle in mitochondria
what are the products of the pentose phophate pathway?
12NADPH and ribose 5-monophosphate
one molecule of glucose produces how much ATP aerobicly?
what are functions of cholesterol?(2)
1.membrane fluidity
2.precursor for steroid hormones
How are fatty acids broken down into acetyl CoA groups?
Beta oxidation in the mitochondria
What is the molecule used in FA synthesis for chain lengthening?
malonate binds to -SH of acyl carrier proteins
Where does FA elongation take place?
Mitochondria or the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
what is the precursor to steriods?
cholesterol (side chains removed from D-ring)
Steriods include... (5)
1.mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, estrogens, progesterone
The two purines...
adenine and guanine
the three pyridamines...
thymine, cytosine, uracil (RNA only)
adinine binds to_____ with ____bonds?
Thyamine, 2
Guanine binds to _____ with _____ bonds?
cytocine, 3
In physiological conditions what form does DNA exist in?
What are the 3 termination codons?
What is the initiation codon?
Initiation of transcription involves?
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
At what end does transcription occur?
5' end of RNA or the 3' end of DNA
which way is RNA synthesized?
5'-3' (nucleotides are added at the 3' end
how is the mRNA protected from hydrolytic enzymes?
5'cap of modified guanosine triphophate is added
How is the 3' end of mRNA modified?
poly-a tail with 200 adenine nucleotides
What is hnRNA?
rna in the nucleus that contains introns and exons
_____ are excised from hnRNA forming______.
introns, mRNA that enters the cytoplasm
5' end of tRNA is
DNA replication is (semi/fully) conservative and (bi/uni) directional?
semi, bi
What do DNA polymerazes do?
catalyze polymerization elongation in the 5'to 3' direction.
what does DNA ligase do?
joins two DNA polynucleotides with a phophodiester bond
What does primase do?
synthesizes the RNA primers for replication of the lagging strand
What unzips the replication fork?
ATP driven helicase
what keeps the DNA unwound and single stranded during replication?
Single stranded binding proteins
what does DNA polymerase III do?
continulously synthesizes the leading strand
What does DNA polymerase I do?
1. removes the RNA primer
2. fills the gaps between okazaki fragments
What holds complementary base pairs together in DNA?
Hydrogen bonds
What are nucleotides held together by in DNA?
covalent bonds
What is transcription and where does it take place?
DNA to RNA in the nucleus
What is translation and where does it take place?
RNA to protein in the cytoplasm
where are ribosomal subunits made?
in the nucleolus
What does the P site of the ribosome hold?
the growing polypeptide chain
what does the A site of the ribosome hold?
tRNA holding the next Amino Acid
where does synthesis of the polypeptide begin?
starts with the amino end (ends with the carboxyl end)
where does the first tRNA holding methionin attatch?
what does the binding of tRNA to the A site require?
GTP energy
what are group 1 hormones where are their receptors, long or short half lives? lipophilic or hydrophilic?
group one hormones have intracellular receptors they effect gene expression. they are lipophilic and have a long half life.
what are group 2 hormones?
( where are their receptors, lipophilic or hydrophilic, short or long half life)
group 2 hormones have membrane receptors and use intracellular messengers they are hydrophilic and have short half lives
what are the protein components of muscle?
actin and myosin
what is the place where the ends of actin meet that seperates the sarcomeres?
what is the A-band?
dark bands where myosin overlaps actin
does the H-zone have actin or myosin?
only myosin
does the I band have actin of myosin?
only actin
what are the regulatory proteins that are bound to actin? (2)
troponin and tropomysin
When the muscle is relaxed where is tropomyosin?
blocking myosin from binding to actin
What changes the complex allowing myosin and actin to combine and the muscle to contract?
Ca++ levels increase and Ca++ binds to tropomysin
what does smooth muscle contain that skeletal muscle does not?
What happens when Ca++ activates calmodulin?
phosphorylates myocin allowing it to bind to actin
what does Ca++ uptake stimulate in the neuromuscular junction?
the release of Ach
in the Neuromuscular junction when Ach is released what happens?
causes Na++ to leak causing depolorization and the opening of more Na and K channels.
in the neuromuscular junction when Na and K channels are opened what does this cause?
an action potential
in the neuromuscular junction when the action potential is stimulated where does it go?
both directions down the sarcolemma
what does the action potential from the NMJ do?
opens Ca++ channels on the sarcoplasmic reticulum releasing Ca++ into the sarcoplasm
what is released when myosin binds to actin?
Why does rigor mortis occur?
because ATP isn't available to unbinds myosin from actin
what do NK cells have receptors for?
the Fc portion of antibodies that have bound to antigen
What are LDL's used for?
to make triglycerides
what are the excitatory neurotramsmittors?
Ach and Catecholamines
What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters?
glycine and GABA
what is the chromophore of rods and cones?
what does light change 11-cis retinal too?
all-trans-retinal by photoisomerization
what does all-trans-retinal activate?
g-protein transcucin which activates the g-protein cascade
What is the outer segment of the photoreceptor highly permeable to in the dark?
what are the 3 essential fatty acids?
linoleic, linolenic and arachidonic ( all derived from plants)
what does thiamine deficiency cause?
Beriberi (neurological disorder that leads to heart failure)
what does ascorbic acid deficiency cause?
scurvy (rotting teeth gums and spontaneous hemorage)
what does riboflavin deficiency cause?
anemia with cracking of the corners of the mouth
what does folic acid deficiency cause?
anemia weight loss and weakness
what are symptoms of Vitamin A toxicity?
nystagmus, diplopia and ocular muscle palsies
where does the krebs cycle take place?
the inner portion of the mitochondria (matrix)
what is the resting membrane potential of a cell?
-65-85mV more Na+ outisde of the cell
what is Tidal volume?
the volume of air that moves in and out during normal breathing
what is the inspiratory reserve?
extra volume inspired above the tidal volume
what is the Expiratory reserve?
extra volume of air expired using active contraction
what is vital capacity?
sum of tidal volume, inspiratory reserve, and expiratory reserve
what is residual volume?
the amount of air that remains after maximum expiration
what is the primary unit of the lung?
how does oxygen move across alveoli walls into capillaries?
where is O2 concentration the greatest
the alveoli
where is Co2 concentration the greatest?
in the blood
What is the hering brever reflex?
occurs when the lungs expand so much that baroreceptors send inhibitory reflexes to the brain
what maintains the rhythmicity of respiration?
the pneumotaxic center in the upper pons
where is the pyloric sphinctor?
between the stomach and the duodenum
where does the majority of digestion occur?
the duodenum
what is segmentation verses peristalis in the digestive tract?
where does most of the absorption of the digestive tract occur?
the ileum and jejunum
what do chief cells secrete?
what do parietal cells secrete?(2)
1.HCL activates pepsinogen to pepsin
2. intrinsic factor that is necessary for B12 absorption
what do G-cells secrete and what does that secretion do?
g-cells secrete gastrin. gastrin inhibits HCL secretion from parietal cells.
What does somatastatin do?
inhibit secretions from chief, parietal and g-cells
what kind of Ph do pancreatic enzymes need to function?
what hormone causes the gallbladder to contract?
in the kidney where is Na+ activly transported out?
proximal convoluted tubule (Cl- passivly follows)
in the kidney where is 65% of water reabsorbed?
THe proximal convoluted Tubule
what happens to water and salt in the descending loop of henle?
they passivly leave
what happens to Cl and Na in the ascending loop of henle?
they are activly pumped out of the tubule
what two sections of the kidney are impermeable to water?
the distal convoluted tubuleand the ascending loop of henle
what controls the permeability of the collecting duct of the kidney?
Is the collecting tubule impermeable to salt?
where does ADH come from and what does it stimulate?
it comes from the posterior pituitary and it stimulates the reabsorption of water
what does aldosterone do?
increases blood volume and pressure
how is bicarbonate passed across the renal tubule wall?
converted to carbonic acid
what initiates the cardiac cycle?
impulse from the SA node
where does the AV node send the action potential?
from the atrium to the ventricle
begins with the first heart sound and ends with the second
systolic period
begins with the second heart sound and ends with the first
what is the pwave?
depolarization of the atrial muscle
what is the qrs complex?
depolarization of the ventricles
what is the formula for Mean arterial pressure?
1/3(pulse pressure)+ diastolic pressure
what controls resting vascular tone?
continuous sympathetic activity from vasomotor centers in the medulla
where does epinephrine bind?
Beta receptors in the heart, skeletal muscles, and liver
what does angiotension do?
it is a potent vasoconstrictor
what does ANF do?
potent vasodilator that also causes the secretion of NaCL and H20
what do baroreceptors in the wall of the aorta respond to
stretch when arterial pressure changes
what does increased baroreceptor activity result in?
decreased sympathetic activity, decreases heart rate contractibility and cardiac output
what are secreted by ductless glands directly into the vasculature?
what part of the pituitary secretes chemical hormones and is under hypothalimic control?
anterior pituitary
which part of the pituitary is under neuronal control?
the posterior pituitary
what two hormones does the posterior pituitary release?
oxytocin and ADH (vasopressin)
how many hormones does the anterior pituitary secrete?
6 ACTH, TSH, GH, LH,FSH, prolactin
what does ACTH promote?
growth of adrenal cortex and coricosteriod secretion
which hormone causes graffian follicles to mature in females and follicles to release estrogen. In males it stimulates the development of seminiferous tubules and maintains spermatogenesis
Which hormone stimulates complete maturation of the follicle and causes ovulationstimulates corpus luteum to release progesteron adn estrogen and in males causes the release of testosterone?
LH along with FSH
______stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce______(3)
ACTH: mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens
The adrenal medulla responds to the_____ and produces______(2)
sympathetic nervous system : norepinephrin and epinephrine
what does and increase in glucose cause to happen to insulin and glucagon?
isulin goes up
glucagon goes down
is insulin stimulation stimulated by sympathetic or parasympathetic?
what does TRH stimulate the release of?
tsh from the anterior pituitary
what causes the release of t3 and t4
stimulation from TSH
parathyroid hormone causes
serum ca++ levels to increase. Increased bone reabsorption, intestinal absorption, and renal absorption
where is vitamin D activated?
in the kidney
where does calcitonin come from?
the thyroid gland
what is the function of calcitonin?
lowers blood calcium and decreases bone absorption
what does somatastatin inhibit?
Gh release
In pregnancy high levels of estrogen and progesteron inhibit
gonadotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus= NO LH or FSH
what does oxytocin stimulate
release of milk from breasts
what does prolactin stimulate
synthis of milk and secretion of milk into alveoli
what do syphilis Tb and leprosy all have in common
granulomatous inflammation, poorly digested irritants and T-cell mediated immunity
what are granulomas?
collections of modified macrophages with a rim of lymphocytes surrounding
what do giant cells provide?
cell mediated immunity
Type 1 rxn is mediated by?
What are some examples of type 1 rxn
anaphylaxis, bronchospasm, utricaria, angioedema
Type 2 rxn involves?
antibiotic dependent cytotoxic
examples of type 2 rxn are...
hemolytic anemia, Rh incompatibility
Type 3 rxn are mediated by?
immune-complexes (arthus)
what is an example of a type 3 rxn?
serum sickness
What kind of reaction is a type 4 rxn?
delayed type hypersensitivity
what is an example of a type 4 rxn?
contact dermatitis
WHat is DiGeorge syndrome?
congenital t-cell deficiency
how is the alternative complement pathway activated?
bacterial endotoxins binds C#
how is the classical component of complement activated?
Ag-Ab complexes bind C1
what does Interferon Gamma DO?
increases the effectiveness of macrophages and Nk cells
Kleinfelters Male with female characteristics
turners female with no 2nd female characteristics
what is erysipelas?
acute inflammation of the skin caused by S. pyogenes occurs on cheeks
what is tinea cruris?
jock itch
what happens to RBC's in lead poisoning?
marked basophilic stipling
cells in CML carry what chromosome?
what cells characterize hodgkins disease?
Reed-sternburn Giant cells
what does the lung look like in emphysema?
there is an increase in the size of air spaces distal tot the terminal bronchial
what does TB look like upon xray?
ghon's tubercules can be found
where does mesothelioma arise and what can cause it
mesothelioma is associated with abestos, it can arise from the surface lining of the pleura
what is sarcoidosis characterized by?
noncaseating granulomas located primarily in the lung
what is zollinger-ellison syndrom?
a gastrin secreating tumor in the pancrease
what section of the gi tract does regional enteritis usually involve?
ilium, right quadrant pain
what commonly causes biliary disease in HIV patients?
what can pancreatic insufficiency lead to?
steatarrhea due to the lack of lipase
what is digitalis used to treat?
CHF it raises cardiac output
what do sulfonylureas do?
stimulate insulin to be released from beta cells
what are some clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia?
mostly neurologic and cataracts
in hypopituitism what hormones are lost first?
What is cushing's disease?
hypercorticism. increased glucocorticoids causes fat redistribution
What is addison's disease?
deficiency of steroid production by the adrenal cortex. causes pigmentation of the skin and low blood pressure
hwat is pheochromocytoma?
tumor of chromaffin cells in adrenal medulla. causes htn and a sense of impending doom
what is the most common cause of chronic renal failure?
diabets mellitus
what is the result of preeclampsia-eclampsia of pregnancy?
hemorage, seizure, renal failure, death
marasmus vs. kwashiorkor?
marasmus is a deficiency of both energy and protein. kwasiorkor is the deficiency of protein specifiicly
pellagra symptoms include_____
What causes it?
the 3 D's
dermatitis, diarea, dementia
Pellagra is caused by malapsorption syndrom, low protein diets, alcholism (deficiency of Niacin)
what is the inheritance of taysach's disease? what is involved?
Tay sach's is auto recessive.

ganglion cell destruction, glial prlif, myelin degeneration. (cherry red on macula)
what 3 things can thiamin deficiency cause?
beriberi, heart disease, wernick-korsakoff syndrom
what do anticonvulsant medication reduce serum levels of?
why is vit K necessary?
formation of prothrombin in the liver, clotting factors 7,9,10.
what is the most common type of cerebral palsy what are some effects of this disease?
spastic, causes scissors gait and toe walking
what is visual acuity?
a measure of sensitivity to spatial discrimination
what is the critical period for normal visual development?
before 6-8 mos of age
what does the loss of sensitivity at low sensitivity indicate?
the working of lateral inhibition
when is VA in a child the same as an adult according to VEP?
6-8 months
what is the limitation to early acuity?
the ability of the nervous system to process the image
how does the high frequency cut off change between the ages of 2mos to 10 mos?
2c/degree to 20 cycles/degree
whenis the lowest sensitivity to low spatial frequency seen?
between the ages of 8-15
what is the average refractive error in a full ter m infant?
average refractive error of a one year old?
when do infants develope and adult sensitvity curve to different wavelengths of light?
5 months
what does brunescence of the lens absorb?
short wavelengths of light
when is accomadation well developed?
4 months
when is lid closure as a response to bright light seen?
30 wks gestation
when is the blink response to to visual threat seen?
between 2-5mos of age
when are saccades fully developed in a infant?
4-5mos of age
at what age do infants use smooth pursuits?
2 months of age
when is the vestibular sense fully developed?
4-5 months
what do the deprivation experiments effect?
the layers of the LGN not the retina
does pattern deprivation cause more of a problem with binocularity of light deprivation?
what happens to contrast sensitivity as we age?
it decreases
what are two eye diseases that cause a decrease in the blue end of the spectrum?
macular degeneration and nuclear sclerosis
why does the CFF decrease 7cycles per second by age 40?
senile miosis
where are the musles of the iris derived?
the neural ectoderm
what does the pars plana do?
restores MPS important to vitreous
what does the pars plicanta do?
makes aqueous by active transport
what are the 4 layers of the iris?
1.anterior border
3.anterior epithelium
4.posterior epithelium
what is the dilator muscle of the iris made of?
radial extensions of the the non-pigmented anterior epithelium
what arises from the anterior choroid and travels to the scleral spur?
longitudinal fibers of the ciliary muscle
what are the 3 synapses of the light reflex in order?
pretectal, EW, ciliary ganglion... then to iris sphinctor OU via short ciliary nerves
what is the pathway for the dilation of eyes in response to a lack of light?
lack of light signals the LGN, then goes to synapse in the cortex, and hypothalamus reticular formation then to the superior cervical ganglior through long ciliary nerves to the dilator.
corneal pain causes the pupil to constrict or dilate?
what about prolonged corneal pain?
what about systemic pain?
what does pursuit do?
maintains the object of interest of the fovea
what is the function of saccades?
place the object of interest on the fovea rapidly
how many motor endplates does a fast muscle fiber have? what does an impulse result in?
One, twitch
how many nerve endings does a slow muscle fiber have? how does it respond to stimulus?
multiple, graded response in the absence of action potentials
what is the thickest EOM?
whatest the thinnest EOM?
what is hering's law?
two yoked muscles are equally innervated
what is sherrington's law of reciprocal innervation?
when agonists are stimulated antagonists are inhibited
what does the VOR function to do?
allows the eyes to fixate on object despite head movement
what is the stimulus of the VOR?
movement of the semicircular canals
which is faster the pursuit system or the VOR system?
what are smooth pursuits?
slow steady involuntary movement that is mediated by graded response
what is the latency of VOR?
what is the latency of saccades?
caloric testing for internuclear opthalmoplegia?
COWS cold opposite warm same
what is the main clinical use of the OKN drum?
diagnosis of parietal lobe disease.
what passes through the optic foramen?
optic nerve and opthalmic artery
what passes through the SOF inside the tendinus annulus? (aka the ocular motor foramen)
CNIII-(sup and Inf)
CNV1 (nasociliary)
Inferior opthalmic vein
(NOA can go through)
Nasociliary, Ocularmotor, Abducens
what passes through the SOF outisde of the tendinous annulus? (above)
recurrent lacrimal artery
lacrimal nerve (V1)
frontal (V1)
Trochlear (IV)
superior opthalmic vein
what goes through the foramen rotundum?
maxillary nerve (V2)
what goes through the forament ovale?
Mandibular nerve (V3)

(also accessery meningeal artery and lesser petrosal nerve)
what goes throught the foramen spinsum?
middle meningeal artery and nerve.

also meningeal branch of V3
what goes through the foramen lacerem?
Internal carotid artery and internal carotid nerve plexus
what two nerves go through the internal acoustic meatus?
what 3 nerves go through the jugular foramen?
CN 9,10,11
what two sinuses drain in the jugular foramen?
Inferior petrosel sinus and sigmoid sinus
what artery flow through the jugular foramen?
posterior meningeal artery
what nerve flows through the hypoglossal canal?
what five things are in the foramen magnum?
1. medulla oblongota
2. meninges
3.vertebral artery
4.meningeal branch of the vertebrals
5.spinal roots of accessory nerve
what is the only synovial joint of the skull?
what are the 3 branches of the external carotid artery?
3.superficial temporal
what are the 3 branches off of the superficial temporal artery?
1.transverse facial
2.orbital artery
3.frontal artery
what are the 4 branches of the internal carotids?
1.opthalmic artery
2.posterior communicating art.
3.anterior cerebral art.
4.middle cerebral art.
what 3 sets of arteries does the circle of willis consist of?
1.internal carotids arteries
2.cerebrals arteries
3.comminicating arteries
where do the R and left brachiocephelic veins drain?
superior vena cava
how are the brachiocephelic veins formed?
union of internal jugular and subclavian veins
what does the external jugular drain?
the face
what does the internal jugular drain?
the orbit and the head
how many spinal nerves?
what are the types of Spinal nerves and how many of each type?
8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
is the dorsal root sensory or motor?
is the ventral root of the spinal cord sensory or motor?
what does the dorsal column and medial lemniscus pathway do?
concious proprioception, tactile discrimination, vibration, form recognition,
which extremities does the fasciculus gracilus control?
what extremities does the fasciculus cuneatus control
what happens if there is damage above the decussation? Below decussation?
Contralateral loss, ipsilateral loss
what does the lateral spinothalamic tract control?
Pain and temperature
what does the lateral corticospinal tract control?
voluntary skilled motor activity from the upper limbs
babinski sign?
lateral corticospinal tract not developed fully until second year of life
what is the ampulla of vator?
where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct come together?
what are the 3 areas of the adrenal ccortex? what do they secrete?
1. zona glomerulosa-aldosterone
2.zona fasciculate-corisol
3.zona reticularis-test,progest,est
what does the sphinctor of oddi control?
entry of bile and pancreatic juic into the duodenum
when and how is the neural plate formed?
it is formed at 3 weeks by the thickening of ectoderm
what does the neural tube produce?
CNS (brain and spinal chord)
what are the derivatives of the neural crest?(4)
3.adrenal medulla
what are the cells of the adrenal medulla called? what do they secrete?(2)
chromaffin cells; NE, epi
what does the mantle layer of the nearal tube become?
gray matter of the spinal chord
how is the mantle layer divide and what is each division responsible for?
what does the marginal layer of the neural ectoderm become?
white matter of the spinal chord
where does anterograde degeneration occur?
nerve fiber distal to trauma (wallerian)
where does retragrade degeneration occur?
nerve proximal to trauma and the cell body
major contributing ion to the resting potential?
what is the threshold potential?
when Na+ influx exceeds K+ efflux
what are inhibitory synaptic currents carried by?
K+ and Cl-
what are excitatory synaptic currents carried by?
Na, Ca, K
what are the 2 descending tracts?
pyramidial and extrapyramidial
what are the 2 pyramidial tracts?
lateral and anterior coricospinal
what are the 4 extrapyramidial tracts?
rubrospinal, reticulospinal, vestibulospinal, tectospinal
what do Rami Communications connect?
ventral root with the sympathetic trunk
what are the nuclei of the parasympathetic NS?
what are the nuclei of the sympathetic NS?
what are epiniphrine and norepinephrine synthesized from?
where are alpha 1 receptors located?
vascular smooth muscle and hepatocytes (vasoconstriction)
where are alpha 2 receptors located?
platelets and white adipocytes ( inhibit NE release)
where are beta 1 receptors located?
where are beta 2 receptors located?
lungs, vascular smooth muscl and hepatocytes (vasocilation)
what are the inhibitory neurotransmittors and where are they located?
GABA (widespread)
glycine (spinal cord, brain stem and retina)
what part of the brain is the medulla part of? what does it control?
myencephelen, for heart beart respiration and blood pressure
where is the motor decussation and what precentage of fibers cross?
the motor decussation is superior to the junction of the medulla with the spinal chord. 80% of pyramidal fibers cross there
where does the medial leminiscus terminate?
in the VPL
what kind of information do cuneocerebellar fibers carry?
information from the upper exremity and the neck. (like the spinoserebeller for lower extremeties)
where do cuneocerebeller fibers arise from?
the accessory cuneate nucleus (uncrossed fibers ener the cerebellum)
what is the raphe nucleus part of? what does it synthesize?
the raphe nucleus is part of the reticular formation. it synthesizees seratonin
which cranial nerves originate in the medulla?
what does damage to the cochlear nerves cause?
where are receptors for CN8
the receptorss are the cristta in the ampulla of the semicircular canals (crista of utricle and saccule)
what does injury to the vestibular branch of CN8 cause?
vertigo ataxia and nystagmus
what kind of nystagmus does a right head turn cause? which way is fast and which way is slow?
right nystagmus (rt fast, lf slow)
which cranial nerves originate from the pons?
what is the tectum in the midbrain made up of?
inferior and superior colliculi and the roof of the cerebral aqueduct
what does the inferior colliculus do?
it is the reflex center for auditory system
what is the only nerve that exits the dorsal brain stem?
CN4. it totally crosses
the midbrain at the level of the pretectum contains
the direct and consensual pupillary light reflex centers
what does the hypothalamus do? where is it located?
the hypothalamus regulates body temp, fat, water, cho metabolism, sleep, sex, and emotions. IT is located in the floor of the 3rd ventricle
what does the epithalamus do and where is it located?
vascular structure, choroid plexus forms CSF. it is the roof of the 3rd ventricle
what is the internal gray matter of the cerebrum called?
basal ganglia
what does the subthalamus do?
relays information to the cortex concerning vision audition and equilibrium
brodman area 4
frontal lobe pre-central gyrus motor
brodmann area 1-3
parietal lobe post central gyrus general sensation
brodmann area 17
occipital lobe visual area
what kind of cells are found in the cerebellar cortex?
purkinjie cells
name the nuclei of the cerebellum
inferior cerebeller peduncle to and from?
to medulla oblongata and spinal chord
the middle cerebeller peduncle carries information to and from?
the cerebellum and the pons
the superior cerebellar peduncle carries impulses to and from?
the dentate nucleus to the midbrain
what does the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum control?
maintenence fo equilibrium
where does the internal carotid artery enter the skull?
the carotid canal of the petrous portion of the temporal bone
what are the 2 branches of the internal carotid artery?
posterior communicating artery and opthalmic artery
what happens at the end of the ICA?
it divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries in the circle of willis
what are the vertebral arteries the first branches off of?
the subclavian arteries
how do the vertebral arteries reach the skull?
they travel through the transverse foramen of the upper 6 cervical vertebra they enter the skull through the foramen magnum
wheat do the two vertebral arteries form when they join?
the basilar artery at the posterior rim of the pons
what do the dorsal and intermediate acoustic striae ascend in?
the lateral leminiscus they synapse in contalateral inferior colliculus
what does the limbic system control? what is it made up of (3)
emotion, autonomic activity, motivation, it includes the hypothalamus, hippocampus, and amygdala
where do the olfactory axons pass?
crivriform plate of the ethmoid bone
where is the area for smell association located?
frontal lobe
where is the area for smell appreciation?
temporal lobe
what cranial nerve controls the taste buds of the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
CN9 glossopharyngeal
what cranial nerve controls the tastebud on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
cn7 facial
the inverse myotonic reflex involves?
golgi tendon organ
the flexor withdrawal reflex involves?
cutaneous receptors
what do pacinian corpuscules respond to?
touch, tactile sensation. they have free nerve endings encapsulated in connective tissue
what does the basilar membrane of the ear resond to?
different frequencies of sound changing form
what are the microvilli of the basilar membrane called?
hair cells
when the hair cells move towards the kinocilium what happens?
depolarization /activation
when the hair cells move away from the kinocilium what happens?
inhibition/ hyperpolerization
what do muscle spindles sense?
the length of the muscle and the velocity of its contraction
what do crossed corticospinal fibers innervate?
lateral corticospinal tract --distal muscles
what do uncrossed corticospinal fibers innervate?
the ventral corticospinal tract--axial muscles
what is basal ganglia involved in the control of?
mvment that requires constant monitoring with sensory feedback
where do caudate and putamen receive input from?
the basal ganglia
what does the globus pallidus regulate?
muscle tone for specific intentional body movements
what does vestibulospinal tract do?
reflex control of equilibrium
what does the tectospinal tract do?
coordinates head and body movements in respose to visual auditory and cutaneous stimuli
what does reticulospinal tract do?
maintains posture and controls sweat gland activity
what does the rubrospinal tract do?
control distal flexor muscles
all preganglionic neurons are...
parasympathetic postganglionic neurons are...
sympathetic postganglionic neurons are
mostly adrenergic
what is emrocrine secretion?
release by exocytosis
what is apocrine secretion?
loss of apical cytoplasm (sweat glands and mammary)
what is holocrine secretion?
destruction of the gland (sebaceous, testes and ovaries)
which muscle fibers are larger faster anaerobic, with poor blood supply
white muscle fibers
which muscle fibers are smaller, slower, aerobic rich in blood supply
red muscle fibers
how are cardiac muscles different from skeletal muscles?
branched and smaller
how many axons can a schwan cell myelinate?
only one
can oligodendrytes myelinate more than one axon?
yes, many
what do pacinian corpuscles detect?
deep tissue vibration and deep pressure
what do messner's corpuscles detect
localization of touch and texture in connective tissue of palms and soles and tips of fingers and toes
what do merkel's discs determine?
continuous touch
what are ruffini corpuscles a receptor for?
continuous touch and stretch of the skin
what layers in veins is very small?
intima and media.
where does lymph drain on the right and left side of the body respectivly?
right-lympatic duct (upper right section

left-thoracic duct (drains most of the body)
what is blood fromthe hepatic portal vein rich in?
amino acids, sugars and other digestive products
what organ has a dual blood supply?
what are the sebaceous glands of the eyelid?
meibomian glands
what are the sweat gladns of the eyelid?
glands of moll
what do papillary muscles of the heart stabilize?
the mitral and tricuspid valves
does the colon have villi?
what does the proximal tubule recover?
85% of water and NaCl. and 100% of glucose and amino acids
what dontrols the distal tubule?
aldosterone (absorbs more NaCl as the body needs it)
what are the loop of henle and the collecting tubule in charge of?
concentration of urine regulated by ADH
renal arteries branch into ____ and then______.
what does the endoderm give rise to?
liver, pancreas, gastric and intestinal glands
what is smooth muscle and the three layers of the heart wall derived from?
pharmacodynamics is...
what drug does to body
pharmacokinetics is...
what body does to drug
what is phase 1 of biotransformation?
drug converts to a more polar metabolite
what is phase 2 of biotransformation
endogenous molecule combines with phase 1 molecule
what are dinoprost, dinoprstone, carboprost?
prostaglandins used for abortion
why is misoprostol used?
to treat patients with gastric ulcers with patients chronically taking NSAIDS.
what are captopril enalapril and lisinopril?
ACE inhibitors that help decrease angiotensin levels
saralasin is a drug that...
blocks angiotension receptors
what are kinin drugs? (bradykinin and kallidin)
most potent vasodilators they act on arteriole beds
serotonin acts on most arteries and veins causing?
what does it do in skeletal muscles?
seratonin constricts most vessesl however it dilates skeletal muscles
how does tryptophan affect seratonin synthesis?
it increases the rate of synthesis. (indolamine)
how do tricyclic anti-depressants (imipramine) work?
inhibit the receptor mediated uptake of serotnin by neurons
what do MAO inhibitors inhibit?
the degredation of serotonin
how do reserpine and tetrabenazine affect seratonin levels?
deplete neuronal stores of seratonin---cause depression
ergot alkaloids (ergotamine, methysergide, and bomocriptine) are used to treat?
migraines and postpardum hemoraging
name 6 types of asthma treatments
-adrenergic agonists
-b2selective adrenergic agonists
-cromolyn sodium
-anticholinergic agents
what are some adrenergic agonists that are used in the treatment of asthma?
epinephrin, ephedrine, isoproterenol (bronchodilators)
what are some b2 selective adrenergic agonists used for asthma?
metaproterenol,terbutaline, albuterol (bronchodilation)
what are possible sideeffects of the asthma drugs theyphylline?
overdose and cause seizures and arrhythmia
how do cromolyn salts work in the treatment of asthma?
stabilize mast cell membrane (block Ca++ gates)
what are some corticosteroids used for asthma?
beclomethasone, flunisolide, traiminolone, methylpred
what are some non-systemic antacids for gI upet?
calcium carbonate, aluminum, and magnesium hydroxide
sucralfate acts to?
bind to necrotic ulcer tissue (barrier to HCL and pepsin)
how does colloidal bismuth coat and bind?
colloidal bismuch binds to both gastric and duodenal ulcer tissue (protects from HCL and pepsin)
what is salicylic acid used as?
a skin fungicide
.005 iodide is cidal too?
bacteria and spores
what is nafcillin?
a narrow spectrum penicillin. It is NOT susceptable to beta lactamase
what are cephalosporins active against?
gram- bacteria, e.coli, klebsiella
what is bacitracins only use?
topical ointment for gram + bacteria (BC it is very nephrotoxic)
what is cycloserine used for?
what dose Isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of
mycolic acid in mycobacteria cell walls (TB)
what are polymixins used for?
gram- infx. lyse cell walls, neuro and nephrotoxic
how do macrolids work?
inhibit protein synthesis (50s subunit) target gram + organisms
how do aminoglycosides work?
30s subunit. used for serious gram- infections
name some aminoglycosides (5)
gentamycin, tobramycin,amkacin, stretomycin,neomycin
what do tetracyclines block?
tRNA sat the 30s subunit
where does chlorenphenical bind? what can it cause?
to the 50s subunit. chlorenphenical can cause aplastic anemia (gray syndrome)
what do sulfonamides inhibit?
Nucleic acid synthesis
what is rifambin used to treat?
mycobacterium leprae (binds RNA polymerase)
how does actinomycin act?
binds DNA to block RNA synthessi
what can you use for an eye fungal infection
natamycin (low toxicity)
how do polyene drugs work?
they bind to ergosterol in fungal membranes
how do imidazole drugs (ketoconazole) work?
inhibit the synthesis of ergosterol (less toxic)
What is griseofulvin used to treat?
dermatophytic infections (bonds tubulin)
what is flucytosine is a nucleic acid analog that alters______
function of fungal RNA used only for crypto and candida
what are sulfones and sulfonamides are used to treat
malaria, toxoplasmosis, and coccidiosis
how can you treat an infection with a nematode?
piperazine (GABA agonist)
what is used to inhibit absorption and penetration of a virus? (2)
amantidine (prevents release)
gamma globunlins (prevent entry)
what are three drugs that affect DNA polymerases?
vidaribine, acyclovir, cytarabine
what can you use for amantidine to treat?
influenza A and rubella
what is vidarabine used for?
treatment of HSV and VZV
how does acyclovir work?
inhibits viral DNA plymerase
what are interferons used to treat?
HBV, Zoster suppression
what is methisazone used t treat?
small pox
what is tamoxifen used for?
estrogen inhibitor to prevent metastatic breast cancer
how do NSAIDS work?
block the COX pathway
What can be used to control rheumatoid inflammation?
hydroxychloroquine and gold salts
which three receptors to opiates effect?
Mu-analgesia and physcial dependence
Kappa-spinal analgesia
sigma-hallucinations and cardiac stimulation
what is an antagonists to opiates?
what does acetaminophen not have that salicylic acid does?
acetaminophen does not have anti-inflammatory effects
why are sedative hypnotics used?
anxiety convusions and sleep disorders
what are the safest of the sedative hypnotics?
benzodiazepines because tehy have a shallow dose response curve
benzodiazipens name 3
1. diazepam
what kind of dose response curve do barbituates have?
clonidine is a hypertensive drug that is used to treat
panic attacks
how do anti-psychotics work?
block dopamine receptors (parkinsonian side effects)
how does levodopa work to help parkinson patients?
penetrates the BBB and is converted to dopamine
how do MAO inhibitors work?
they retard the breakdown on dopa and prolong the effects of levadopa
what do COMT inhibitors do?
inhibits COMT that competes with levadopa
what antiviral can be used with parkinson patients?
Name some Tricyclic antidepressents. How do they work and for how long?
Imipramine, amitriptylin, doxepin
block reuptake of norepi
beneficial for 3 weeks
What do MAO inhibitors do?
they inhibit the destruction of Norepinephrin in the presynaptic terminal
what is dilantin used to treat?
partial and grand mal seizures
what is phenobarbital used to treat?
partial and grand mal seizures
what are benzodiazepines useful to treat besides anxiety?
prolonged generalized seizures
what is the order of loss for anesthesia?
pain, temperature, touch, muscle tone
what do all general anesthetics do?
increase teh firing threshold of cns neurons
name a short acting barbituate? what is the use?
thiopental induces anesthesia before inhalents
what is ketamine used for?
to produce dissosciative anesthesia
what are the ester local anesthetics
cocaine, proparacaine, tetracaine, benoxinate (metabolized by hydrolysis)
what are the amide local anesthetics
lidocaine and bupivacain (metabolized in the liver)
what do thioureylenes (propylthiouracil) do?
inhibit the formation of thyroid hormones
what do sulfonylureas do?
stimulate the relaese of insulin from b cells and increase the sensitivity of the tissues to insulin
what does ciglitazone do?
increases the number of insulin receptors
what do glucosidase inhibitors do?
reduce GI absorption of carbohydrates
where is progesterone mainly secreted?
corpus luteum at the end of the cycle
what maintains the endometrium during pregnancy
where do thiazide diuretics work?
on the distal convulated tubule. not for diabetics may cause gout
what are 3 examples of thiazide diuretics?
bendorofluazide, hydrochlorothiazide,metolazone
name 2 loop diuretics
furesmide, bumetanide
what can you use in apatient with impaired renal function?
loop diuretics if given in high doses can be lead to deafness
Name 3 potassium sparing diuretics
1.spironolactone (antags ald)
2.amiloride and
2 and 3 block na channels
How do CAI inhibitors work in the kidney?
depress bicaronate reabsorption in the proximal tubule
what does clonidine do?
dstimulates a2 receptors to lower BP. used with a diuretic
what does methyldopa do? waht are some side effects?
lowers BP. SE-drowsiness, depression, nightmares
what does resperine do?
decreases catecholamines and serotonin in nerves, causes parasympathetic side effects
what does prazosin do?
blocks post synaptic a2 receptors on blood vessels. prevents periphreal vasoconstriction
phentolamine and phenoxybenzamine block what? what are they NOT for use in?
block a1 and a2 receptors not for use in htn!
what does guanethidine block? does it cross the BBB?
it blocks catecholamine release. It does not cross the BBB
what is a vasodilator used in hypertensive crisis?
what is captopril?
ACE inhibitor (inhibits ang1 to ang2)
what are cardiac glycosides are used to treat
congestive heart failure
what are 3 cardiac glycosides
digitalis, digitoxin, quabain
what are Na+ channel blockers used for?
increase the ERP of depolarized cells. they are used for arrhythmias
name 4 sodium channel blockers?
quinidine , procainamide, lidocaine, phenytoin
how do potassium channel blockers work to control arrhythmia?
they prolong cardiac action potentials
name three types of anti-angina drugs
calicium channel blockers
beta blockers
how do anti-angina drugs work?
vasodilation lowers BP and preload and afterload, decreases O2 demand
what is urokinase?
figbrinolytic drugs dissolves fibrin clot used to prevent pulmonary emboli
what does TPA do?
activates fibrin bound plasminogen to plasmin
how do antithrombotic drugs work?
they inhiibt the action of cyclooxygenase, decrease thromboxane reduce platelet aggregation (aspirin,ibuprophen, dextrin)
how does lovastatin work?
inhibits HMG CoA reductase (early step in cholesterol synthesis decreases trig. and increases HDL
what drugs decrease bicarbonate and NaCl reabsorption in the proximal tubule. they can cause metabolic acidosis
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide)
what drugs aare filtered by glomerulus not reabsorbed to to size so water is excreted with them
osmotic diuretics (mannitol isorbide)
what drugs inhibit Cl reabsorption in the distal tubule they are long acting , decrease blood volume and arterial dilation. for CHF and Diabetes Insipedes
Thiazide diuretics (chlorothiazide, hydrocholothiazide)
what drugs are weak diuretics that effect the collection tubule where aldosterone functions--potassium sparing
aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone, triamterene)
what is probenecid used to treat?
hyperuricemia associated with gout
what is anturane used to treat?
chronic gout and acute intermediate gout ( increases urinary excretion of uric acid)
what is pantothenoic acid a part of? what does a deficiency cause?
coenzyne A, restlessness irritability and burning feet
where is the supravaginal space of schwlbe?
around the ON between limiting membrane and dura
what are the terminal branches of the opthalmic artery?
frontal (supratrochlear a.
dorsal nasal a.
what are the 3 branches of the external carotid?
1. facial
2. superficial temporal
3. internal maxillary
what does the opthalmic artery branch of of it? which branch is it?
7th branch of the internal carotid artery
what is the first branch of the opthalmic artery?
the central retinal artery
what is the second branch of the opthalmic artery?
the lacrimal artery
what are the four branches of the lacrimal artery?
1.recurrent meningeal
2.muscular artery
3.zygotmatic artery
4.superior and ingerior lateral palpebral arteries
what does the muscular artery supply?
SR, SO, and levator
what does the inferior muscular artery supply?
IR, IO, and MR
what artery do the posterior ciliary arteries branch off? what do they supply?
the opthalmic arery and they form the circle of zinn haller around the optic nerve
what does the suprorbital artery branch off of? what does it supply?
supraorbital artery is a branch of the opthalmic artery and it serves orbit roof, frontal sinus, eyebrwos SR, levator and scalp
what does the dorsal nasal artery anastomeose with?
the angular branch of the facial artery
what does the central retinal vein drain?
what do the vortex veins drain?
a quadrant of the posterior eye to the SOV
what does the anterior ciliary vein drain?
front part of the eyeball
what is the cavernous sinus formed from?
SOV adn inf and sup. petrosal sinuses
wher are there no lmph nodes or lymph vessels?
the orbit
what is the only cranial nerve with an origin on the dorsal surface of the brain stem
trochlear CN4
what happens to the eye if the S.O. is injured?
up and in extorting. head tilt away from lesion
where are preganglionic sympathetic cell bodies located?
lateral horn of gray leave spinal chord through the ventral horn
what two things does the internal carotid nerve give rise too?
sympathetic carotid plexus
sympathetic carvernous plexus
does the tarsal plate have cartlidge?
where are meibomian glands located
in the tarsal plates
what is the lymphatic drainage of the medial aspect of the eye?
submaxillary or submandibular
what is the lymphatic drainage of the lateral portion of the eye
preauricular or parotid nodes
where are glands of wolfring and krausee located
in the conjunctiva they secrete serous and aqueous fluid
what are the 5 layers of the cornea?
epithelium, bowmans, stroma, descements, endothelium
what are the 3 cell types of the corneal epithelium
surface, wing, basal
where is tenon's capsule located?
between conjunctival stroma and underlying episcleral tissue
where do the long and short posterior ciliary nerves travel?
suprachoroidal space
what are the 3 layers of the sclera?
episclera, scleral stroma, lamina fusca (pigment)
what are the 2 sections of the trabecular meshwork
corneoscleral mesh, uveal mess
what is the circular venous channel that lies in the outer portion of the internal scleral sulcus?
schlemm's canal
where is the iris the thickest?
the collerate
what is the only pigment found in the iris?
what are the 2 blood supplies to the iris?
major and minor arterial circle
what are the 4 layers of the iris?
anterior border
anterior epi
posterior epi
the examiner manipulates the stimulus either ascending or descending in...
the method of limits
the subject manipulates the stimulus to match the standard in...
the method of adjustment
the subject responds to independent measure, this is the most accurate
method of constant stimuli
why are scaling methods used?
to determine the intensity of the sensation experienced by the subject
the subject assigns appropriate numbers to a series of stimuli according to the subjective impressions in what?
direct scaling
what is indirect scaling broken down into?
comparative judgement and categorical judgment
what are the 4 basic measurement scales?
sensitivity is...
probability of correctly identifying a positive
specificity is...
probably of correctly identifying a negative
what are three variables used to describe color?
what is hue correlated with?
wavelength of the light
at what two wavelengths is he best detected?
490 and 590
what does saturation measure?
the degree to which the stimulus is mixed with white
what is the abney effect?
a change in hue associated with a change in purity (saturation)
what is the benzold brucke effect?
a change in hue associated with a change in luminance
(stim below 500nm looks more blue with increased intensity; a stim above 500 nm looks more yellow with increased intensity)
what is the purdy effect?
change in saturation with a change in luminance
where is the best color discrimination for normals?
480nm and 580nm
where is the best color discrimination for dicromats?
the neutral point
(protonapes-490; deuteranopes-495; tritanopes-570)
what are the additive primary colors?
red, green, and blue
what colors do complementary colors produce when mixed?
white or gray
what are additive color mixtures?
a superimposition of 2 or more lights to produce a color
what are metameric colors?
match in appearence but are composed of different wavelength mixtures
what does simultaneous color contrast refer to?
change in the appearance of an object with a change in the surround color
what is successive color contrast?
negative afterimage being the color of the complementary color
what causes color contingent after effects?
fatigue/ adaption of the system
what is the McCollough effect?
an adaption to orientation and to color
what is color constancy?
relative colors remain constant with changes in luminance
what are the tristimulus values?
boundaries of the visible spectrum (380-760)
how many major hues and total hues are there in the munsell system?
10; 100
what does the munsell value refer to?
lightness and is along the vertical axis
what does the munsell chroma refer to?
whiteness and is represented by a horizontal line from the center of the circle (0-max)
how is munsell notation give?
what are MacAdams ellipses?
perceptual areas in the CIE diagram whrer all colors will appear the same
what wave length are cones most sensitive?
555nm (green yellow)
what wavelength are rods most sensitive?
how many primary colors are required for a anomalous trichromat to create a match?
what is the most common of all color deficiencies?
what do deuteranomaly's require more of to make a match?
more green, M-cones are mutated
what do protanomaly's require more of to make a match
red; l-cones are defective
what do tritanomaly's requre more of to make a match?
more blue; s-cones are defective
What is the rayleigh equation?
the ratio of red to green needed to match yellow in an anomaloscope
how many primary colors are required for a dichromat to make a match?
what are protanopes missing? which wavelengths do they have trouble with? what colors do the confuse?
erythrolabe. cannot descriminate at long wavelengths. confuse red
what are deuteranopes missing? what colors do they confuse? how is there photopic spectral sensitivit?
missing chlorolabe, confuse green with white, almost normal photopic spectral sensitivity
what are tritanopes missing what colors do they confuse how is there photopic spectral sensitivity?
missing cyanolobe, confuse yellow with white normal photopic spectral sensitivity
what requires equal luminance to match yellow with pure red or green?
aquired blue yellow defect indicates?
disease of the retina and ocular media
what does aquired red green defect indicate?
disease of On and visual pathway
how can brightness be predicted?
the activity of non-opponent cells
how can he be predicted?
the activity of opponent cells
how can saturation be predicted?
the ratio of opponent to non opponent cells
what is the local sign associated with the fovea?
primary visual direction
what are secondary visual directions?
all other retinal elements are relative to the primary
in egocentric localization direction is in reference to what?
the cyclopean eye(binocular)
what is binocular disparity around a horoptor?
when does the geometric effect occur?
horizontal meridian (x90) floor slants down and toward magnified eye. facing wall is skewed away from the eye
when does induced effect occur?
when the magnification is in the vertical meridian (x180) floor slants up and away from the magnified eye facing wall is skewed toward the eye
what controls visually guided behavior?
the superior colliculus
minimum visual acuity is determined by rods or cones?
what is the response to separation between elements of a pattern?
what is naming of teh test object or a critical aspect of it
what is the formula for contrast?
(target luminence-background)/background luminence
what is the formula for contrast?
what happens in an ames room?
perceived distance is constant but retinal image size varies
what is mueller lyer illusion?
linesof same length appearing unequal due to arrow heads
what is weber's law?
the higher the background the higher the change in stimulus necessary for the detection of an absolute difference
what does the devries law predict?
the ideal threshold of a stimulus upon a background
what does ricco's law deal with?
spatial summation (better in scotopic system)
what does block's law deal with?
temporal summation (better in photopic system)
what is the critical duration for temporal summation for rods and cones.
100ms for rods, 10-15ms for cones
what does Korte's law summerize?
the optimum stimulus for apparent motion
what is alpha motion?
apparent motion where there is apparent expansion and centrationt the 2nd target is clearer
what is gamma motion?
the type of apparent motion where the second target is brighter
when does sigma motion occur?
when the target is constantly on the fovea
what is stroboscopic movement (phi phenomena)?
the presentation of stationary stimuli gives rise to apparent motion
what is the bruck bartley effect?
flickering light looking brighter than steady light
what is the granit harper law?
the size of a CFF stimulus increases as the CFF becomes higher
what does the ferry porter law state?
CFF is directly proportional to the log of the stimulus intensity
what does backward masking do?
mask stimulus is presented directly after the test stimulus
what does forward masking do?
mask precedes the stimulus