Nbde2 Genaral Notes From Asda Exams

Front 1

what is the anti biotic that cannot be given orally

Back 1

Methicillin

Front 2

what is the anti biotic that is effective against Pseudo monas aeruginosa

Back 2

Carbanicillin or Ciprofloxacin/ Ticarcyllin

Front 3

what kind of class of bacteria is clindamycin most effective against

Back 3

most anaerobic

Front 4

what are the anti cholinesterases irreversible inhibitors

Back 4

the Phosphates: isofluorophate/ di isopropyl fluorophate

Front 5

whta is the difference between atropine and the quaternary ammonium derivative of atropine( methyl atropine nitrate)

Back 5

Atropine is more potent in oral administration

Front 6

in cholinergic drugs, the quaternary ammonium groupu confers what function

Back 6

Direct nicotinic stimulation

Front 7

name some directly acting cholinomimetics

Back 7

Carbachol behanechol, Methacholine

Front 8

Methyl paraben as a conservative shows cross sensitivity with what anesthetic

Back 8

Paba esters

Front 9

what is the penicillin that is excreted primarily by tubular secretion

Back 9

Benzyl penicillin

Front 10

What is the function of Nalidix acid

Back 10

a urinary tract antiseptic

Front 11

What is the drug that might cause renal lithiasis because it is not very soluble

Back 11

Bactrim

Front 12

What anti biotic we can give to a penicillinase producing staphylococcus

Back 12

Oxacillin

Front 13

Name a third generation cephalosporing

Back 13

Moxalactam

Front 14

what kind of tetracycline is most slowly secreted by kidney

Back 14

Doxycycline; that's why it has a long half life, and can be given once per day not many times a day

Front 15

what is the best treatment for xerostomia

Back 15

5 mg pilocarpine

Front 16

what is the drug with which erythromycin interacts to cause cardiovascular events including death

Back 16

terfenadine

Front 17

what is the first drug that relieved leukemia

Back 17

Aminopterin

Front 18

Name the actions of Phenothiazine ( Zine) : alpha adrenergic drug blockage

Back 18

Sedation, anti emetic, potentiate narcotics

Front 19

what pair of anesthetics most likely cause cross allergy

Back 19

Lidocaine/ Mepivacaine

Front 20

what causes methemoglobinemia

Back 20

benzocaines. benzenes, nitrites

Front 21

what is the pathology seen most frequently with chronic temporomandibular joint disorder

Back 21

mental depression

Front 22

what is the attitude toward a fracture of the medium root of a tooth with no possibility of treatment of the apical portion

Back 22

Extraction and replantation of the coronal portion

Front 23

What is the injury that results the most in pulpal necrosis

Back 23

Avulsion

Front 24

what are the teeth that have the most consistant canal morphology

Back 24

mandibular premolars

Front 25

After extraction , the removal of inter radicular bone corresponds to what ?

Back 25

removal of labial undercuts

Front 26

the blade type oral implant is suitable for which case

Back 26

posterior edentulous area without posterior abutment

Front 27

an occlusal separator is used for which case

Back 27

Hemarthrosis

Front 28

What is the most adequate surgical procedure to obtain long term stability for the genioplasty

Back 28

Pedicled horizontal sliding osteotomy

Front 29

what is the best procedure to treat chronic recurrent dislocation of the tmj

Back 29

articular eminectomy with capsular plication

Front 30

name the advantages of midawolam over diazepam

Back 30

Less thrombophlebitis

shorter half life

no significant active metabolites

more rapid and predicatble onset

But have the same respiratory depression effect

Front 31

if you inject midazolam intra arterially, what is the first manifestation?

Back 31

severe pain in the extremity

Front 32

what are the signs most seen in osteoarthritis

Back 32

Crepitus

Antegonial notching

Flattening of articular surface

Apertognathia

But : no prognatism

Front 33

what are the two tests to order before general anestheisa

Back 33

Blood count and urinalysis

If patient is older than 40: EKG

Front 34

What is DHHS, NIH, HRSA, AHRQ

Back 34

The Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) is the principal agency of the U.S. government for protecting the health of all Americans and providing essential human services. DHHS includes 11 agencies and more than 300 programs. The other agencies listed are part of the DHHS. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) is the world’s premier medical research organization. The Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA) provides access to essential health care services for people with low income, people with no health insurance, and people who live in rural areas or urban neighborhoods where health care is scarce. The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) supports research on health care systems, health care quality and cost issues, access to health care, and effectiveness of medical treatments.

Front 35

How do you treat an intruded tooth with closed apex, give time frame

Back 35

gradual orthodontic repositioning for 2 to 3 weeks, hydroxyde calcium pulpectomy at 2 weeks after injury, and stabilisation for 2 to 4 weeks

Front 36

what is a case control study?

Back 36

In a case-control study, people with a condition (“cases”) are compared with people without the condition (“controls”) but who are similar in other characteristics. Hypothesized causal exposures are sought in the past medical records of the participants. The case-control study could establish a temporal relationship between the exposure and disease of interest, such as a history of alcohol drinking before the appearance of oral cancer.

Front 37

Which statistical test is used to analyze whether or not the means of several groups are equal and generalizes a t test to more than two groups

Back 37

Analysis of variance (ANOVA)

The χ2 test measures the association between two categorical variables. The correlation coefficient quantifies the relationship between variables (e.g., x and y). If the r value is +1, there is a perfect correlation, with both values increasing in the same direction. A multiple regression analysis provides a mathematical model of linear relationship between a dependent (i.e., an outcome variable) and two or more independent or predictor variables.

Front 38

why do we use distraction osteogenesis

Back 38

when a large advancement is needed

Front 39

The rubber dam is inverted in order to

Back 39

provide a complete seal around the teeth

Front 40

What are the gingival technics that increase the attached gingival width

Back 40

Free gingival graft, apically displaced full thickness, partial thickness flap

Front 41

What is a critical component in anterior implant placement

Back 41

Anterior surgical template

Front 42

Diazepam, epinephrine, and insulin act at ion channel receptors respectively, G-protein–linked receptors, and tyrosine kinase–linked receptors.

Back 42

These three receptor types are cell surface receptors. Thyroid hormone and steroid hormones or drugs, such as prednisone, act on nuclear receptors, accounting for much of their action.

Front 43

what are the two benzodiazepines that have the shortest half life

Back 43

Midazolam, Triazolam

Front 44

name the three metabolism reaction that local anesthetics undergo

Back 44

Hydroxylation

Dealkylation

Hydrolysis

Front 45

How much is the pka of lidocaine

Back 45

7.9

Front 46

Name a drug that inhibit gasto intestinal glucose absorption

Back 46

Acarbose

Front 47

Name two anti epileptics that inhibit calcium channels and are structural analogues of GABA, and have a half life of 3 to 4 hours

Back 47

Gabapentin/ Pregabalin.

Phenobarbital enhances chloride channel activity. Carbamazepine is a sodium channel blocker, and ethosuximide is an inhibitor of T-type calcium channels.

Valproic acid is also a structural analogue of GABA

Front 48

Name the anesthetic that is used essentially as a topical anesthetic

Back 48

Benzocaine

Front 49

Torsades de pointe, or polymmorphic ventricular tachicardia show on the ECG as:

Back 49

Longer Q T interval

Front 50

Flumazenil reverse the effect of benzodiazepine:

Which benzodiazepine are concerned?

Back 50

Diazepam, Zolpidem, Zaleplon ( GABA A receptors)

Front 51

What receptor does Baclofen stimulate

Back 51

GABA b

Front 52

What receptor does Buspirone stimulate

Back 52

Serotonin 1A receptor

Front 53

Bremstrahlung radiation results from

Back 53

interaction of electrons from cathode with tungsten nuclei from anode

Front 54

Name the drug that blocks aldosterone

Back 54

spironolactone

It is a K+ sparing anti diuritic.

It is safe for people taking digoxin , not like thiazide which depletes k+ resulting in more penetration of Digoxin

Front 55

name the odontogenic cyst that rises from the reduced enamel epithelium

Back 55

Dentigerous cyst

Front 56

what is the inhalation anesthetic that causes a cardiac arrhythmia when administered with epinephrine

Back 56

halothane : it sensitizes the heart to catecholamines

Hepatotoxic

Front 57

Name the glucocorticoid that has the most selective activity

Back 57

Dexamethasone

Besides: Hydrocortisone has mineralocorticoid activity

Aldosterone and Fludrocortisone are mineralocorticoid

Front 58

What is deterministic effect in radiation

Back 58

the severity of response is proportional to the dose

Front 59

what organ does faconi syndrome affect

Back 59

the kidneys

Front 60

describe the x ray release rythm from the x ray machine

Back 60

60 bursts per second, 1/120 second each.

So the xrays are produced half of the time

Front 61

what Methicillin resistant staphylococci vulnerable to ;

Back 61

Vancomycin

Front 62

Where does localized aggressive periodontitis happen in children and in what ethnicity

Back 62

molar area, in African American

Front 63

What position should be chosen to make occlusal adjustement of a prothesis

Back 63

Centric Relation

Front 64

describe odontogenic keratocyst hystology

Back 64

cystic lining of thin, parakeratinized epithelium with basal cell palisading

Front 65

describe the caracteristics of the palatal seal

Back 65

2 mm anterior to fovea

shallow in mid palatal area

improve retention of the denture, not stability

the width compensates for the shrinkage of resin

May reduce the gag reflex because it's well sealed

Front 66

what is Herpetic Whitlow

Back 66

a secondary herpes simplex infection that occurs around the nail bed

Front 67

what two drugs can cause lidocaine to stay more in in the blood causing toxicity

Back 67

Beta blockers

Cimetidine

Front 68

What two drugs cause the lidocaine to be biotransformed rapidly due to hepatic induction

Back 68

Barbiturate

Phenytoin

Front 69

what can cause the barbiturates to stay more in the blood due to the inhibition of the liver funtion

Back 69

Anti fungal

Front 70

o Normal coagulation values •

Back 70

Template bleeding time: 1-9min • Prothrombin time: 11-16sec • Incr by warfarin, vit k deficiency, heparin in high doses • Partial thromboplastin time: 32-46sec

Front 71

what are the functions of others ingredients in the anesthetic cartridge

Back 71

• NaCl for isotonicity; methylparaben for bacteriostatic; sodium metabisulfate antioxidant

Front 72

Lido+prilo= classe B

Mepi+bupi= classe c

Back 72

Lido + procaine= skip the exitment phase in overdose and go directly to drowsiness

prilo+benzo= Methemoglobinemia

Front 73

o Volatile liquids used for anesthesia sevoflurane (less irritating to airway), desflurane (also requires heading component) •

Back 73

CAN use with COPD (unlike nitrous

Front 74

Give 3 anxiolytics to give to an adult patient one hour before procedure( 3 different families of drugst)

Back 74

Diazepam: 5 -10 mg

Pentobarbital-secobarbital: 50 -100 mg

Promethazine: 25 mg.

Front 75

what is the medication that most asmathic and copd patients take, and what antibiotic is contraindicated because of toxicity

Back 75

Theophylline: bronchodilator

Never give erythromycine/Clarithromycine because of toxicity

Front 76

What is analeptic

Back 76

Nervous system inducer as opposed to depressor

Front 77

Name the full name of Pindborg tumor, and its pathognomonic histologic sign

Back 77

Calcifying epitethelial odontogenic tumor

It has Liesengag rings

Front 78

Strength = stiffness x range

• Doubling length →decr strength by ½, 8x less stiff, 4x incr in range •

Back 78

Doubling diameter →8x incr in strength, 16x incr in stiffness, working range decr by ½ •

Front 79

o Syndromes manifesting hyper & hypodontia:

Clue: Mnemonic: CHOD

Back 79

Crouzon’s, Down’s, oro-facial digital syndrome I, Hallermann-STreiff syndrome

Front 80

what is the agency that regulates the transport of waste from the dental office

Back 80

EPA

Front 81

Explain what Sillness and Loe Index means

Back 81

a score from 1 to 4 divided by 4 of debris index at the gingival level.

0 : no debris

1: debris revieled by contrast product

2: debris visible at naked eye

3 debris abundant.

Front 82

o More wear occurs on max than mand & on left than right

Back 82

Atridox content: 10 percent doxycycline

Arestin content: 2 percent minocycline

Front 83

o In gingival CT, most nerve fibers are myelinated

Back 83

o Bacterionema & Veillonella have abilty to form intracellular hydroxyapatite crystals

Front 84

name 3 anti hypersensitivity products

Back 84

Strontium chloride

potassium nitrate

sodium citrate

Front 85

o Subgingival root surface roughness doesn’t seem to interfere with healing after SRP

Back 85

o gypsum setting time modifyiers:

Retarder=borax, sodium citrate;

accelerator=gypsum, potassium sulfate

Front 86

zudovudine as an hiv post exposure prophylaxis reduces the risk by

Back 86

81 percent

Front 87

Percussion sensitivity is the hallmark of a tooth that requires a root canal. A fractured cusp or recurrent decay do not necessarily indicate the need for RCT. Pain exacerbated by cold usually means a vital or part vital tooth.

Back 87

Pain exacerbated by heat (which this tooth does not exhibit) usually means gas pressure in a devital tooth. An apical lucency on film indicates a tooth that requires a root canal; however, absence of a lucency does not exclude the need for root canal treatment.

Front 88

how many in the population in america suffer from Hypertension

Back 88

one in three

Front 89

what type of disorder is fibromyalgia

Back 89

Rhumatic desorder

Front 90

what is the anti histaminique that is not contra indicated with cimetidine

Back 90

Allegra

Front 91

what happens when the intermediate chain of a local anesthtic gets longer

Back 91

potency gets higher

Front 92

what are the advantages of chemical sterilization

Back 92

short

does not corrode

does not damage clothes

instruments are dry at the end of the cycle

But : it needs ventilation

Front 93

what is the most dangerous tmj surgery risk to the near by structure

Back 93

facial nerve damage

Front 94

what is the method to remove inferior torus

Back 94

create groove on the superior aspect of the torus

then

Use mono beveled chisel to remove the torus

Front 95

What is the best flap for the removal of palatal tori

Back 95

Y flap with midline incision

Front 96

post surgical athelectasis usually is a result of what

Back 96

Pre operative respiratory infection

Front 97

which area in a child should be avoided when injecting IM

Back 97

Gluteal muscles

Front 98

which broad antibiotic has been incriminated in failure of oral contraceptives

Back 98

Rifampin

Front 99

what is the sign of Digoxin intoxication

Back 99

Ventricular fibrillation

Front 100

individuality of a tooth is caracterised by

Back 100

surface texture

Front 101

degree of penetration of light before reflection in the enamel is called

Back 101

transluscency

Front 102

what is the dramatic advantage of phenytoin compared to barbiturate

Back 102

causes less sedation

Front 103

what is the marketing technique that can be used with reluctant patient

Back 103

Optimem

Front 104

when a patient withdraw this anti spychotic,

they start having sudden bleeding in the gingival

what is the name of this drug

Back 104

VAlproic acid

Front 105

what is the drug that causes convulsions when withdrwed suddenly

Back 105

Barbiturates

Front 106

what is the sign of back pressure porosity

Back 106

Rounded angles

Front 107

is there any anti diabetic drug that acts directly on insulin receptors

Back 107

no

Front 108

how much is the casting shrinkage of alloys

Back 108

2.2 percent

Front 109

how much of the americain population does not have dental insurance

Back 109

65-70 percent

Front 110

what is the antidote to TCA overdose

Back 110

Physiostygmine

Front 111

Benzodiazepines have a mechanism of action in muscle relaxtion close to

Back 111

Meprobamate

Front 112

digitalis overdose can cause ventricular arythmia.

so we give

Back 112

quinidine

Front 113

what is the anxiolytic that gives the most dry mouth

Back 113

Hydroxysine: Atarax

Front 114

what are the caracteristics of tramadol

Back 114

Centrally acting

Binds Mu receptors

has a serotonin reuptake inhibition funtion

transforms in a more active metabolite

But structurally different than morphine

Front 115

what is the analgesic that is given either IM or enteral

Back 115

Ketorolac

Front 116

weekly fluoride rinse is 0.2 Naf

Back 116

daily fluoride rinse is 0.05 Naf

Front 117

explain what sustain talk means

Back 117

when the patient expresses that he does not want to change his habits.

like: I can not use the mouth guard because I have so much going on,

Front 118

what is the most effective pit and fissure prevention community measure in school

Back 118

sealants, and not rinse of water fluor

Front 119

what size is an aquired nevus compared to a blue nevus

Back 119

aquired nevus is less than 6 mm.

Blue nevus may be less than 1 cm or more than 2 cm.

The color blue is due to the reflexion of the short wavelengths (blue) : Tyndall effect

Front 120

What is the other name for white sponge nevus

Back 120

familial epithelial hyperplasia

Cannon's disease

Front 121

how is the lacrimal test called in jogren syndrome

Back 121

Schirmer test

Front 122

gingival cysts of the new born are also called?

What histology does it have

Back 122

Bohn's nodules

Epstein's pearls

Front 123

what is the cutanuous counterpart of calcifying odontogenic cyst name

Back 123

Malherbe calcibying epithelioma or

Pilo matricoma

Front 124

Explain deterministis effect in radiotherapy

Explain stochastic effect(chance effect)

Give exembples

Back 124

Deterministic effect relates the severity of the reaction to the dose: mucositis after radiotherapy

Stochastic effect: chance effect: relates the chance of getting a cancer to the dose

Front 125

Learn this

Back 125

mucositis appears after two weeks of radiotherapy

It's severity follows a deterministic effect

healing takes two months to complete

Front 126

Radiation facts:

occupational exposure should be less than 50 mSv

0.2 mSv is the dose that workers get in the dental office

Back 126

total annual radiation exposure in the USA is : 6.2 mSv

half is ubiquitous : Radon

Half is man made: 98 percent from radiology

CT : 47 percent of man made radiation

dental : 0.26 mSv of man made radiation

ALARA: as low as reasonably achievable

Front 127

in an ideal radiograph, the optical density of enamel, dentin and soft tissue should be

Back 127

0.4 enamel

1 dentin.

2 soft tissue

Front 128

Herringbone effect or tire track pattern is the result of what when taking the radiograph

Back 128

placing the film inversed in the mouth

Front 129

angulation of the radiographic cone directed towards the ceiling is a positive angulation.

too little of an angulation gives elongation of tooth

Back 129

angulation towards the floor is called negative angulation .

too much angulation gives forshortening of the tooth

Front 130

what is the technique that we use when using submento vertex technique in order to view clearly the zygomatic arch and reduce all the other anoatomic parts

Back 130

Jug Handle view.

it consists of reducing the radition by half which will increase the visibility of the zygomatic arch

Front 131

what is the angulation of the x ray in Towne's radiograph

Back 131

30 degrees to Frankfort plane, and film behind the head

Front 132

what is the other name for trombocytopenic purpura

Back 132

Werlhof Disease

Front 133

what is the pathology that causes flaring of the teeth

Back 133

Thallassemia

Front 134

o Peripheral fibroma and. peripheral odontogenic fibroma are not ulcerated while .....

Back 134

peripheral ossifying fibroma (ulcerated)

Front 135

What is the other name for MEN 2

Back 135

Sipple's syndrome

Front 136

What is the most common odontogenic tumor

Back 136

odontoma, then ameloblastoma(painless, resorbs roots and displaces teeth)

Front 137

give the order of occurence of tumors of bone

Back 137

Multiple myeloma

osteosarcoma(painful)

Chondrosarcoma(painless)

osteofibroama

Ewing sarcome

Front 138

where does sebacous adenoma occur

Back 138

Parotide

Front 139

where does pleomorphic adenoma occur the most.

how much is the malignancy transformation

Back 139

85 in parotide, then the palate

25 % turn malignant

Front 140

what is the difference btw mucous retention cyst and mucocele

Back 140

Mucous retention cyst is lined by epithelium while mucocele is not

Front 141

What is the difference between CMOS and CCD

Back 141

CMOS is less expensive , more reliable,

but, causes more radiographic noise, and has smaller detector area

Front 142

Fibrous displasia is defferent from gardener's syndrome osteoma in that

Back 142

FD is disfiguring and deforming by expension, while gardener's syndrome is flat and non deforming

Front 143

peripheral giant cell granuloma occurs where

Back 143

occurs exclusively in the gingiva like the ossifying fibromas opposite of central giant cell granuloma which occurs in bone.

Front 144

hereditary hemorrhagic telengiectasia is also called

Back 144

Rendu Osler Weber Disease

Front 145

what is this lesion

Back 145

verruciform xanthoma

Front 146

what is this how we treat it

Back 146

inflamatory papilary hyperplasia removal of the total prothesis exision if advanced of collegenous cryotherapy curetage

Front 147

nevoid basal cell carcinoma is also called

Back 147

gorlin syndrom autosomal dominant

Front 148

schwannoma has two vriations

Back 148

Antoni A and Antoni B occurs mostly in the 8 Nerve

Front 149

what is this disease called what attitude we should have What kind of histology cells we find To what other pathology is it histologically similar

Back 149

congenital epulis of the new born should be resected.dno reccurence Similar to Granular cell myoblastoma in that it contains granular cells. The difference is that GCM has a pseudo epitheliomatous Hyperplasia. GCM occurs in the tongue

Front 150

guess what this is It s a slow growing mass painless

Back 150

neuro fibroma

Front 151

multiple osteoma is called what are the caracteristics

Back 151

gardener syndrome males more than females asympto intestinal polyposis always malignant potential accopagned fibroma of sking, epidermal cyst odontoma and impacted teeth

Front 152

what is this pathology to what type of families it belongs what are the other types of the same pathology what are the other types of the same family

Back 152

peri apical cemento ossous displasia, most common in fibro ossous diseases focal: non expansile, edentulous area, mandible,< 2 cm Florid: African american females, > 2 quadrants, no cortical expansion

Front 153

what is this disease, what are the caracteristics what are the others diseases of the same family

Back 153

Eosinophilic granuloma: floating teeth cupped out radiolucency like periodontal disease the others are: Letter Siwe: young childern, bones, skin, internal organs hand Schuller: punched out bone lesions

Front 154

Hand Shuller Christian disease caracteristics

Back 154

Punched out bone lesions Exophtalmos Diabetes insipidus Floating teeth

Front 155

what is this lesions in a black male of 54 years

Back 155

multiple myeloma notice the sharp edge of the resobed root cure is : Thalidomide, chemotherapy, stem cell transplantation

Front 156

what is this disease in a man of 45 years, history of alcohol and smoking

Back 156

Squamous cell carcinoma, comes from: Human Papiloma virus: 16.18.31.33 vitamines deficiency, iron deficiency,and UV light 90 percent in lower lip

Front 157

what is this what is the cause, what is the treatment

Back 157

verrucous carcinoma chewing tobacco excision without radio therapy

Front 158

what is this occuring in a white child of 5 to 25 years what treatment

Back 158

ewing Sarcoma resection, radiotherapy, and aggressive chemotherapy Signs: Intermittant pain, swelling, fever, anemia, leukocytosis, and onion skinning on radiographs

Front 159

what is this, what clinic signs

Back 159

Osteosarcoma: painfull swelling, loose teeth, paresthesia, nasale obturation, apistaxis, fractures, ulcerations, mixed rado opacities, Sunburn Appearance, symetrical widening of pdl Elevated alkaline phosphate Treatment: radical resection with chemo or radio

Front 160

what is this what other pathologies can manifest like this: Well circonscribed, uni or multi locular radiolucency

Back 160

Central Giant cell granuloma other pathologies: Cleidocranial displasia/disostosis Brown tumor of hyperparathyroidism

Front 161

what are the sizes of : acquired nevus common Blue nevus Cellular blue nevus

Back 161

< 6 mm acquired nevus < 1 cm common blue nevus. > 2 cm cellular blue nevus: accurs in 2nd and 4th decade

Front 162

Neurofibromatosis and Mc Cune Albright both have cafe au lait spots, but there is a big difference in the shape, what is it?

Back 162

Mc Cune Albright is shap irregular edges, while neurofibromatosis is smooth

Front 163

what are the other names for white sponge nevus

Back 163

familial epithelial hyperplasia Canon's disease hereditary Bilateral+ keratin genes 4 and 13

Front 164

what is this: what are the caracteristics of it

Back 164

the radiograph is not diagnostic of this pathology: Dentigerous cyst notice the resorption of the adjacent teeth it might transform into ameloblastoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and intraossous mucoepidermoid carcinoma

Front 165

what is this pathology in a patient who has falx cerebri calcified, hyperkertinized pitted hands and feets. cysts and fibromas on the skin?

Back 165

OKC: odontogenic Keratocyst. Can be multiple in the Nevoid Basal cell carcinoma, which is Gorlin syndrome high recurence rate the keratocyst is lined by parakeratinized epithelium. The variation that is orthokeratinized is less agressive and less recurent.

Front 166

what is this pathology? who are the candidates? are are the caracteristics? what is the treatment?

Back 166

Ossigying Fibroma women from 30 to 40 years well circonscribed, mixed density asymptomatic Treatment: enucleation without recurrence

Front 167

what is this disease? what are the caracteristics what is the main difference with fibrous displasia

Back 167

Fibrous displasia, family of the fibro ossous diseases Ground glass appearance can be mono ostotic, polyostotic, mac cune albright (poly + endocrine disease), Cranio facial Less clear borders than ossifying fibroma More maxillary than mandib like ossifying fibroma

Front 168

what is the name of this lesion happening in young individual? what is the main caracteristic of this lesion What are the other pathologies of odontogenic source

Back 168

ameloblastoma well demarcated borders the other odontogenic tumors: Odontogenic myxoma: honey comb appearance Odontogenic Fibroma: more females maxillary anterior Cementoblastoma: benign, mixed radio appearance.

Front 169

the difference between men1 , men 2(sipple syndrome ) , and men 3 is.....

Back 169

men 3 has mucosal neuroma. So a patient with mucosal neuroma also might develop a medullary carcinoma of Thyroid

Front 170

what are the two pathologies that cause an enlargement of the pdl

Back 170

Sclerodermaosteosarcoma

Front 171

cleft palate occurs when, what gender cleft lip occurs when , what gender, where?

Back 171

Cleft palate: 8 to 10 weeks, in females Cleft lip: left unilateral is 80 of cases. 6 to 7 weeks in males mostly Van Der Woude Syndrome: lip pits autosomal dominant with 90% penetrance

Front 172

high alkaline phosphatase is found in Low alkaline phosphatase is found in

Back 172

Paget disease of bone Hypophosphatasia

Front 173

what is this pathology

Back 173

Ectodermal displasia:patient looks older than normal, no salivary, nor sweat glands. x linked recessive the cone teeth are a differential diagnosis with cleidocranial dysplasia, which also has a bossing forehead

Front 174

what are the caracteristics of Pierre Robin Syndrome

Back 174

Micrognathie, Cleft lip Glosso ptosis High arched palate

Front 175

what is this lesion what are the caracteristics

Back 175

Cherubism Caracteristics are: multiple radiolucencies, peri vascular collagen cuffing, eyes stare in the space Multi nucleated Giant cells in histology

Front 176

Hypo para thyroidism is caracterised by

Back 176

Blunt apices, hypoplastic enamel, Delayed eruption of teeth

Front 177

Muscular distropy is caracterised by

Back 177

loss of force to bite, so open mouth breathing. increased caries

Front 178

what are the signs of hypothyroidism

Back 178

Crenetism in children, myxedema in adults Underdevelopped mandible Over developped maxilla macrodontia, so teeth malposition

Front 179

Hyper parathyroidism= Von recklinghousen = Brown tumor

Back 179

Multi cystic radiolucencies, Giant cell in histology Extravasation of red cells+Hemosiderin= that's why it is a Brown tumor

Front 180

what is the incubatin period of Hepatitis B

Back 180

6 to 8 weeks

Front 181

What is the incubation period of Hepatitis A

Back 181

4 to 6 weeks

Front 182

the most serious complication of Ludwig's Angina is

Back 182

oedema of the Glottis

Front 183

What is the toxic dose of fluoride for adults and children

Back 183

Adults: 2 gram of fluoride Children: 5 to 10 mg/kg, very toxic if it reaches 16mg/kg 1 ppm of fluoride supplementation adds 1 to 2 mg in the diet. no toxic manifestation below 5 mg daily diet.

Front 184

what is the main cause of xerostomia:

Back 184

Medication Jogren syndrome is the main pathology that causes it. Radio therapy most toxic effect is xerostomia Other pathologies are: RA, Scleroderma, SLE.

Front 185

what is this pathology

Back 185

malignant melanoma, Sites of predilection: palate and maxillary gingiva uncommon pathology of the oral cavity

Front 186

how to distinguish between basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

Back 186

basal cell carcinoma is bullous like and does crust and ulcerate, Squamous does not manifest as bullous. Basal carcinoma very rarely metasatizes. MOHS is the best resection technique

Front 187

what is the difference between hodking lymphoma and non hodkin lymphoma

Back 187

see picture. Hodkin lymphoma is 85% B cell lymphoma

Front 188

what are the caracteristics of oral cancers

Back 188

basal cell carcinoma is most common, than, squamous, than malignant melanoma.

Front 189

malignant melanoma types

Back 189

Horizontal: superficial spreading(most common) Lentigo Maligna melanoma Lentigenous melanoma: sun exposed areas in elderly Vertical: Nodular melanoma, poorest prognosis

Front 190

ewing sarcoma , osteosarcoma, and burkitt lymphoma(non hodkinian lymphoma) share radiographically the same appearence

Back 190

Moth eaten radiolucency one variation of ewing sarcoma in the radio is inion skinning both cancers come to children: Bukitt: 3 years african and 11 years american ewing sarcoma: 5 to 30 years

Front 191

Ramsay Hunt syndrome is the result of post herpetic neuralgia Involvment of of facial nerve and geniculate ganglion

Back 191

ossifying fibroma and fibrous displasia share the same radiographic appearance. The only difference is that ossifying fibroma has weel circonscribed borders while fibrous displasia does not

Front 192

Sturge-Weber disease (encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis) which consists of a facial lesion. known as

Back 192

the port-wine stain

Front 193

What is this pathology in a black woman of of 45 years old, non painful and not expensile

Back 193

Peri apical cemento ossous displasia

Front 194

What is this diseasewhat are the three caracteristics of it

Back 194

Regional odonto displasia/Ghost teethShort rootsextra large pulpopen apexPermanent teeth more affected

Front 195

What might be this lesion

Back 195

granular cell myoblastoma Is similar histologically to the congenital epulis of the new born, but has pseudoepitheliomatous layer

Front 196

what is the name of the osteo myelitis that occurs in children

Back 196

Garre osteomyelitis

Front 197

what are the diseases that cause enlarged pulp chambers

Back 197

dentin dysplasia type 2 in permanent teethHypo phosphatasiadentinogenesis imperfecta Type 3

Front 198

what are the main caracteristics of Hypo phosphatasia

Back 198

Premature loss of teethHypo calcification of teeth and bones in generallarge pulp chambers

Front 199

what is the disease that causes hypercementosis and hear loss?

Back 199

Paget disease

Front 200

whta is this organisation fo collagen around vessels called?where does it appear most frequently

Back 200

It is called perivascular cuffing. It is pathognomonic of Cherubism.

Front 201

What are the mandibular signs of Hypothyroidism?

Back 201

Macroglossyunderdevelopment of mandibleOver development of maxillaretained temporary teeth

Front 202

a child has fever and those marks opposite to the molars, what is this pathology

Back 202

those are koplik spots .They occur in Meales

Front 203

what are the pathologies that cause xerostomia What is it's treatment

Back 203

Jogren RA Scleroderma SLE Treatment: Hydroxymethyl Cellulose/Carboxymetyl cellulose

Front 204

name the order of ossous malignancies

Back 204

1 osteosarcoma2 chondro sarcoma3 fibro sarcoma4 Ewing sarcoma (a distinguishing feature is that Ewing sarcoma has glycogen laden cells)

Front 205

what is the name and caracteristics of a sarcoma that accompanies HIV positive patients

Back 205

Kaposi Sarcoma: a form of angio sarcoma.Palate is the most frequent intraoral site.Herpes 8 has an etiologic factor

Front 206

What is this lesion?What is the site of predilection?

Back 206

Oral Lymphoepithelial cyst. Floor of the mouth, It is yellow pink, while lipona is more yellow This is a congenital cyst that is the counterpart of the branchial cyst that occurs anterior to the sterno cleido mastoid muscle

Front 207

What is this stain name?what is it usefull for?what are the signs and causes of the pathology

Back 207

Immuno peroxidase stain.Useful to diagnose metastatic carinoma of bonesigns are: moth eaten radiolucencies, painfull expension of angle of mandible in 56 year old patient.Prognosis is 10 percent after 5 years

Front 208

Post herpetic neuralgia causes what syndrome

Back 208

Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is a an itchy and hyperesthesic sensation of the facial nerve

Front 209

what is the difference between central giant cell granuloma, and giant cell tumor(brown tumor of the hyperparthyroid)

Back 209

Both are radiologically and histologically the same.But central giant cell granuloma occurs exclusively in the jaws while giant cell tumor occurs mostly in long bones.also, in blood test, we find elevated calcium and alkaline phosphatase in Giant cell tumor

Front 210

what is the other name to mono ostotic fibrous displasia

Back 210

jaffe Lichtendtien syndrome

Front 211

lateral periodontal cyst occurs exclusively in ?

Back 211

Mandibular canine premolar region. It is tear drop shaped

Front 212

what is this pathology

Back 212

Calcifying odontogenic cyst.(Gorlin cyst) Microscopically has Gost cells

Front 213

what is the other name for central epithelial odontogenic tumor ( CEOT)

Back 213

Pindborg tumor. Painless swelling, almost exclusively central intra ossous than peripheral.

Front 214

what is the difference between cemento blastoma and condensing osteitis

Back 214

The cemento blastoma obscures the root, while the condensing osteitis doesnt

Front 215

Wegener Granulomatosis presentation

Back 215

Granulomatous inflamationnecrosisvasculitis

Front 216

Peripheral Giant cell granuloma is very similar to the Pyogenic granuloma, the two main differences are radiologic and histologic

Back 216

Radio: Peripheral Giant cell granuloma tends to have a radiolucency underneath while pyogenic granuloma not. Histological analysis is also important

Front 217

Begning lympho epithelial lesion is also called

Back 217

Mickuliz syndrome, auto immune disease like Jogren syndromecan manifest as the inflammation of both parotide glands The pathognomic sign is Histological:Epimyoepithelial islands

Front 218

What are the two main causes of parotide enlargement

Back 218

pleomorphic adenomaWarthin's tumor: papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum (PCL)

Front 219

What is the main order of occurence of minor salivary gland malignancies

Back 219

Muco epidermoid carcinomaPoly morphous low grade adeno carcinoma

Front 220

What are the parotide order of malignancies

Back 220

Muco epidermoid carcinomaacinic cell carcinomaAdeno carcinoma: this tumor is rare but agressive with 25% pain or facial weakness presentation.Malignant mixed tumor: 3types:Carcinoma ex mixed tumor: most frequent malignant mixed tumor deriving form the pleomorphic adenoma

Front 221

Stevens Johnson syndrome( erythema multiforme) etiologies in :Adultschildren

Back 221

Adults: drugs and malignanciesChildren: infection

Front 222

what is this disease called strawberry tongue in a child with a rash his body

Back 222

Scarlett feverCaused by strep Pyogen

Front 223

what is the cause of proliferative verrucous leukoplakia

Back 223

HPV 16 and 18

Front 224

what is the cause of candyloma accuminatum

Back 224

HPV 6 and 11

Front 225

What is the most High risk HPV

Back 225

16, 18, 31,33

Front 226

what is the cause of focal epithelial hyperplasiaHeck's disease

Back 226

HPV 13 and 32

Front 227

What is this pathology?What are the caracteristics?

Back 227

Ascher syndromeCaracteristic:Blepharochalasisdouble lipenlargement of thyroid

Front 228

What does Mucicarmine stain reveal?

Back 228

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 229

all these drugs cause gingival hyperplasia

Back 229

Sodium valproate: for epilepsyNefidipine/Verapamil: calcium channel blockercyclosporine: immuno suppressant

Front 230

Asher syndrome: triad: double lip, eye, and thyroid enlargement.Apert syndrome: premature fusion of suture: deformation of skull and retardation

Back 230

papillon Lefevre syndrome: hyperkeratosis of palms and soles/ periodontitis extreme Nevoid basal cell carcinoma: hyperkeratosis/cysts/fibromas of skin/ calcification of falx cerebri

Front 231

What can this pathology be in a patient who accidently bit his upper lip

Back 231

Canalicular mono morphic adenoma: begnin tumor of minor salivary glands almost exclusively of upper lip. Attention: mucocele ressembles this pathology but occurs only in lower lip.

Front 232

What is the contenance of OKC

Back 232

Keratin: white substance cheese like in aspirationTreatment is marsupialisation and enucleation

Front 233

what is the type of biopsy that we should perform for ulcers and bullous dieseases

Back 233

incisional biopsy of both normal and lesional tissue.We must leave some of the lesion in order to be able to evaluate it in the future

Front 234

what is this pathology?

Back 234

Ehlers Danlos Syndrome

Front 235

What is this disease?What are the caracteristics?

Back 235

Tuberous sclerosis.Mental retardationseizure disorderangio fibroma of the skin

Front 236

Exanthema subitum is another name for

Back 236

Roseola in children.caused by herpes 6

Front 237

what is Zoster sine Herpete?

Back 237

non rash zoster manifestation

Front 238

What is this disease?what is the bacteria related to ti?

Back 238

Cat scratch diseaseBartonella Hansalea is the bacteria related to it

Front 239

Pyognic granuloma, peripheral giant cell granuloma and peripheral ossifying fibroma look clinically the same, but histologically, guess the diference

Back 239

Pyogenic granuloma: vascular proliferationPGCG: giant cell multi nucleated.Peripheral ossifying fibroma: contains calcification

Front 240

Granulocytic sarcoma is a cancer related to ?

Back 240

Leukemia

Front 241

Multiple Myeloma has histologically and amourphous glassy pink material. Yes or NO

Back 241

Yes

Front 242

in herpes zoster infection in elderly, especially when the patients are elderly and immune depressive, they may have a nose involvement , which mean that the naso ciliary nerve( of the trigeminal) is affected. It is mandatory in this case to refer the patient to ?

Back 242

and ophtalmologist.We must also give a systemic anti viral drug.

Front 243

where does ameloblastoma originate from

Back 243

rest of Mallasezdentigerous cystenamel organ

Front 244

where does OKC originate from

Back 244

Dental Lamina

Front 245

Where does dentigerous cyst originate from

Back 245

reduced enamel epithelium

Front 246

What are the maximum dose of epinephrine for a healthy person and caradio vascular diseased person?

Back 246

healthy: 0.2 mgcardiovascular disease: 0.04mgRemember: 1/100 000 epi anesthetic contains 0.01 mg/ml of epi.1/200 000 epi anesthetic contains 0.005 mg/ml of epi

Front 247

What is the antibiotic that concentrates mostly in bones? and gingival fluid

Back 247

Bone: clindamycin.Gingival fluid: tetracycline

Front 248

What type of Erythromycine causes allergic cholestatic hepatitis

Back 248

Erythromycine estolate

Front 249

what sulfonamides can be prescribed with what orther antibiotic

Back 249

trimethoprimbecause they act sequently in the folic acid synthesis process

Front 250

how does probenecid affect penicillin in the body

Back 250

It reduces the excretion of penicillin in the kidney

Front 251

Erythromycine should be avoided when a patient is taking what drug?

Back 251

Seldan(anti histaminic), because it causes arythmia due to the blockage of matabolism of seldan

Front 252

First drug to give in mild hypertension

Back 252

Thiazide: diuritique

Front 253

Calcium channel blockers:

Back 253

nefidipineverapamil: also indicated in atrial fibrillationcause gingival enlargementBut:Amlodipine does not cause gingival enlargement

Front 254

Beta blockers:

Back 254

Propanolol: non selective Beta blockerAtenolol, metoprolol: selective beta blocker

Front 255

direct acting vasodilator

Back 255

HydralasineIndicated in first intention in a preganant patient with eclampsia

Front 256

Ace in hibitors:

Back 256

captoprilCan cause swelling(hypertrophy) in the tongue

Front 257

Angiotensin1 inhibitor

Back 257

Lasilactone

Front 258

Angiotonsin 2 inhibitor

Back 258

Lasartan (Cosaar)

Front 259

Severe blood pressure

Back 259

Clonidine

Front 260

Calcium channel blockers cause what side effect in the oral cavity

Back 260

Gingival enlargement

Front 261

Blood pressure medication cause what in the oral cavity

Back 261

Xerostomia and sometimes disgeusia

Front 262

Heart failure( decrease in CO) drug

Back 262

Digitalis (Digoxin): increase the contractility force of the heart.Indicated in the three things that cause failure:MI / Valvular disease / cardiac arrythmiaInteresting: Digitalis causes decrease in Heart rate: incicated in atrial flutter and atrial fibrillationSide effect: GAG reflex

Front 263

what are the cardiac arrythima drugs

Back 263

Quinidine: Atrial/supraventricular arrythmiaIt increases the refractory periodLidocaine: decreases the exitability of the ventricule

Front 264

what is the class of nitro glycerinWhat disease does it treatwhat is the side effect of it

Back 264

Vaso dilatorAngina pectorisside effect: xerostomiaContra indicated when usind phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors(Seldanaphil:Viagra): both are vaso dilators

Front 265

methyldopa, is the drug with central action- it alters CNS control of blood pressure by acting on cardioregulatory and vasomotor systems of the brain by stimulating alpha2 receptors in the brain stem.metropolol is a selectively blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart to reduce cardiac output.

Back 265

hydralazine has a direct action onvascular smooth muscle to reduce hypertension via vasodilation.propranolol blocks beta receptors in the heart,while guanethidine prevents the release and causes depletion of catecholamines taken up into storage vesicles . It does not cross the bloodbrain barrier.

Front 266

Clonidine is one form of Methyl dopa which is a hypertension drug that acts where?

Back 266

centrally.clonidine and methyldopa stimulate alpha 2 receptors of the brain thus reducing the hypertension

Front 267

what is the anti hypertensive drug that causes oto toxicity and deafness?

Back 267

High ceiling/loop diuretic: Furosemide

Front 268

Symptoms of digitalis toxicity include all of the followinga. Extrasystolesb. Nausea and vomitingc. Yellow-green visiond. A-V conduction block

Back 268

Chlorothiazide is a diuretic which causes potassium loss orhypokalemia. This results in greater penetration of digitalis intothe myocardium, and thus potential toxicity.

Front 269

name two opiate analgesics that are mixed agonist antagonist

Back 269

pentazocinenalbuphinenalorphine

Front 270

What other opoid can we use for heroin dependancy

Back 270

Methadone.Because the withdrawal reactions are less stressfull than heroin

Front 271

succinylcholine treats what kind of spasmand why ? I promise, it is very interesting

Back 271

laryngo spasmsuccinyl choline is actually two acetylcholine fused together.Acetyl cholinesterase cannot break it down.So when it fixes to the muscarinic cholinergic receptors, it is not broken down, causing the the muscle to relax instead of contracting repeatedly.. THAT IS INTERSTING, ISN'T IT?But: plasma esterase can break it, so patient with plasma esterase deficiency experience longer action time

Front 272

atropine and scopolamine bind to Ach receptors drying up the salivary glands.What is the less common molecule that does that ?

Back 272

Propantheline: which is a pro banthine, a synthetic atropineMetantheline is also a pro banthine

Front 273

Remember this:

Back 273

TCAs, H1 antihistamines, opioid analgesics cause xerostomia

Front 274

Beta adrenergic blocking factores act in two ways:

Back 274

They limit the formation of Renin, thus reducing the blood pressure.They block Beta 1 receptors, thus inhibiting the fixation of norepinephrine

Front 275

What is the major side effect of the anti depressant phenitoin

Back 275

Gingival hyperplasia

Front 276

Are these all NSAID:IbuprofenIndomethacinPhenylbutazoneAcetylsalicylic acid

Back 276

Yes

Front 277

any intoxication coming from cholinergic blockers like atropine , propontheline, or scopolamine can be treated with

Back 277

Primarily Physostigmine,But also other cholinergic agonists like neostigmine or

Front 278

intoxication by insecticides and organo phosphates are treated with

Back 278

enzyme generator like pralidoxime.

Front 279

learn this:Curare is a non depolirizing Ach receptor blocker

Back 279

While Succinylcholine is a depolarizing blocker

Front 280

In the treatment of Parkinson, we give a sympathomimetic and another substance to protect it from degradation. What are they?

Back 280

Levodopa.and Carbidopa is going to inhibit levodopa decarboxylase.

Front 281

The barbituric are classified depending on their lasting effect to two classes. What are they?

Back 281

Thiopental: ultra short actingPheno barbital: long acting

Front 282

Name two anti psychotics?What is their mode of action?

Back 282

Phenothiazine/ChlorpromazineHaloperidol(Haldol): more recentThey block the dopamineThey block the dopaminergic sites in the brain

Front 283

what do you give for allergic skin reactions

Back 283

Chlorpheniramine

Front 284

What do you give for sedation before surgery as an anti histaminic

Back 284

Prometazine.

Front 285

What do you give for Parkinsonism?

Back 285

diphenhydramine

Front 286

What do you give for hurt burn (gastric acid treatment) or ulcer

Back 286

cimetedine

Front 287

what is the emergency treatement for Addison's crises(hypoaldosteronism)

Back 287

2ml , 100 mg of Hydrocortisone Hemisuccinate

Front 288

All of the benzodiazepines are metabolized in actives metabolites, which prolongs the action of the drug, but here are three expetions, what are they?

Back 288

Oxazepam,Midazolam,Lorazepam

Front 289

A patient with a cardio vascular problem should not be given in term of epinephrine more than:

Back 289

2.2 carpule of 1/100 000 epi.Or0.04mg of epinephrine maximum. Remember:1 cc of 1/ 100 000 xilocaine contains 0.01 mg of epi.

Front 290

Propranolol is a non selective beta blocker. This is, you know very well, humm. But it has also another cute action on the kidney, what is it?

Back 290

It decreases the release of renin

Front 291

What is one effect of narcotic opiates like codeine on the coughing?

Back 291

it supresses the cough reflex

Front 292

what is the effect of edrophonium?

Back 292

anti cholinesterase, like physiostygmine or neostygmine but is used to treat Myasthnia Gravis

Front 293

What is Phentolamine?

Back 293

An alpha blocker

Front 294

What is iso proterenol ( iso prenaline usefull for)

Back 294

is a beta 2 agonist, used to facilitate breating during surgery because it causes bronchodilation.

Front 295

to avoid mast cell degranulation in histamine reactions , you can can inject before it happens? But now that you have an anaphylactic choc, you have to inject?

Back 295

Cromalyn: anti histaminic. Epinephrine: Physiologic antagonist of histamine

Front 296

What are the advantages of Midazolam conpared to diazepam?

Back 296

Midazolam is not dissolved in propylen glycol, thus there is no risk of thrombophlebite.It does not generate active metabolites, thus has a short half life .more rapid and predictable onset.

Front 297

what do you inject to stop the effect of benzodiazepine?

Back 297

Flumazoline

Front 298

what are the main causes of gingival enlargement

Back 298

Calcium channel blockers: Nefedipine/VerapamilPhenitoin and cyclosporine

Front 299

Side effects of ACE inhibitors are: CAPTOPRIL

Back 299

Cough, ;angioedema(swelling of the tongue), potassium excess, taste changes, orthostatic hypotension, pregnancy contra indication, rash, indomethacin inhibition, liver toxicity

Front 300

An asmathic patient to whom we need to give a beta blocker, which one sould we give?

Back 300

Metaprolol, because it is selective to beta 1 and does not cause side effects of beta2 blockage.

Front 301

If we need to give a beta blocker to a pregnant woman, what should we give?

Back 301

Labetalol, because it has an alpha 1 blocker, so it reduces the hypertension that a pregnant woman can have.And it has a beta1 blocker function as well

Front 302

What is the maxium recommanded dose of lidocaine in a child, depending on the weight in pound and kilos? Good Luck!`

Back 302

2-3.2 mg / Pound Or4.5-7 mg /kilo

Front 303

What are the causes for an antibio prophylaxy in cardiac problems

Back 303

Congenital heart disease.artificial valve.antecedant of endocarditiscardiac transplantation with valvulopathies.

Front 304

Metronidazole is contraindicated when the patient takes alcohol, and being treated by?

Back 304

disulfiram( which is the treatment for chronic alcoholism)

Front 305

Celecoxib is a NSAID that is different from other NSAID like ibuprofene because it?

Back 305

Does not cause gastro intestinal ulcer, simply because it inhibits COX 2( which is responsible for inflammation and pain ) and not CoX 1 like other NSAID ( which is responsible for the protection of the GI)

Front 306

Codeine is a pro product that is tranformed to morphine by a liver enzyme.It 's conversion can be inhibited by the selective serotonine reuptake inhibitors like

Back 306

FluoxetineParoxetineSertraline

Front 307

What is MonteLucka useful for?

Back 307

It is a cortico steroid tha is useful to reduce inflammation

Front 308

the class of anesthetic that cause the most allergic reactions are?

Back 308

Ester anesthetics: Because of the excipient that is para amino benzoic Acid.Propoxicaine.Procaine.Cocaine.Tetracaine

Front 309

Sulfonylurea increase insulin secretion,It contains these two variants

Back 309

GlipizideGlyburide

Front 310

what is ERYC?

Back 310

Erythromycin delayed release.It is coated so it has a delayed release.

Front 311

what are the medications that you can give to treat pseudomonas aeruginosa Clue: the mnemonic is PCT

Back 311

PiperacillingCarbanicillingeTicarcilline.

Front 312

what is the maximum dose of Articaine that we can give to either an adult or a child in one appointment, knowing that it is related to the weight

Back 312

7mg/kg

Front 313

azole" = azole-type antifungal drugs (e.9., clotrimazole). "coxib" = COX-2 inhibitors fe&, celecoxib). "dipine" = dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g., nicardipine). "olol" = beta-adrenergic receptor blockers (e.g., naclolol ). "ilol" or "alol" = beta-adrenergic receptor blocker that also blocks alphal-adrenergic receptors(e.g., canedilol or labetalol)

Back 313

"osin" = alphar-adrenergic reccptor blockers (e.g., terazosin). "pril" - ACE inhibitors (e.g., enalapril). "sartan": angiotensin II receptor blockerc (e.9., olmesartan). "statin" = HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (e.9., atoflastatin)"onium" or "urium" : quatemary ammonium compounds, usually competitive peripheral actingskeletal muscle relaxers (e.9., pancuronium)

Front 314

Acid stable penicilhns (may be used orally) include:. Penicillin VK. Amoxicillin. Ampicillin. Nafcillin. Oxacillin. Cloxacillin. DicloxacillinExtended spectrum penicillins include:. The aminopenicillins - Ampicillin and Amoxicillin

Back 314

Broad spectrum penicillins include:. Piperacillin. Ticarcillin*** These two penicillins have the widest spectrum ofall the penicillinsPenicillinase-resistant penicillins include:. Nafcillin. Oxacillin. Cloxacillin. Dicloxacillin

Front 315

NSAIDs can inhibit the antihypertensive effect of?

Back 315

ACE inhibitors, betablockers.and diuretics.

Front 316

what two drugs would you give to a patient who has arthritis

Back 316

Piroxycam(Feldene).Prednisone.

Front 317

name three anti cholinesterase inhibitors that are prescribed for Alzeihmer's disease? Hint: Mnemonic for the initials : DRuG

Back 317

DonepezilRivastigmineGalantamine

Front 318

What is Amyl Nitrite?What is its orginal function?As a second function, how does it neutrilize cyanide?

Back 318

it is a nitroglycerinvaso dilator in the treatment of Angina PectorisIt neutralizes cyanide by oxidizing hemoglobin into Methemoglobin wich binds cyanide tightly prenventing it from going to tissues

Front 319

Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker, but has also an anti arythmic function by treating......

Back 319

Paroxysmal supraventricular tachicardia. Only Verapamil and Diltiazem are calcium channel blockers that have anti arythmic functions

Front 320

How we call hair loss in chemathrapy treatment

Back 320

Alopecia

Front 321

What treatment would you give to reduce the symptoms of altitude sickness. Hint: it is a cabonic anhydrase inhibitor

Back 321

Acetazolamide

Front 322

You cannot give the anti fungic and triazolam(aid for sleep) together to the patient because

Back 322

the anti fungal drugs inhibit the enzyme that metabolizes triazolam, thus making its levels higher in blood.

Front 323

Name three medications for Gout disease

Back 323

ProbenecidAllopurinolcholchicine

Front 324

Name three medications used in treatment of mercury poisoning

Back 324

DimecaprolPenicillinamineBritish Anti-Lewisite (BAL)

Front 325

When drugs end in mum like pimecrolimum , it is what kind of drugs

Back 325

Immuno supressant

Front 326

When drugs end in mab, like adalimumab, it is what kind of drugs

Back 326

Monoclonal antibodies

Front 327

Alcohol is synergistic with....Name 4 categories of drugs

Back 327

diazepam (Valium), narcotics, barbiturates and phenothiazines.

Front 328

* Aspirin/Acetaminophen/NSAIDso NSAIDS-block cox/ prostaglanding synthesis, anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic; ie ASA, ibuprofen, naproxen

Back 328

Cox 2 selective inhibitors will reduce pain & inflammation without risk of GI ulcers (ie celecoxib (Celebrex))* NSAIDs can inhibit antihypertensive effect of ACE inhibitors, B blockers and diuretics

Front 329

Name two sympatomimetics with indirect action

Back 329

Amphetamine and methylphenidatemosby's page298

Front 330

how does digitalis work, and what ion does it increase in the heart cells

Back 330

inhibits Na, k ATPaseIncreases calcium ions in the heart cells

Front 331

name each generation of cephalosporin

Back 331

1/ cefalexin2/ cefaclor3/ ceftriaxone4/ cefepim5/ cetaroline

Front 332

name some SSRI

Back 332

Fluoxetine

Paroxetine

Sertraline

Fluvoxamine

Citalopram

Front 333

Name MAO inhibitors

Back 333

Tranylcypromine

Phenelzine

Selegiline

Front 334

How does nitroglycerin exert its action molecularly

Back 334

increase the level of cGMP

Front 335

What is the molecule that penicillines inhibit in the cell wall synthesis

Back 335

Transpeptidase

Front 336

What enzyme does methotrexate inhibit

Back 336

Dihydropholate

Front 337

how does glipizide enhance insulin synthesis

Back 337

it closes ATP sensitive potassium channels

Front 338

how does Zalephon as a sedative act molecularly

Back 338

inhibits selectively benzodiazepine receptors

Front 339

read page 424 in

Back 339

mosby's

Front 340

what part of the brain do the anti psychotic drugs like phenothiazine target

Back 340

Nigrostriatal pathway

Front 341

what ion do benzodiazepines drugs target in the cell

Back 341

chloride

Front 342

what antibiotic lacks amine group and is only used as a cream

Back 342

benzocaine

Front 343

90 percent of penicillin is eliminated through what path

Back 343

tubular excretion.non metabolisedin half an hour

Front 344

____ has an antibacterial spectrum that is limited to anaerobes.A:AmoxicillinB:ClarithromycinC:ClindamycinD:GentamicinE:Metronidazole

Back 344

Amoxicillin, clarithromycin, and clindamycin are effective against some anaerobes, but their spectrum is not limited to anaerobic bacteria. Aminoglycosides are effective only against aerobes. The action of metronidazole requires a reduced environment. Its antibacterial spectrum is limited to anaerobes. Metronidazole is also effective against many parasites.

Front 345

Flumazenil blocks the receptors stimulated by which of the following drugs? (Choose all that apply.)A:BaclofenB:Buspirone C:Diazepam D:Zolpidem E:Zaleplon

Back 345

Flumazenil blocks both types of benzodiazepine receptors associated with γ-aminobutyric acid A (GABAA) channels, blocking the effects of diazepam, zaleplon, and zolpidem, the latter two being selective for the Bz1 receptor. Baclofen stimulates GABA B receptors, and buspirone is a partial agonist at serotonin 5-hydroxytryptamine 1A receptors.

Front 346

what are the nerves that contain parasympathic fibers

Back 346

3, 7, 9, 10

Front 347

The use of vasoconstrictors in anesthesia should be avoided when the patient is using : Give two types of drug

Back 347

Non selective beta blockers.TCA drugs

Front 348

Hyperyentilation in an anxious dental patient leads to

Back 348

carpopedal spasm(a spasm ofthe hand, thumbs, foot, or toes).

Front 349

Patient treated by Ketamine can develop Laryngospasm,We can treat them with two things, what are they?

Back 349

OxygenSuccinylcholine

Front 350

Patients having COPD and being treated with theophylline cannot receive what kind of antibiotics, and why

Back 350

Erythromycin, or clarithromycineBecause Erythromycin increases the metabolism of theophylline and may cause toxicity.

Front 351

Hyper esthesia has 3 sub categories, what are they?

Back 351

Hyper algesia: pain provoked by a naturally painful stimulus.Allodynia: pain provoked by a stimulus that is usually non painfulHyper pathia: subjective pain retalive to no stimulus

Front 352

what Cyst comes from dental lamina

Back 352

OKC

Front 353

where does the ameloblastoma come from

Back 353

Rests of Mallassez,Dentigerous CystEnamel organ

Front 354

where does dentigerous cyst come from

Back 354

reduced enamel epithelium

Front 355

if the diabetic patient is going to receive dental anesthesia and sedation , what attitude should he have

Back 355

reduce the insulin intake that day, and no eating before sedation

Front 356

What is the first thing to give to a patient who has an osteoradionecrosis manifestation without secondary infection

Back 356

Just saline rinses, and recommand good nutrition

Front 357

What is the yearly occupational and non occupational dose in terms of REM

Back 357

0.5 REM in non occupational

5 Rem in occupational

Front 358

When developping a film, what does cracked reticulation of the emultion mean?

Back 358

big difference in temperature between baths

Front 359

What do branching lines mean in a radiograph

Back 359

Static charges when opening the film rapidly

Front 360

What is the main difference between Pemphigus Vulgaris and Pemphigoid in terms of distribution

Back 360

Pemphigoid does not usually happen on the skin, but only in the oral cavity and yhe eyes

Front 361

When are thee systemic or topical antiviral only effective in herpes simplex

Back 361

in the prodromal phase

Front 362

How does Pleomorphic adenoma manifest extrabuccaly

Back 362

as a freely movable mass peri auricularly

Asymptomatic

Front 363

When we have a giant cell tumor or Brown Tumor in histology, what is the next exam that we should do

Back 363

Assess calcium level to know if it's brown tumor(initiate treatment only after calcium balance re establishment)

Or a Tumor( initiation enucleation)

Front 364

What is the pathogen that lives in pigeon excrements, and has a polysaccharide capsule that stains positive in musicarmine stain, and that affects Hiv positive patients

Back 364

Criptococcus Neoformans

Front 365

Multiple Myeloma is a painful pathology that affects 65 year old patients and manifests histologically as

Back 365

Glassy pink amorphous material

Front 366

What is the most two clear manifestation of Plumbism poisoning( Lead)

Back 366

Gingival lead line Burton's line.

Tremor of tongue and hypersialy

Front 367

What is acrodynia, and how does it manifest?

Back 367

mercury poisoning.

manifests like:

Metallic taste, enlargement of salivary glands and tongue

Front 368

What is the other name for monomorphic adenoma

Back 368

canalicular adenoma

Front 369

suspected malignancies should have what kind of biopsy

Back 369

incisional biopsy, to be able to evaluate the rest in the future

Front 370

When patients have breast or prostate cancer, metastasis to the bone are frequent, so we have to expect what when we treat them in the oral cavity

Back 370

We have to expect that they had biphosphonate therapy to avoid having bone metastasis, so they are prone to osteonecrosis

Front 371

For the last time:

Back 371

Pemphigus is supra basilar

Pemphigoid is subepithelial

Front 372

Hemophila is X linked recessif, this mean that ....

Back 372

only a mother carrier of hemophiliac can transmit the disease

Front 373

Herpes Zoster is treated by systemic antivirals, but when the tip of the tongue is affected, this means that the naso ciliary mucles is affected, so the attitude would be to .....

Back 373

refer the patient to an ophtalmologist

Front 374

What is the most frequent manifestation of squamous cell carcinoma

Back 374

non healing ulcer

Front 375

name the three pathologies that are auto immune and create ulcers in the oral cavity

Back 375

Celiac Sprue

Behcet

Crohn

Front 376

Explain what Christensen's phenomenon is

Back 376

the intermaxillary space created after the protrusion of the mandibule,

refers to the movement of the condyles downward and forward

Front 377

what are the three indications of labial bars

Back 377

absence of canines

periodontal health problem

Unfavorable teeth to soft tissue contour

Front 378

What is the function of beading or scribing(tracage) in the maxillary rpd

Back 378

increases strength and avoid food impaction under the rpd

Front 379

What kind of clasp do you use in classe one and two Kennedy

Back 379

RPI and RPA(rest, proximal plate,Ackers)

Front 380

What is the main use of wrought wire system in clasps

Back 380

reducing the torque of periodontally compromised teeth or endodontically treated.

Also used if the the retention is opposite to the fulcrum line

Front 381

What kind of clasp do you use in classe three

Back 381

circonferential

Front 382

what is the order of preference in a distal extension RDP

Back 382

RPI

RPC

Wrought wire

Front 383

describe the dimensions of guiding planes

Back 383

one third of the bucco lingual width

2 to 3 millimeters from the marginal ridge

Front 384

In fixed prothesis, what occlusal scheme would you choose for class 1 and 2 malocclusion

Back 384

classe 1: cusp ridge

classe 2 malocclusion: cusp fossa

Front 385

what is the compound that allows resin to bind to dentin

Back 385

4 MTA

Front 386

What are the furfacesa incriminated inthe non working side interference

Back 386

internal surfaces of the facial cusps of the mandibular molars

Front 387

When casting alloys, we have to use crucibles that are not contaminated by other alloys,

Back 387

Crucibles are not related to the gypsum type, but need to process only one type of alloy

Front 388

When pooring the cast for a complete prothesis, what is the width of the bead?

What is the thickness of the cast

Back 388

Bead: 3/8th

Thickness of cast : 16mm

Front 389

What is REALEFF

Back 389

Resiliency and like effect:

The resiliency of soft tissue compensate for limitations of the articulator

Front 390

when designing the RPD, that does the term surveying mean

Back 390

locating the height of contours on abutment teeth

Front 391

What is the indication of indirect retainer

Back 391

Classe 1 to prevent the movement of the denture in an occlusal direction

Front 392

Learn this

Back 392

under pressure, teeth move by 0.2 mm.

Tissues move by 1 mm

Front 393

How much should Wrought wire and cast metal width be

Back 393

Wrought wire : 0.02 inch
cast metal : 0.01 inch

Front 394

Finish line in RDP are the smooth lines between resin and metal.

What is the angulation for external finish line and internal finish line

Back 394

external: less than 90

internal = 90

Front 395

what is the modification of teeth order in RPD design:

Back 395

Parallel guiding planes

heights of contour

Retentive contours

rests

Front 396

In dental porcelain,

What is the function of

Feldspar

Quartz/silica

Kaolin

Back 396

Feldspar: matrix

Quartz/Silica: form the skeleton and give strength

Kaolin : binder

Front 397

Describe the two main reaction when glass ionomer as a luting agent is setting

Back 397

calcium binds to 2 cooH to form a soluble gel

Aluminium binds 3 cooh to for an insoluble cement

Front 398

o If pt complains that their “s” sound sounds more like “th”

Back 398

→incisors to far palatally or palate too thick

Front 399

What are the names of the refractory products that allow thermal expension of phosphate investement

Back 399

Quartz

Cristoballite

Front 400

give the ways we can make dental plaster

Dental stone

Die stone

Back 400

Dental plaster( Paris, Beta, type 2): heat the gypsum in 150 -160 dry.

Dental stone(type 3): heat in autoclave with steam at 120-130

Die stone: boil in 30 % cacl, or mgcl

Front 401

o Acrylic resins: explain the components

Back 401

Powder=PMMA polymer, benzoyl peroxide initiator, pigments

Liquid=MMA monomer, hydroquinone inhibitor, cross-linking agents, chemical activator (dimethyl-p-toluidine0—if self curing( reducing the shrinkage from 7 to 0.2)

Front 402

• Forward slide can be corrected by grinding mesial inclines of max teeth & distal inclines of mand teeth

Back 402

Protrusive interferences occur bt distal inclines of facial cusps of max & mesial inclines of facial cusps of mand

Front 403

o 4 theoretical determinants for restoring functional occlusal surfaces:

Back 403

amt of vertical overlap, contour of articular eminence, lateral shift in working condyle, position of the tooth in the arch

Front 404

o Balanced occlusion—occlusion of teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric & eccentric positions within the functional range •

What are it's determinants?

Back 404

5 factors: condylar guidance (dictated by pt), incisal guidance, occlusal plane, compensating curve, angle/height of cusps

Front 405

o Porcelain attaches to metal via mechanical & chemical bonding (oxide layers)

Back 405

Fe is key in PFM bonding to gold based alloys; Cr is key in PFM bonding to gold-substitute alloys

Front 406

o Classification based on fusion (vitrification) temp:

Back 406

• High fusing—for denture teeth

• Medium fusing—for all ceramic & porcelain jacket crowns

• Low fusing—for PFM

Front 407

o Pickling of the metal when fabricating a pfm.

What is that?

Back 407

process of removing surface oxides from a casting prior to polishing; placed in an acidic soln

Front 408

if we want to gain more strength in the ceramic, we have to substitue quartz by

Back 408

Silica

Front 409

what is the main reason for fracture of the occlusal seat

Back 409

Inadequate rest seat preparation

Front 410

Balanced occlusion is more important during occlusion or swallowing

Back 410

Swallowing

Front 411

What is the other name for resin modified glass ionomer

Back 411

Compomer: it can be used as a liner, or as a secondary base after caoh2

Front 412

What is the minimum distance between the major connector and the free gingiva in the maxilla

Back 412

6 mm

Front 413

When checking the occlusion, what are the three things related to the shim lock that need to be verified

Back 413

the restoration holds to shim lock

the other teeth hold the shim lock

multiple spots appear when try the shim lock on occlusal surface

Front 414

When there is a problem sitting the FDP, what are the two things that are suspected first, and what are the two things that we should not suspect

Back 414

Suspected: proximal contacts and marginal integrity.

Not suspected: axial contours and occlusion

Front 415

What is the thing that allow us to conserve the anterior guidance when restoring anterior teeth

Back 415

Custom incisal guide table

Front 416

Define Metamerism

Back 416

a color difference between two objects under different lighting conditions

Front 417

What are the two main signs of a crack in the tooth

Back 417

pain while shewing.

Pain in cold

sometimes discoloraiton of the cusp that contains the crack

Front 418

What is the requirement in reduction for a zirconia crown

Back 418

same as a metal crown: 1.5 in holding cusps and 1 in non holding cusps

Amalgam restoration and ceramo-metallic have same depth: 1.5 and 2 for holding

Front 419

What is the the main difference between cast ceramic and feldspthic porcelain in indirect restoration of teeth

Back 419

Feldspathic restoration causes more wear than cast ceramic to opposite teeth

Front 420

Name the two features that are considered primary retention in amalgam preparation

Back 420

Grooves and locks

Front 421

describe bur 245

Back 421

3 mm long. 0,8 mm width

inverted cone , rounded angles

Front 422

discuss the different approaches of restoration depending on the depth of the excavation

Back 422

more than 2 mm left to the pulp: Gluma desensitizer.

btw 0.5 and 2 mm left: RMGI to obtain 2 mm thickness then, gluma desensitiser.

Pulp exposed: 0.5 caoh2 plus RMGI plus Gluma

Front 423

Hoe deep can the composite restoration go without any liner

Back 423

as deep as 0.5 mm of dentin remaining

If deeper than 0.5 mm, Caoh2 plus RMGI Plus resin

Front 424

What is the protocol for indirect restoration concerning the protection of the pulp

Back 424

more than 2 mm of dentin: nothing, not even liner like the amalgam.

0.5 to 2: RMGi

less than 0.5 mm: caoh2 plus RMGI

Front 425

what is Hollenbeck carver used for?

How about amalgam knife

Back 425

Hollenck: facial and lingual amalgam exess

amalgam knife: proximal exess

Front 426

• Indium—decr surface tension, decr Hg, reduce creep, incr strength, MUST BE USED IN ADMIXED (bc they need admixed more Hg)

Back 426

• Spherical alloys—need less Hg;

admixed alloys—require more Hg

Front 427

o Dimensional compensation via setting expansion & thermal expansion

Back 427

• Incr water→decreases expansion • Longer spatulation→more expansion • Longer time bt mixing & immersion in a water bath, the less it will expand

Front 428

o Ingredients of wax =

Back 428

paraffin wax (main ingredient),

gum dammar (improves smoothness),

carnauba wax (hard and decr flow of wax)

Front 429

• Hoe—

Back 429

cutting edge perpendicular to axis of the hand; used for Class II and V preps for direct gold •

Front 430

Angle former—

Back 430

used for sharpening line angles & useful to form convenience points for gold foil preps •

Front 431

Ordinary hatchet—

Back 431

cutting edge directed in same plane of the handle; bibeveled; used to prepare retentive areas •

Front 432

Spoon—

Back 432

remove caries, carve amalgam

Front 433

o Enamel hatchet

Back 433

is only instrument that allows you to have proper access to margins & that will impart proper cavosurface angle to the margins

Front 434

The chisel family named their son CHAD

Back 434

Chisel

Hoes

Angle Former

Discoid and Cleoid

Front 435

The Hatchet family named their son HEG

Back 435

Hatchet

Excavator

Gingival marginal trimmer

Front 436

HIgh copper alloys contain 10 t 30 percent Cu by weight.

Copper reduces creep and increase strenght by what means

Back 436

reduce gamma 2 phase of amalgame

Front 437

Slots, pins and grooves, as secondary retention features have similar retentiveness

Back 437

denting bonding is still instable depending of the nature of dentin(sclerotic, .....), but it is not shown to be stronger than enamel

Front 438

A beveled shoulder design around a capped cusp of a gold onlay preparation is termed a

Back 438

a collar

Front 439

What are the requirements for dental core

Back 439

Circonference and vertical walls both more than 3 mm

Front 440

What is the most important indications of labial bars

Back 440

incisive and promolar inclunation

absence of canines

Front 441

describe the finish line for gold inlay proximal

metal

metallo ceramic

porcelain/full ceramic

Back 441

gold inlay proximal: shoulder bevel

metal: chamfer

metallo ceramic: chamfer

porcelain/full ceramic: shoulder

Front 442

What is the protocol for BRONJ

Back 442

if patient is taking oral biphosphonate more less than 3 years: no adjustement, you can proceed with implants

More than three years: 3 Months of drug vacation are required prior to surgery

IV biphosphonate is an absolute contra indication for implants, but not oral Biphos.

Front 443

What are the nerves anesthetised by the Gaw gates technique

Back 443

inferior alveolar

auriculo temporal

mylohyoid

Lingual

long buccal: 75 % of time

Front 444

Explain the Thumb technique

Back 444

the hub of the seringe in alveolar nerve bloc should stop between first and second molar

Front 445

if you don't want to calculate the pediatric dose of anesthetic by Young's or Clark's rules you can....

Back 445

give one cartridge per 20 pounds of weight

Front 446

what would you inject if the patient turns chocolate colored because of methemoglobinemia

Back 446

IV injection of methyl blue 1-2mg/Kg over 5 minutes

Front 447

In emergency room , what does P 3 E mean

Back 447

P3: severe systemic disease + E= emergency

P4 : servere systemic disease with constant threat to life

Only P1(normal) and P2(mild systemic disease) patients are candidate for in office sedation

Front 448

Drugs with decreased blood solubility have what caracteristic?

Back 448

increased onset of action

Front 449

Drugs with increase lipid solubility have what caracteristic?

Back 449

more potent because it binds rapidly the lipid membrane receptors

Front 450

drugs with increase blood gaz partition coefficient have what caracteristic

Back 450

higher solubility and passage from lung to blood

Front 451

What is the approach that we can use to pop the fractured zygoma

Back 451

Gillies approach

Front 452

What are the causes of metabolic alcalosis

Back 452

Steroid

Cushing syndrome

Conn's syndrome

Vomiting

Diuritics

Front 453

What are the products that increase in kidney disease

Back 453

Potassium

Creatinine

Phosphorus

Front 454

What are the product that decreasse in metabolic alkalosis

Back 454

calmium

potassium

Front 455

what is the least invasive tmj surgical procedure

Back 455

Arthroscopy

NOte: arthrocentesis, which is even less invasive is not a surgical procedure

Front 456

During local anesthetic administration, the patient should be placed in a ____ position.

A:

Trendelenburg

B:

Supine

C:

Reclined

D:

Semisupine

Back 456

The supine position is correct. This position prevents fainting during or immediately after the injection of local anesthetic. Reclined or semisupine is not back far enough, and Trendelenburg is too far back.

Front 457

According to Malamed, slow injection is defined as the deposition of 1 mL of local anesthetic solution in not less than ____.

A:

15 seconds

B:

30 seconds

C:

60 seconds

D:

2 minutes

Back 457

Malamed recommended that one cartridge of local anesthetic be delivered over not less than 1 minute; 1 mL (one half cartridge) should be delivered over not less than ½ minute (30 seconds).

Front 458

In an adult of normal size, penetration to a depth of ____ mm places the needle tip in the immediate vicinity of the foramina, through which the posterior superior alveolar nerves enter the posterior surface of the maxilla.

A:

10

B:

16

C:

20

D:

30

Back 458

The proper depth of penetration for the posterior superior alveolar nerve is half the length (16 mm) of a long needle or three fourths the length (15 mm) of a short dental needle. Penetration beyond 16 mm has a significantly higher incidence of positive aspiration and hematoma formation.

Front 459

According to Malamed, the maximum local anesthetic dose of lidocaine (with or without vasoconstrictor)
is ____.

A:

1.5 mg/kg

B:

2.0 mg/kg

C:

4.4 mg/kg

D:

7.0 mg/kg

Back 459

Malamed recommended that a maximum of 4.4 mg/kg (2.0 mg/lb) of lidocaine be administered regardless of whether vasoconstrictor is in the formulation. The package insert for lidocaine allows up to 7 mg/kg when lidocaine is packaged with vasoconstrictor.

Front 460

Which local anesthetic is most hydrophobic and has the highest degree of protein binding?

A:

Mepivacaine

B:

Lidocaine

C:

Bupivacaine

D:

Procaine

Back 460

Lipid solubility (hydrophobicity) and protein binding are the most important factors in determining duration of action of a local anesthetic. Bupivacaine has the longest duration of action of the local anesthetics listed and has the highest hydrophobicity; it is bound 95% to protein. The other agents have lower hydrophobic qualities and are bound 75% or less to protein.

Front 461

Which class of dental anesthetics have the shortest half life

Back 461

the esters because they are metabolised i the blood.

Note articaine which is an amide has an ester bond, which makes it have a short half life

Front 462

What is the effect of local anesthetics on the heart

Back 462

Deacrease the maximum rate of depolarization of Purkinje fibers and nyocardium

Front 463

What is the innervation of tensor veli palatini

Back 463

nerve 5

Front 464

What is the innervation of levator veli palatini

Back 464

nerve 10

Front 465

What is the action of the cervical branch of the facial nerve

Back 465

retraction and depression of the angle of the mouth

Front 466

In what space do you find Stenson's duct

Back 466

the buccal space

Front 467

Does a patient with mitral valve prolase with regurgitation require antibioprophylaxy

Back 467

no.

The new guide lines don't require it

Front 468

in case of implantology in a penicillin allergic patient

Back 468

600 mg one hour before is enough.

don't add anything after that

Front 469

How to calculate the maining oxygen in an E cylinder

Back 469

pressure remaining* 0.3/10.

Exemple:

pressure remaining: 1000 psi.

so oxygen remaining: 1000*0.3/10 = 30 minutes.

if the cylinder attains 1000 psi, it has to be replaced

Front 470

What is the first treatement of the tmj when non surgical tretments fail

Back 470

arthrocentesis: which is not a surgical treatement

Front 471

Mepivacain is the only anesthetic that is packaged in both 2 and 3 % concentrations

Mepivacain has also the lowest PKa of 7.7

Back 471

Lido: 2 %

Bupi: 0.5

Arti: 4 %

Articaine has the highest concentration of anesthtic : 4 %

Front 472

• Coronal root fracture—poor prognosis, splint 6-12wks

Back 472

• Midroot fracture—splint 3wks

Front 473

During Root canal treatment , what is transportation

Back 473

exessive removal of the outside curve of the apical half of the canal

Front 474

Explain the process of fabrication of reamer, K file and Hedstrom

Back 474

Reamer: twisting stainless steel: triangular, square

K file: grinding stainless: diamond, triangular, square: can be used as reaming or push pull

Hedstrom: cutting the spiral flutes

Front 475

What are the group of pathogens that first infect the root canals.

What are the group of pathogen that is found after the debridement of the canal

Back 475

First: Gram negative bacteria

Second: Gram positive facultative anaerobes

Front 476

What is J hook head gear

Back 476

it is a sort of high pull head gear that is mostly used for anterior arrangement rather than for orthopedic purposes

Front 477

What are the two appliances that are considered fixed rather than removable for patient who are not compliant

Back 477

Pendulum appliance

Forsus Fatigue resistant device

Front 478

In total prothesis, what is the cause of occlusion shunt

Back 478

the occlusal plane is lower in molar region

Front 479

calcification times for permanent teeth

Back 479

first molar: birth

All anterior teeth beside lateral: 6 months

maxillary lateral : 12 months

first premolar: 18 monhts

second premolar: 24 months

second molar: 30 months

Third molar: 8-9 years

Front 480

how long does it take for a perament crown to complete formation

Back 480

4 to 5 years for all teeth, exept first molar(3 years), and canine 6 years

10 years total for the teeth to form , exept , canine 13 years

Front 481

What are the pathologies that have microdontia

Back 481

CHED , just lear this mnemonic

Front 482

What are the pathologies that have macrodontia:

Hint: 2 pathologies only :

Mnemonic: HO

Back 482

Hemihypertrophy

otodental syndrome

Front 483

Dilaceration is a very common finding in what pathology

Back 483

Congenital Ichthyosis

Front 484

What is the role of functional inquiry in dealing with children

Back 484

evaluate main concern

evaluate the cooperative ability

Front 485

what are the indicaitions and contra indicaitons of aversive techniques

Back 485

indications: momentary uncontrolled and defiant

Contra indicaitons: timid, tense cooperative

Front 486

What is the innervation of the maxillary molars

Back 486

middle superior alveolar nerve for maxillary temporary first molar, not the PSAN, and infiltration is enough.

PSAN innervates the max temp second molar: we need to anethetize it plus infiltration

In the mandibule, always do a nerve block for deep caries, RCT and extraction, because infiltration is reserved for minor caries

Front 487

What are the four plateaus of stage 1 anesthesia(analgesia)

Back 487

Paresthesia: tingling

Vasomotor: warm sensation

Drifting: euphoria, pupils fixed, sensation of floating

Dream: eye close but react to speech

Front 488

Fixed Kiddie partials is intended for which age, and what wire diameter we use?

Back 488

less than 3 years old.

0.036 -0.040

Front 489

What is the indication of a lower lingual holding arch with a spur

Back 489

loss of unilateral mandibular temporary canines .

The spur function is to prevent the drift of the lateral incisive. So it is only indicated when the drift didn't happen yet.

Front 490

Extrusion of primary teeth .

What do you do if it's more than 3 mm.

If the blood clot didn't form yet?

Back 490

if it's more than 3 mm: extraction

if the blood clot didn't form yet: reposition, splint 7 to 14 days, endo.

Front 491

What is the wire size in splinting one tooth.

and many teeth

Back 491

one tooth: 0.016-0.022 if orthodontic wire.

or 0.018 mm if round wire

Many teeth: 0.028mm

Front 492

Late mesial shifl of mandibular first molar can correct an end to end molar relationship to a class 1 relationship, but we increase the crowding of the buccal teeth by how much

Back 492

1.7mm

Front 493

What is the Tanaka Johnoson analysis:

It calculates the the buccal segment lenght of permanent teeth(canine , 1st premolar, 2nd premolar) based on the inferior permanent incisives

What is the formulation for the lower?

what is the fomulation for the upper

Back 493

L/2 + 10.5 mm in lower.

L/2 + 11 mm in upper.

Exemple: length of lower permanent incisives is 22 mm.

Estimated lower buccal segment: 22.5.

Estimated upper buccal segement : 23mm

Front 494

Pit an fissure sealant result in the formation of an enamel hibrid layer of how large?

it reduces the caries of how much

Back 494

40 um

reduces the caries by 60 %

Front 495

What is the most common temporary congenitally missing tooth?

Back 495

maxillary lateral

Front 496

o Largest primary tooth is mand 2nd molar; mand lateral is smallest primary tooth

Back 496

syndromes having both Hypo and hyperdontia: ChOD

microdontia: CHED

Macro dontia: HO

Hyperdontia: CGDSCH

Taurodontism: TODEKA

Front 497

What is the most common impacted tooth

Back 497

maxillary canine

Front 498

crenetism causes enlarged tongue and delayed eruption

Back 498

Rickets causes delayed eruption

Front 499

in edgewise brackets, the magnetude of the forces generated depends of the bracket size

Back 499

Twin bracket and single wing bracket both are used to gain more rotaitonal control

Front 500

What are the reasons the orthodontist uses non rigid archwire at the beginning of treatment

Back 500

Because the rigid wire may fracture the appliance.

the rigid wire may be permanently deformed

a non rigid wire is more pliable , thus more appropriate for the beginning of the treatment

Front 501

In orthodontia, what does an open coil spring help do

Back 501

upright teeth when it expends

Front 502

What is tipping of a tooth, and what is the difference with rotation

Back 502

tipping is the movement of tooth crown and rooth in opposite direction.

Rotation is the movement of a tooth around the long axis of the tooth

Front 503

What is the observable in the dark zone of orthodontic heavy and light forces within 4 hours

Back 503

Heavy forces: cell death.

Light forces: cAMP

Front 504

what, among translation and intrusion require more force

Back 504

translation

Front 505

The left molar is in class 2 wheras the right molar is in a classe 1. What is the relationship named?

Back 505

Classe2 div 1 subdiv left

Front 506

What is the difference between the edgewise and the Begg appliance

Back 506

Edgewise has horizontal slots while the Begg has vertical slotsa

Straight wire appliane has a slots that have prescription in them

Front 507

Name 4 analysis used in cephalometric radiographs

Back 507

Steiner.

Wits

Downs

Cogs

Front 508

What is Bolton's discrepency

Back 508

difference in size between maxillary and mandibular teeth

Front 509

Is the anterior cross bite correction maintained thanks to the overjet or the over bite created

Back 509

the overbite created

Front 510

Is condylar cartilage concidered a critical growth center of the mandibule or not

Back 510

no.

The mandibule can grow even if the condyle is injured

Front 511

What is the single most importrantn idicator of joint function

Back 511

the amount of maximum opening

Front 512

what are the general TMD classifications

Back 512

Internal joint pathology and myofacial pain

Front 513

Never replant a primary avulsed tooth

Back 513

gemination gives two crown on a single root.

Fusion gives fused rooths but still two seperate canals

Front 514

the shape of a tooth is determined in what stage?

Back 514

Cap: proliferation

Front 515

What are the materials that are indicated in high carious risk patient

Back 515

Gi, compomer, stainless steel crown

Not resin

Front 516

in intruded permanent teeth, the puppectomy after traction should be done with CAOH2

Back 516

in natal or neonatal teeht, extraction shouldn't be done systematically

Front 517

What is the biologic width of around the implant.

what is the distance between the epithelium and the crestal bone.

Back 517

o Epithelium forms apically to approx 1-1.5mm from crestal bone around the implant

Front 518

o Phases of periodontal treatment plan:

Back 518

• Preliminary phase—emergencies •

Phase I—caries control, ext hopeless teeth, mouth preparation (SRP), plaque control, OHI, occlusal adjustment, night guards, splinting, re-examination

• Phase II—perio surgery

• Phase III—restorative • Phase IV—maintenance

Front 519

what is the nature of the sulcular epithelium

Back 519

non keratinized squamous epithelium WITHOUT RETE Pegs.

RETE PEGS appear when there is inflammation

Front 520

• Chisel scalers—for proximal surfaces too closely spaced to permit use of other scalers esp ant part of mouth

Back 520

• Hoe scalers—for scaling ledges or rings of calculus

Front 521

Junctional epithelium is made of internal basal lamina, and external basal lamina.

The internal basal lamina is facing the tooth and also called epithelial attachment.

What are the three components of the epithelial attachment

Back 521

Hemi demosomes, then lamina densa, then lamina lucida

Front 522

learn these medications that cause gingival hyperplasia

Back 522

immunosuppressive mycohenolate.

antidepressant sertraline.

the antipsychotic pimozide

the interferon alpha 2 beta

Front 523

Give the two nomenclature for the gingival inflammation

Back 523

Initial/Transient/incipient: PMN dominant

early /developping: lymphocytes dominant

Chronic/ established: plasma cell dominant.

Front 524

Cells involved in acute ainlammation include basophils, tissue mast cells and platelets

Back 524

these three cells are the only ones that secrete histamines

Front 525

explain the severity of the periodontitis related to the clinical attachment loss mesures

Back 525

Slight periodontitis: 1-2mm

Moderate : 3-4mm

Severe: equal or more than 5mm

Front 526

Explain what is the rule of thumb when performing crown lengthening.

Back 526

we need 3mm from the alveolar crest to the margin of the preparation

we need 2 mm of sound tooth to be retentive.

Total: 5 mm

Front 527

name the three kinds of healing mechanisms after periodontal treatment

Back 527

Regeneration(of bone, cementum, pdl)

Repair (by scar)

New attachment(embedding of new pdl)

Front 528

What is the acyclovir posology

Back 528

15 mg/kg 5 times daily for 7 days

Front 529

What is the cellular source of the final tissue of the free gingival graft

Back 529

the connective tissue , and specifically the underlying lamina propria which is 0.75 mm deep

Front 530

What is the dose of nitroglycerin given to an anginal crisis

Back 530

0.3 mg nitroglycerin every 5 minutes

Front 531

A patient presents with exactly 30 percent of 5 mm CAL, is this periodontitis generalized or localized

Back 531

Generalized.

Anything that is 30 % or more should be classified as generalized

Front 532

What is the radiographic appearance of calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor(Pindborg)

Back 532

Snow driven flackes in radiolucency

Front 533

what is the difference between radiographic mottle and contrast

Back 533

contrast is the range of densities on a radiograph, and radiographic mottle is an uneven density on a radiograph

Front 534

Name four techniques to reduce the gingival pocket

Back 534

Ossous surgery.

Gingivectomy.

Apically positioned flap.

Guided tissue regeneration

But: connective tissue graft is used for root coverage not pocket reduction