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435 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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IgA
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an antibody and, in its secretory form, is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, including tears, saliva, colostrum, intestinal juice, vaginal fluid and secretions from the prostate and respiratory epithelium. It is also found in small amounts in blood. Because it is resistant to degradation by enzymes, secretory IgA can survive in harsh environments such as the digestive and respiratory tracts, to provide protection against microbes that multiply in body secretions.
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IgD
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an antibody isotype that makes up about 1% of proteins in the plasma membranes of immature B-lymphocytes where it is usually coexpressed with another cell surface antibody called IgM. IgD is also produced in a secreted form that is found in very small amounts in blood serum. Secreted IgD is produced as a monomeric antibody with two heavy chains of the delta (δ) class, and two Ig light chains. Function unknown.
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IgE
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antibody (or immunoglobulin "isotype") that has only been found in mammals. It plays an important role in allergy, and is especially associated with type 1 hypersensitivity.[1] IgE has also been implicated in immune system responses to most parasitic worms[2] like Schistosoma mansoni, Trichinella spiralis, and Fasciola hepatica,[3][4][5] and may be important during immune defense against certain protozoan parasites such as Plasmodium falciparum.[6] Although IgE is typically the least abundant isotype - blood serum IgE levels in a normal ("non-atopic") individual are ~75 ng/ml, compared to 10 mg/ml for the IgGs (the isotypes responsible for most of the classical adaptive immune response) - it is capable of triggering the most powerful immune reactions.
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IgG
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a multimeric immunoglobulin, built of two heavy chains γ and two light chains. Each complex has two antigen binding sites. This is the most abundant immunoglobulin and is approximately equally distributed in blood and in tissue liquids, constituting 75% of serum immunoglobulins in humans.[1] This is the only isotype that can pass through the human placenta, thereby providing protection to the fetus in its first weeks of life before its own immune system has developed. It can bind to many kinds of pathogens, for example viruses, bacteria, and fungi, and protects the body against them by complement activation (classic pathway), opsonization for phagocytosis and neutralisation of their toxins. IgG can cause food allergy, and in such causes delayed-onset food allergy, in contrast to food allergy by IgE, whose effects appear rapidly.
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IgM
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a basic antibody that is present on B cells. It is the primary antibody against A and B antigens on red blood cells. IgM is by far the physically largest antibody in the human circulatory system. is particularly effective at complement activation. IgM antibodies appear early in the course of an infection and usually do not reappear after further exposure. IgM antibodies do not pass across the human placenta.
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What is a keloid?
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a type of scar which results in an overgrowth of tissue at the site of a healed skin injury. (collagen fibers)
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miliary tuberculosis is spread through what medium?
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blood
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What causes Turner's syndrome?
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lacking an X chromosome for females. Only have 1 X-chromosome causing decreased sex characteristics of the individual.
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Classic hemophilia is due to a deficiency of normal Factor VIII which in turn is due to a genetic deficiency that is
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sex-linked ressesive
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A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from
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striated muscle tissue
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Antiseptics differ from disinfectants in that antiseptics
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are applied to living tissues
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Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?
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Facultative streptococci
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Which of the following genera most frequently develops resistance to penicillin?
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Staphylococcus
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The disease characterized by radiolucent bone lesions, anemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and one or more bone marrow tumors containing predominantly plasma cells is
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multiple myeloma
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Why is elevated serum lipase more useful in diagnosing acute pancreatitis than elevated serum amylase?
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"It is usually not necessary to measure both serum amylase and lipase. Serum lipase may be preferable because it remains normal in some nonpancreatic conditions that increase serum amylase including macroamylasemia, parotitis, and some carcinomas. In general, serum lipase is thought to be more sensitive and specific than serum amylase in the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis"
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Which of the following forms of oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular, and genital lesions?
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Behcet's
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The primary function of SlgA is thought to be
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prevention of penetration of mucosa by microorganisms.
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A person's blood is mixed separately with anti-A serum, anti-B serum, and anti-Rh serum. Agglutination occurs in each case. This person has what blood type?
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Rh (+) type AB
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Coughs productive of purulent sputum are most often associated with which of the following conditions?
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Chronic bronchitis and Chronic lung abscess
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Which of the following antifungal drugs impair ergosterol synthesis? (a) Nystatin; (b) Griseofulvin; (c) Amphotericin B (d) Potassium iodide
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(a) and (c) only
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One week ago, two teeth were extracted because of periapical abscesses. Drainage of a soft, fluctuant swelling in the area of extraction elicits a quantity of foul-smelling, purulent material. Why would the organisms Bacteroides and Peptostreptococcus likely to be involved and not Salmonella or Clostridium?
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found in normal flora of the mouth
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Endospores are formed by which of the following genera? : (a) Bacillus; (b) Micrococcus; (c) Actinomyces; (d) Clostridium (e) Corynebacterium
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(a) and (d)
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Which of the following tumors arise from the adrenal medulla? (a) Schwannoma; (b) Wilms' tumor; (c) Neuroblastoma; (d) Carcinoid tumor (e) Pheochromocytoma
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(c) and (e)
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Which of the following viruses may be transmitted from man to man by inhalation of respiratory droplets generated by talking or sneezing by infected patients? : (a) Rubeola; (b) Adenoviruses; (c) Influenza virus (d) Varicella-zoster virus
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All the above
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Does 2% gluteraldehyde kill bacterial spores?
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yes
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How long does it take for 2% gluteraldehyde to kill spores?
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10 hrs
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The proper time and temp for autoclaving is: A) 320F (177C) for 2 hours B) 250F (121C) for 15-20 min C) 450F (232C) for 5 min D) 89F (31C) for 10 hrs
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B
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The proper time for dry heat sterilization is: A) 320F (177C) for 2 hours B) 250F (121C) for 15-20 min C) 450F (232C) for 5 min D) 89F (31C) for 10 hrs
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A
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To positively destroy all living organisms, the minimum, required temperature is what?
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121C (250F)
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What is the time frame for ethylene oxide sterilization?
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10-16 hours
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which of the following is(are) used as a handwash(ing) agent? A) Chlorhexidine gluconate B) Triclosan C) Isopropyl alcohol
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Chlorhexidine gluconate and Triclosan
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What is the most severe skin tumor? What is the most common skin tumor? What skin cancer accounts for more than 90% of malignant cancers of the oral cavity?
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A) Malignant melanoma B) Basal cell carcinoma C) Squamous Cell carcinoma
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What is the difference between a sarcoma and carcinoma?
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Carcinomas are epithelial in origin and sarcomas are of supportive or connective tissue origin
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What are the benign and malignant forms of muscle neoplasms?
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Benign - rhabdomyoma Malignant - rhabdomyosarcoma
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What does the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells indicate?
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Hodgkin's disease
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Multiple myeloma is a cancer of what?
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Plasma cells
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What does the presence of Bence Jones protein indicate?
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multiple myeloma
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What is an adenocarcinoma?
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a carcinoma of glandular epithelium
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What is a pheochromocytoma?
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chronic chromaffin-cell tumor of the adrenal gland medulla that excretes excess catecholamines (epi and norepinephrine).
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what tumor is composed of small round blue cells and is classified as a peripheral neuroectodermal tumor?
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Ewing's sarcoma
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What is urticaria?
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hives
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Which valves are most effected by rheumatic fever?
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mitral and aortic
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What is Epstein-Barr Virus associated with?
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Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, infectious monomucleosis, and hairy leukoplakia
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osteophyte (bony spur) formation is an cardinal feature of what disease?
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osteoarthritis NOT rheumatoid arthritis
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Describe the physiological functions of vitamin A.
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helps maintain normal body growth and health of specialized tissues, especially the retina
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Describe the physiological functions of vitamin D.
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Essential in formation of bone
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Describe the physiological functions of vitamin E.
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Antioxidant
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Describe the physiological functions of vitamin K.
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involved in clotting of blood.
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What disease is associated with hypothyroidism? What disease is associated with hyperthyroidism?
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a) myxedema b) grave's disease and plummer's disease
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A dificiency in what leads to Pellagra?
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B3 (niacin)
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A dificiency in what leads to Cheilosis & glossitis?
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B2 (riboflavin)
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A dificiency in what leads to cheilosis, glossitis, & anemia?
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B6 (pyridoxine)
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A dificiency in what leads to megaloblastic anemia (ie pernicious anemia)?
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B12 (cobalamin)
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A dificiency in what leads to megaloblastic anemia; neurologic dysfunction is not a feature.
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Folic Acid
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A dificiency in what leads to scurvy?
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Vitamin C
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What does an infection of chlamydia trachomatis cause?
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Trachoma - eye infection that can lead to blindness but is preventable.
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What lipid storage disease is caused by a genetic defect in the enzyme sphingomyelinase?
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Neimann-Pick disease
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What lipid storage disease is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hexosaminidase?
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Tay-Sachs disease - results in the accumulation of gangliosides in the brain and nerve tissue.
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What lipid storage disease is caused by a dificiency of the enzyme alpha-galactosidase?
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Fabry's disease - characterized by glycolipid accumulation in body tissues
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What lipid storage disease is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme glucocerebrosidase?
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Gaucher's disease - lease to an accumulation of glucosylceramide in storage compartments of certain cells in the body.
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what is acromegaly?
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over-secretion of growth hormone by ant. pituitary gland after normal growth of the skeleton has completed.
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What disorders cause splenomegaly (spleen enlargement)?
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Myelofibrosis - idiopathic disorder w/ bone marrow fibrosis. Polycythemia - disord. of blood cell precursors leading to excess RBC. Primary Thrombocythemia - incr. platelet count. Chronic myelogenous leukemia - incr. production of granulocytes
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What is pernicious anemia?
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lack of intrinsic factor (needed for B12 uptake...leads to lower RBC count)
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What is aplasatic anemia?
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inadequate production of RBC due to inhibition or destruction of red bone marrow
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What is phlebitis?
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inflammation of veins (mainly in legs)
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What anemia is not associated with drug use?
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microcytic anemia - iron deficient state
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What are purpura, petechiae, and ecchymoses?
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petechiae - very small pruplish discolorations in skin due to bleeding. purpura - medium. ecchymoses - very large.
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Deficiencies of what cause (1) hemophilia A, (2) hemophilia B, (3) hemophilia C?
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(1) Factor VIII (2) Factor IX (3) Factor XI All part of intrinsic pathway and will cause prolonged PTT but normal PT. Normal bleeding time as well.
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Emphysema causes a(an) (1) increase or (2) decrease in compliance?
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(1) - Compliance is the volume change per unit of pressure change across an elastic structure.
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Smoking is the major cause of (1) centrilobular or (2) panlobular emphysema?
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(1) - the lower lobes (panlobular) are caused by serum alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
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what causes pulmonary edema?
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increase in intracapillary hydrostatic pressure (due to pumping force of the heart) or an increase in capillary permeability.
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What is anthracosis?
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coal worker's pneumoconiosis, black lung disease. deposits of coal dust in the lungs. Not premalignant.
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What is the most common cause of lung abscesses?
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aspiration of bacteria (most often staphylococci). Characteristic symptom is the production of foul smelling sputum.
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What form of bilirubin is toxic?
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Free (unconjugated) - bilirubin attached to albumin or conjugated with flucoruonic acid is not toxic
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Which hepatitis is not an RNA virus?
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Hepatitis B - double-stranded DNA virus.
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What is the difference between Nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome?
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Nephrotic - condition characterized by marked proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and edema. Nephritic - RBC's in urine
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what bacteria cause glomerulonephritis?
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streptococcal infection
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What is cardiac tamponade?
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fluid accumulates in the pericardium (the sac in which the heart is enclosed). The elevated pericardial pressure puts significant pressure on the heart, causing a decrease in diastolic filling of the ventricles, and hence a low stroke volume. The end result is ineffective pumping of blood, shock and often death.
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What organ does not contain the enzyme creatine phosphokinase?
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Liver - phosphocreatine serves as an energy reservoir for the rapid regeneration of ATP. Thus Creatine Kinase is an important enzyme in such tissues. Clinically, creatine kinase is assayed in blood tests as a marker of myocardial infarction (heart attack), rhabdomyolysis (severe muscle breakdown) and in acute renal failure.
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What disease involves softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?
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osteomalacia
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what is the most powerful anaphylatoxin?
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C5a
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Type I hypersensitivity is due to an interaction of the antigen with what immunoglobulin?
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IgE
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What is the most frequently employed diagnostic lab technique for: 1) detection of antigens? 2) quantification of antigens or haptens?
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1) immunofluorescence 2) radioimmunoassay (RIA)
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complement activation is a feature of what?
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Type III hypersensitivity reactions
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Which complement pathway is antibody-independent?
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Activation of C3 called the Alternate Pathway
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What type of immunity provides long lasting protection?
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Active (passive would be short term/ immediate protection)
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Contact dermatitis is typically classified as what type of hypersensitivity?
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Type IV - delayed hepersensitivity
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What is Ludwig's angina?
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inflammation of floor of mouth often due to infection of roots of teeth.
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The botulinum toxin is a protease that does what?
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cleaves the proteins involved in acetylcholine release.
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What is leukocytosis?
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abnormally large number of leukocytes
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What is the Ghon tubercle?
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the lesion at the pulmonary site of primary TB infection
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what is the difference between epidemic, pandemic, and endemic?
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Epidemic - an infection that occurs much more frequently than usual Pandemic - World wide distribution. Endemic - constantly present at a low level in a specific population
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What is mallory weiss syndrome?
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characterized by mild to massive bleeding from an arterial vessel due to a tear in the mucosa of the cardia or lower esophagus
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What is DiGeorge syndrome?
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Thymus gland and parathyroid glands are malformed and dysfunctional or missing due to defects in the 3d and 4th pharyngeal pouches. Leads to repeated infections due to the immune system being compromised.
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What is Klinefelter's syndrome?
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male with 2 X chromosomes and 1 Y. Tall with small testicles.
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What is Turner's syndrome?
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(XO) Woman with only 1 X chromosome. infertile, absent or delayed menses.
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What must dentists be concerned with when dealing with a patient with Sjogren's syndrome?
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Dry mouth due to chronic inflammation of the salivary glands
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what is x-linked agammaglobulinemia (Bruton's agammaglobulinemia)?
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rare disorder characterized by the absence of the serum immunoglobulin IgG.
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What is severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID or "bubble boy disease")?
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Inherited immunodeficiency resulting from a failure of stem cells to differentiate properly. B nor T-lymphocytes are present and they are unable to any immunological response.
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name the disorder that results from a trisomy 21, 18, and 13.
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21 - Down Syndrome 18 - Edward's syndrome 13 - Patau's syndrome
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young plaque is dominated by...
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gram + cocci (streptococcus species) = 40-50% Gram + rods (lactobacillus species) = 10-40%
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What are the major contributors to dental plaque?
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Strep. Sanguis (produce H2O2) & Strep. Mutans (produce lactic acid)
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What bacteria may be related to dental caries?
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Strep. mutans.Actinomyces viscosus (root).strep. salivarius.strep. sanguis.Actinomyces naeslundii (root).actinomyces israeli.lactobacillus casei
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What should a person be evaluated for if they have rheumatoid arthritis and suddenly develop moderate caries?
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Sjogren's syndrome - autoimmune involvement with subsequent scarring of the salivary and lacrimal glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. Secondayr effects include parotid gland enlargement, dental caries, and recurrent tracheobronchitis.
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At what level in the skin do bullae MOST likely develop in a localized cutaneous infection around the mouth with phage group II Staphylococcus aureus?
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High in the epidermis
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Superior Vena Cava syndrome is related to malignancy in 85% of cases. The most common cause of SCV syndrome is what?
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Small cell carcinoma
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What is the principle host defense in mycobacterial infections (e.g. tuberculosis)?
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Cell-mediated immunity
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What species cause ear infections?
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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high concentrations of what is indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
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Fibrin degradation products
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Describe the conditions of the following for an individual which is actively infected with HBV: HBsAg, anti-HBs antibody, IgM anti-HBc, IgG anti-HBc, and HBeAg
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HBsAg - absent / anti-HBs antibody - absent / IgM anti-HBc - present / IgG anti-HBc - absent / HBeAg - absent
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Celiac sprue has what symptoms and is due to what?
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history of weight loss, diarrhea, flaulence, greasy stools, increased fecal fat, and marked atrophy of villi. Due to gliadin, a component of wheat.
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diarrhea in AIDS patients is dangerous when 2 organisms are responsible, what are they?
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Isospora belli,and Cryptosporidium parvum
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Describe Conn's syndrome
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Due to hyperaldosteronism. The increased miralocorticoid effects of aldosterone lead to renal sodium and water retention in exchange for renal potassium excretion. This will raise blood pressure
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Describe the lesion present in an adult with newly diagnosed tuberculosis.
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A single lesion in a lung apex
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Describe peutz-jeghers syndrome.
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freckles all over body including buccal mucosa, lips, palms, soles, and skin not exposed to sun. Also associated with colonic polyps.
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Describe karyorrhexis.
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pattern of nuclear degradation in which a pyknotic nucleus undergoes fragmentation followed by complete lysis.
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Describe karyolysis.
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Decrease in nuclear basophilia due to DNAse activity
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Describe pyknosis.
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Nuclear shrinking and basophilia as a result of DNA condensation.
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is it advisable to treat an individual with both a bacteriostatic and bactericidal antibiotic?
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NO - antagonism of the antibacterial effects of both agents results.
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What organism is an opportunist to burn victims?
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa
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What results from long-standing hypothyroidism in adults?
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myxedema
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What gram-positive rods can cause neonatal meningitis?
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Listeria monocytogenes
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What bacteria can cause neonatal meningitis?
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E. coli, L. monocytogenes, and Strep. agalactiae
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What is C-reactive protein?
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one of the most commonly measured acute-phase reactants, which are a group of serum proteins showing a rapid increase in concentration in response to any inflammatory process. Entirely nonspecific!
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What bacteria causes epiglottits, the most common disease of the upper respiratory tract?
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Haemophilus influenzae
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Describe acromegaly
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symptoms include gradual coarsening of facial features, progressive protrusion of the lower jaw, and larger hands and feet. Due to GH which is controlled by somatostatin and GHRH.
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What oral lesion is most likely to progress to a malignancy?
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Leukoplakia
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Chlamydia psittaci
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BIRDS!
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Pasteurella Multocida or Bartonella henselae or protozoa Toxoplasma gondii
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Cats!
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fungus Sporthrix schenckii
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Florist
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Brucella, a bacterium
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Acquired by handling infected animals (slaughterhouse workers)
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In the clotting process, as the hemostatic plug develops, fibrin polymerizes into monomeric threads that are held together by noncovalent bonds. Which clotting protein increases the strength of the clot by cross-linking the newly formed fibrin threads?
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Factor XIII
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Frothy urine is due to what?
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Protein in urine
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What causes a yellow foam in urine?
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Bilirubin
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What is sweet smelling urine due to?
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Glucose in urine
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What gives urine an acetone-like odor?
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Ketones
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What is the site of addition of recognition markers (e.g. mannose phosphate to enzymes)?
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Golgi Apparatus
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What stimulates the first reaction in the formation of cortisol? It converts cholesterol to pregnenolone.
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adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
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Swelling in the legs is going to be due most likely to what?
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decreased cardiac output leading to an increase in fluid retention from kidneys. This results in greater venous return leading to an increase in right atrial pressure. This increase in pressure will result in elevated pressure throughout the venous system leading to fluid loss in microcirculation (heading for lymph)
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Why does cardiac output increase in cases of severe anemia?
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Increase in arteriolar diameter due to hypoxia.
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In periods of starvation what blood element would be found to be at an elevated rate?
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Acetoacetic acid (a ketone body)
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Why do histone proteins bind tightly to DNA?
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Enriched in positive charged A.A. lysine and arginine which bind to the highly negative DNA
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100g of the following would yield how many kcal? 1) glucose 2) protein 3) fats
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1) 3.4 kcal/g x 100g = 340kcal 2) 4 kcal/g x 100g = 400kcal 3) 9 kcal/g x 100g = 900kcal
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What nucleotides require folate for single-carbon unit transfer for their synthesis?
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Adenosine, guanine, and thymidine
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Which amino acid is post translationally hydroxylated in the cytoplasm of fibroblasts?
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Proline - becomes hydroxyproline which is involved in stabilizing the three dimensional triple helix structure of collagen.
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What enzyme is inhibited by citrate?
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phosphofructokinase I - when there is sufficient energy and CA cycle slows, citrate leaves mitochondria and inhibits PFK-1 and thus slowing glycolysis
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What is the primary opsonin in the complement system?
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C3b (C3a binds to mast cells and basophils, activating them and producing histamine release)
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An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be expected to be deficient in what?
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tyrosine - phenylalanine hydroxylase catalyzes the synth. of tyrosine from phenylalanine. This enzyme is missing in this disease
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What cells are involved in type IV sensitivity reactions?
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TH1 CD 4+ lymphocytes
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A stretch of 25 hydrophilic A.A. in a protein could be found where?
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Triple helix - such as one found in collagen, is composed of three polylpeptide chains would together to form one structure
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A stretch of 30 hydrophobic A.A. in a protein could be found where?
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signal sequence, start and stop transfer sequence, and transmembrane domains
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What substance allows platelet adhesion to exposed collagen fibers following surgery?
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Von Willebrand factor
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Most of the testosterone secreted by the testes exists in the plasma in the form of what?
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Testosterone bound to sex-steroid-binding globulin
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What is the Lineweaver-Burke plot?
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10
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With time, blood stored in a blood bank tends to become relatively depleted of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate. What effect does this have on the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve?
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Shifts the curve to the left so that hemoglobin has an increased affinity for oxygen.
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What compounds regulate the frequency of GI slow waves? Amplitude?
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Frequency - Intrinsic pacemker regions within the smooth muscle Amplitude - CCK, corticosteroids, & sympathetics
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Acromegaly is a disease caused by what?
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hypersecretion of GH. This decreases the sensitivity of peripheral tissues to insulin resulting in elevated blood glucose levels
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Calcium binds to what in muscle contraction?
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Troponin C
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ATP binds to what in muscle contraction?
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myosin
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What blocks each actin filament groove preventing contraction in the absence of calcium?
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Tropomyosin
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How is serum different from plasma?
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Serum has had teh fibrinogen and coagulation factors II, V, and VIII removed.
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What is found in both plasma and serum?
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albumin
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How is norepinephrine degraded in the brain?
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Deamination by monoamine oxidase
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What has a high affinity for binding calcium and collagen in the calcigying matrix?
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osteonectin - secreted by osteoblasts during bone formation
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What will cause vascular smooth muscle to relax?
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adenosine
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Which muscle fiber type has greater amounts of mitochondria, slow-twitch or fast-twitch?
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Slow-twitch
|
|
|
(TorF) the hypothalamus is involved in the regulation of pupillary diameter.
|
F - The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is responsible
|
|
|
What is excreted from (1) the zona fasciculata and (2) zona glomerulosa?
|
(1) - Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
|
|
|
(TorF) Glucosuria is likely if the renal threshold for an individual is very high.
|
F - The renal threshold describes ability of the kidney to reabsorb filtered glucose. If the renal threshold is high, this would indicate the ability for the kidney to reabsorb most of the glucose if not all. Glucosuria is defined as the abnormal condition of osmotic diuresis due to excretion of glucose by the kidneys.
|
|
|
Describe Thalassemia.
|
hereditary imbalance in the synthesis of globulin chains (alpha or beta) leading to anemia
|
|
|
During glycogen synthesis, is UDP-glucose added to the reducing end or non reducing end?
|
non-reducing end.
|
|
|
What enzyme phosphorylates glycogen synthase?
|
Protein Kinase A
|
|
|
What enzyme dephosphorylates glycogen synthase?
|
Protein phosphatase
|
|
|
What is the rate limiting step in the pentose phosphate pathway?
|
Glucose-6-phosphate ---> 6-phosphogluconate by the enzyme G6P-Dehydrogenase
|
|
|
What product of PP pathway is needed in free radical elimination?
|
NADPH - keeps glutathione reduced so it can combat free radicals
|
|
|
What is the function of the non-oxidative phase of PP pathway?
|
regenerates Glu-6-phos.
|
|
|
What is the function of the PP pathway?
|
Produce NADPH which combats free radicals and participates in fatty acid synthesis. Also, formation of D-ribose for nucleic acid synthesis.
|
|
|
What enzyme is active in the phosphorylated form and degrades glycogen?
|
glycogen phosphorylase
|
|
|
What enzyme is only found in the liver and kidney?
|
glu-6-phosphatase
|
|
|
Von Gierke's disease results in the accumulation of glycogen in the liver due to a deficiency in what enzyme?
|
Glu-6-phosphatase
|
|
|
How long after eating does glycogenolysis begin mobalizing?
|
4 hrs
|
|
|
In gluconeogenesis, what form must the carbon backbone be in as it transports from the mitochondrail matrix to the cytosol?
|
malate
|
|
|
What enzyme combats the effects of pyruvate kinase?
|
There are 2, (1) pyruvate carboxylase located in matrix, and (2) PEP Carboxykinase located in the cytosol
|
|
|
What is the rate limiting step of cholesterol synthesis catalyzed by?
|
HMG-CoA Reductase
|
|
|
The synthesis of cholesterol requires what?
|
NADPH
|
|
|
What is the precursor of prostaglandins?
|
fatty acids
|
|
|
What are the essential fatty acids?
|
Linleic acid & Linolenic acid
|
|
|
What are the unsaturated fatty acids?
|
Palmitoleic acid Oleic acid Linoleic acid Linolenic acid Arachidonic acid
|
|
|
What degrades TAGs in the intestine?
|
intestinal lipase
|
|
|
Chylomicrons are found where?
|
blood stream and lymphatics
|
|
|
What degrades TAGs in the capillaries so they can enter the cells?
|
Lipoprotein Lipase
|
|
|
How are "free" fatty acids transported in the blood?
|
bound to albumin
|
|
|
What glycerophospholipid is the most abundant in cells?
|
Lecithin - made up of 2 fatty acid chains, glycerol backbone, phosphoric acid, and choline
|
|
|
What makes up myelin?
|
Sphingomyelin
|
|
|
Describe the structure of sphingolipids
|
1 FA, Sphingosine backbone, head group
|
|
|
What is the head group for sphingomyelin?
|
phosphocholine
|
|
|
What disease results from a sphigomyelinase deficiency?
|
Niemann-Pick disease
|
|
|
What disease results from a glucoderebrosidase deficiency?
|
Gaucher's
|
|
|
What disease results from a hexosaminidase A deficiency (GM2 gangliosides accumulate)?
|
Tay-Sachs disease
|
|
|
Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, & Leukotrienes are derived from what?
|
Arachidonic acid, a fatty acid component of the cell membrane
|
|
|
How is Arachidonic acid liberated from the phospholipid?
|
Phospholipase A2
|
|
|
What converts prostaglandins and/or thromboxanes from arachidonic acid?
|
Cyclooxygenase
|
|
|
What converts arachidonic acid into leukotrienes?
|
lipooxygenase
|
|
|
What do NSAIDS inhibit?
|
cyclooxygenase, therefore prostaglindin and thromboxane formation.
|
|
|
In de novo fatty acid synthesis, how does acetyl-CoA cross the mitochondrial membrane?
|
Combining with Oxaloacetate to form citrate then crosses and reverts back to the 2 constituents.
|
|
|
What enzyme forms citrate from Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate?
|
Citrate synthase
|
|
|
What enzyme is in the cytosol and converts citrate into oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA?
|
ATP-Citrate Lyase
|
|
|
What is the rate limiting step of de novo fatty acid synthesis?
|
The formation of malonyl CoA by the enzyme acetyl-CoA carboxylase (requires biotin) from acetyl-CoA and CO2.
|
|
|
The covelant modification of acetyl-CoA carboxylase by phosphorylation has what effect?
|
Deactivates the enzyme, a process done by glucagon activation of Protein Kinase A.
|
|
|
What enzyme breaks down fatty acids?
|
Hormone-sensitive lipase
|
|
|
What tissues can not use free fatty acids?
|
Brain & RBC
|
|
|
how do fatty acids get into the mitochondrial matrix?
|
Carnitine shuttle
|
|
|
What inhibits the carnitine shuttle?
|
malonyl-CoA, an intermediate of FA synthesis.
|
|
|
Where does most beta oxidation occur?
|
liver and muscle
|
|
|
Fatty acids are oxidized to form what during beta oxidation?
|
Acetyl-CoA
|
|
|
What is phosphopantothenic acid?
|
A precursor of CoA, an intermediate of CA cycle, beta oxidation and FA synthesis
|
|
|
What are the ketone bodies?
|
Acetoacetate, Acetone, and beta-hydroxybutyrate
|
|
|
What is the only 3 carbon ketone body?
|
Acetone
|
|
|
What enzyme regulates the rate limiting step of ketone body synthesis?
|
HMG-CoA synthase
|
|
|
Can RBC use ketone bodies?
|
no
|
|
|
What is the pKa of ketone bodies?
|
4 - thus leading to ketoacidosis
|
|
|
What amino acid makes up 33% of collagen?
|
glycine
|
|
|
What does collagen contain that is not found in elastin?
|
hydroxylysine. Also, elastin has very little hydroxyproline while it is abundant in collagen.
|
|
|
hydroxylation requires what?
|
Vitamin C, alpha-ketoglutarate, and oxygen
|
|
|
What cleaves trypsinogen to form trypsin?
|
Enteropeptidase (Enterokinase)
|
|
|
What does Trypsin cleave?
|
itself and all other zymogens.
|
|
|
What removes arginine or lysine from the c-terminal end?
|
trypsin
|
|
|
What removes phenylalanin, tyrosine, or tryptophan from the c-terminal?
|
Chymotrypsin
|
|
|
What will remove all c-terminal a.a.?
|
Carboxypeptidases
|
|
|
What will remove the n-terminal residue?
|
Aminopeptidases
|
|
|
What does the enzyme aminotransferase do?
|
catalyzes the first step in amino acid catabolism. Transfers amino group from amino acids to alpha-ketoglutarate to form glutamate and an alpha-keto acid
|
|
|
What is the only enzyme that can use either NAD or NADP?
|
glutamate dehydrogenase
|
|
|
What does glutamate dehydrogenase catalyze?
|
converts glutamate into an alpha-ketoglutarate and NH4+
|
|
|
Why is the urea cycle needed?
|
The NH3 derived from the breakdown of A.A. is toxic and must be disposed of
|
|
|
Where does the urea cycle take place?
|
cytosol and matrix
|
|
|
What is the rate limiting step in the urea cycle?
|
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
|
|
|
What does Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I form?
|
carbamoyl phosphate
|
|
|
Where are the two amino groups of urea acquired from?
|
free ammonia (NH3) and aspartate
|
|
|
What are the two amino acids in the urea cycle that are not encoded by the genome and not found in proteins?
|
ornithine & citruline
|
|
|
What enzyme in the urea cycle forms urea?
|
Arginase
|
|
|
The most immediate source of oxaloacetic acid during metabolism is what?
|
aspartic acid (urea cycle)
|
|
|
What will cause a musty odor in urine?
|
phenylketones in urine
|
|
|
What is the phenylketones in the urine indicative of?
|
Phenylketonuria - caused by the deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase
|
|
|
How is PKU treated?
|
dietary restrictions & tyrosine becomes essential.
|
|
|
Albinism results due to a defective process involving what A.A.?
|
tyrosine
|
|
|
Maple syrup urine disease is a result of what defective process?
|
Branched-chain A.A. degredation (isoleucine, leucine, and valine)
|
|
|
Which a.a. is essential to the formation of heme?
|
glycine
|
|
|
Decarboxylation of tryptophan is used to form what?
|
serotonin, melatonin
|
|
|
Decarboxylation of tyrosine is used to form what?
|
dopamine, norepinephrine, epinephrine, melanin
|
|
|
Decarboxylation of glutamate is used to form what?
|
GABA
|
|
|
Decarboxylation of histidine is used to form what?
|
Histamine
|
|
|
What is the rate limiting step in the formation of catecholamines (epi, norepi, dopamine)?
|
tyrosine hydroxylase which converts tyrosine to dopa.
|
|
|
What is the key enzyme in the formation of melanin?
|
tyrosinase
|
|
|
the enzyme aromatic amino acid decarboxylase requires what cofactor?
|
pyridoxal phosphate
|
|
|
What vitamin is needed for decarboxylations?
|
B1 - Thiamine. Functions as thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) and is a cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase.
|
|
|
Thiamine deficiency leads to what 2 diseases?
|
Beriberi - common in diets consisting of polished rice Wernicke-Korsakoff - common in alcoholics
|
|
|
What deficiency results in dermatitis, cheilosis, and glossitis?
|
B2 (Riboflavin). a precursor of the cofactors FMN and FAD
|
|
|
What dificiency results in dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia? What is the name for the disease?
|
Niacin (B3) deficiency = Pellagra. Precursor of the cofactors NAD+ and NADP+.
|
|
|
When is biotin required?
|
Coenzyme in carboxylation reactions (e.g. pyruvate carboxylase & acetyl-CoA carboxylase).
|
|
|
What vitamin is a component of CoA?
|
Patothenic acid
|
|
|
What is the function of folate?
|
functions in one-carbon transfers. Important in synthesis of a.a., purines, and thymine.
|
|
|
Megaloblastic anemia is a result of what?
|
folic acid deficiency - A failure to synthesize purine and thymidine nucleotides, Accumulation of large, immature RBC precursors in the bone marrow
|
|
|
Spinabifida results from what?
|
folic acid deficiency - failure to close the caudal portion
|
|
|
Anencephaly results from what?
|
folic acid deficiency - failure to close the rostral portion
|
|
|
What is required for the synthesis of methionine and degradation of odd-numbered fatty acids?
|
B12 (Cobalamin)
|
|
|
Where is Cobalamin absorbed?
|
It is absorbed with intrinsic factor in the ileum.
|
|
|
What causes B12 deficiency?
|
Autoimmune destruction of the parietal cells - leads to pernicious anemia (irreversible CNS defects, dementia)
|
|
|
What precursor is needed for a variety of enzymes, especially those associated with amino acid catabolism?
|
Pyridoxine (B6). The biological active form is pyridoxal phosphate.
|
|
|
Which fat soluble vitamin is the least toxic?
|
E
|
|
|
Which vitamin deficiency leads to xerophthalmia?
|
A (Retinol)
|
|
|
Vitamin K is responsible for the post-translational modification of which clotting factors?
|
II, VII, IX, and X
|
|
|
What stimulates the synthesis of active vitamin D?
|
Parathyroid hormone in response to low blood calcium.
|
|
|
What deficiency results in rickets?
|
Vitamin D
|
|
|
Rickets affects who?
|
children
|
|
|
What vitamin is responsible for wound healing?
|
E
|
|
|
What are the two precursors of Vitamin D?
|
Ergocalciferol - acquired through the diet 7-Dehydrocholesterol - synthesized in the skin
|
|
|
How are the precursors to vitamin D activated?
|
hydroxylation
|
|
|
When and in which tissue is each position hydroxylated in vitamin D?
|
Position 25 is hydroxylated in the liver then it is sent to the kidney to activate position 1. This yields the active form of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
|
|
|
How does the body reduce its calcium content?
|
Feces
|
|
|
Where is vitamin K synthesized?
|
Microbes in gut
|
|
|
What competitively inhibits vitamin K?
|
Coumadin/ Warfarin
|
|
|
What catalyzes DNA replication?
|
DNA polymerase
|
|
|
What transcribes DNA?
|
RNA polymerase
|
|
|
Which RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into rRNA?
|
I - r has one hump
|
|
|
Which RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into mRNA?
|
II - m has 2 humps
|
|
|
Which RNA polymerase transcribes DNA into tRNA?
|
III - only one left
|
|
|
Which nucleotides are purines, pyrimidines?
|
Purine - A, G Pyrimidines - C, U, T (CUT Py)
|
|
|
phosphate is attached to which carbon on ribose for RNA?
|
5'
|
|
|
What is the difference between deoxyribose and ribose?
|
Ribose has an OH group at the 2' position whereas deoxyribose has a H.
|
|
|
What is the direction of replication?
|
5' to 3' on the newly formed strand
|
|
|
Which strand is synthesized continuously?
|
leading strand
|
|
|
Which strand is synthesized discontinuously?
|
lagging strand
|
|
|
What is the function of DNA helicase?
|
unwinds the DNA helix
|
|
|
What is the function of DNA gyrase/ Topoisomerase?
|
limits supercoiling
|
|
|
What is the function of single-stranded binding proteins (SSB)?
|
Bind ssDNA; prevent reannealing
|
|
|
What is the function of primase?
|
synthesizes short RNA templates
|
|
|
What is the function of DNA polymerase III?
|
Synthesizes new DNA
|
|
|
What is the function of DNA polymerase I?
|
Removes RNA primer and replaces it with DNA
|
|
|
What is the function of DNA ligase?
|
links Okazaki fragments
|
|
|
Which RNA is most abundant?
|
rRNA
|
|
|
What are the stop codons?
|
UAA, UAG, & UGA
|
|
|
tRNA specificity occurs where?
|
3'amino acid arm
|
|
|
What direction is mRNA translated?
|
5' to 3'
|
|
|
What direction is protein synthesized?
|
N-terminus to C-terminus
|
|
|
What enzyme converts RNA to DNA?
|
Reverse Transcriptase
|
|
|
The largest root of the maxillary first molar is the:
|
Palatal
|
|
|
The buccal cusp of the mandibular first premolar contacts which surfaces on maxillary teeth?
|
Only the mesial marginal ridge of max. 1st premolar. It does not contact the max. canine in any manner (exception to the rule!).
|
|
|
At the cervical line, a cross section of the maxillary canine would show:
|
an oval shape with slightly wider labial surface.
|
|
|
When extracting a max central incisor, the motion that is primarily used is:
|
rotation
|
|
|
Where is the least likely area to find caries on teeth?
|
smooth surfaces (not pits and fissures)
|
|
|
Dentinal tubules that enter enamel are known as:
|
Enamel spindles - odontoblastic processes
|
|
|
What extend from enamel into dentin?
|
Enamel lamellae - pieces of uncalcified organic enamel material
|
|
|
What are hypocalcified enamel rods?
|
Enamel tufts
|
|
|
What is typical of lining mucosa?
|
covers most of the oral cavity EXCEPT for the hard palate and gingival areas. It is loose, freely movable, and has a well-developed submucosa. The lamina propria is often highly glandular. The epithelium is thin and nonkeratinized. Epithelial ridges and rete pegs are uncommon and short.
|
|
|
What tooth has roots with a characteristic curve of the two buccal root tips toward each other and is sometimes referred to as pliers-handled?
|
Max. 1st molar
|
|
|
The primary crown most UNLIKE any permanent tooth is the:
|
First molar
|
|
|
The primary second molar most resembles what tooth?
|
Permanent FIRST molar counterparts
|
|
|
Which cusp becomes smaller and less conspicuous as you go from maxillary first to second to third molar?
|
distolingual
|
|
|
How many roots does the primary max. 1st molar have?
|
3
|
|
|
Which tooth when viewed from the mesial is closest to the vertical in the buccolingual angulation of its main axis is the?
|
max 1st premolar
|
|
|
What teeth are the last to remain in the mouth?
|
mand. canines - this is because, although the mandibular incisors are rarely lost to caries, thye are often lost to periodontal disease due to their short roots and easy calculus buildup
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a fiber of the gingival unit? 1) Dento-gingival 2) Dento-periosteal 3) Alveolar crestal 4) Circular
|
Alveolar crestal - these are fibers of the PDL
|
|
|
Distocclusion is what?
|
Class II (mand distal to normal)
|
|
|
Mesiocclusion is what?
|
Class III (mand mesial to normal)
|
|
|
In a mandibular first molar, which pulp horn is likely to be the smallest?
|
Distal (yes it does have a pulp horn)
|
|
|
What is the longest tooth in the mouth (apico-incisally)?
|
Max. Canine (1mm longer than mand. canine)
|
|
|
Which cell type of the enamel organ is widely separated by liquid between the cells?
|
Stellate reticulum
|
|
|
The epithelial root sheath of Hertwig is composed of:
|
inner and outer enamel epithelium
|
|
|
The protein matrix of enamel is:
|
composed of protein which is not collagen or keratin
|
|
|
Cervical bulges are found on which surfaces of primary MOLAR teeth?
|
buccal only
|
|
|
Cervical bulges are found on which surfaces of primary ANTERIOR teeth?
|
Buccal and Lingual
|
|
|
The golgi apparatus in odontoblasts producing dentin can be expected to be:
|
more highly developed than that of an average cell (is is busy modifying and packaging proteins)
|
|
|
The shape of the pulp chamber in cross section cut at the cervical line in the maxillary central incisor is:
|
round
|
|
|
The largest cusp of a maxillary first molar is the:
|
mesiolingual
|
|
|
The attrition at the contact point between teeth is known to cause:
|
Reduced embrasures interproximally - over time, posterior teeth loose small amounts of enamel as the contact points wear against each other during chewing, it only effects the mesiodistal direction
|
|
|
Which ligament of the temporomandibular joint inserts into the ramus and angle of the mandible?
|
Stylomandibular
|
|
|
Which ligament of the temporomandibular joint inserts on the lingula and deep ramus of the mandible?
|
Sphenomandibular
|
|
|
Which ligament of the temporomandibular joint descends from the lower border and tubercle of the zygoma to the posterior lateral condyle & its fibers merge with those of the articular capsule?
|
Temporomandibular or lateral ligament
|
|
|
Cementum is formed from which embryonic germ layer?
|
mesoderm
|
|
|
Dentin is formed from which embryonic germ layer?
|
mesoderm
|
|
|
Pulpal tissue is formed from which embryonic germ layer?
|
mesoderm
|
|
|
What tooth structure is endodermal in origin?
|
none
|
|
|
Dental pulp does all of the following except: 1) sense thermal changes 2) form primary dentin tissue 3) form mesenchymal tissue 4) form secondary dentin tissue 5) react defensively to irritation
|
(3) - Pulp is formed from mesenchymal tissue of the dental papilla, thus does not form mesenchyme.
|
|
|
The crowns of incisors when viewed from the incisal are of what dimension?
|
wider mesiodistally in the maxilla, and wider buccolingually in the mandible
|
|
|
the buccal cusp of the mandibular canine occludes with which maxillary tooth surfaces?
|
The canine as an anterior tooth, will normally be slightly out of contact between its maxillary counterpart and the tooth immediately mesial to it. So it will not be in occlusion with any teeth.
|
|
|
An infant is born with an abnormally developed falciform ligament. The hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments are also malformed. the develpmental anomalies are most likely due to abnormal development of what?
|
ventral mesentery
|
|
|
What does the first pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
The middle ear cavity and eustachian tube
|
|
|
What does the second pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
Palatine tonsil
|
|
|
What does the third phayngeal pouch develop into?
|
Thymus and inferior parathyroid glands
|
|
|
What does the fourth pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
superior parathyroid glands. Remember that abnormal development of the 3rd and 4th pouches leads to DiGeorge syndrome and results in hypocalcemia as well as abnormal cellular immunity and consequent susceptibility to viral and fungal illnesses
|
|
|
What does the fifth pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
gives rise to the C cells of the thyroid gland. These secrete calcitonin, a hormone that lowers calcium.
|
|
|
An infant is noted to have an adducted and internally rotated shoulder with an extended, pronated elbow. Loss of flexion and supination by which muscle accounts for the elbow position?
|
Biceps - loss of abductors and external rotators can cause an adducted and internally rotated shoulder. The biceps accomplish both of these motions.
|
|
|
What is movements is the brachialis muscle responsible for?
|
Flexor of the elbow
|
|
|
What movements is the coracobrachialis muscle responsible for?
|
functions at the elbow to hold an object under the arm
|
|
|
Cell bodies of primary sensory neurons of mechano receptors in the PDL are found in which brainstem nuclei?
|
Mesencephalic nucleus
|
|
|
What forms the deep ring of the the inguinal canal?
|
transversalis fascia (not peritoneum)
|
|
|
In females, what does the inguinal canal envelope?
|
round ligament of the uterus
|
|
|
Testicular veins drain where?
|
Right - inferior vena cava Left - left renal vein
|
|
|
Trace the movement of sperm during ejaculation
|
epididymis - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct (combines with fluid from excretory duct from seminal vesicles) - prostatic urethra - membranous urethra - spongy urethra
|
|
|
What is the homologous structure in females to the male prostate gland?
|
Skene's glands
|
|
|
What promotes thickening of the endometrium?
|
progesterone
|
|
|
What does the corpus luteum secrete?
|
progesterone
|
|
|
What cells produce testosterone?
|
interstitial cells (cless of Leydig)
|
|
|
What forms the root of the lung?
|
Bronchi and pulmonary vessels
|
|
|
Which lung has a higher capacity
|
right
|
|
|
how many segments do the R and L lung have?
|
R - 10 L - 8
|
|
|
how many bronchial arteries do the R and L lung recieve?
|
R - 1 L - 2
|
|
|
What is the lingula of the left lung?
|
tongue shaped portion of the superior lobe that corresponds to the middle lobe of the right lung
|
|
|
Respiratory bronchioles are lined with what type of cells?
|
simple cuboidal
|
|
|
what cells in the lungs secrete a surface-active lipoprotein?
|
Clara cells (nonciliated bronchiolar epithelial cells)
|
|
|
What are the functions of type I and II pneumocytes?
|
I - permit gaseous diffusion with the capillaries II - produce surfactant
|
|
|
What delivers oxygen rich blood to the lung?
|
bronchial arteries from descending aorta enter at hilum and follow branching of bronchi
|
|
|
What nerve passes the hilum of lungs?
|
branches of vagus (X)
|
|
|
The cribriform plate is part of what bone?
|
ethmoid bone
|
|
|
What are the paired paranasal sinuses?
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maxillary, frontal, ethmoidal, and sphenoidal
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The nasolacrimal duct drains where?
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inferior meatus in nasal cavity
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What cells line conchae of nasal fossa?
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pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
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The tickling sensation prior to sneezing is transmitted by what nerve?
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maxillary division of trigeminal nerve (V)
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During sinus attack, painful sensation from ethmoid cells is carried by what nerve?
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nasociliary nerve (V1)
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All the paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus except which one? and where does it drain?
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Sphenoid - almost directly down the throat in nasal cavity
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What muscles prevent food from entering the nasal cavity?
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tensor veli palatini & levator veli palatini
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What cells line the oropharynx and laryngopharynx?
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stratified squamous epithelium
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cricothyrotomy is done where?
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incision below the thyroid cartilage and above the cricoid cartilage
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What are the 4 layers of the enamel organ?
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outer enamel epithelium inner enamel epithelium stratum inermedium stellate reticulum
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Which layer of enamel organ is responsible for becoming ameloblasts and producing enamel and essential for the initiation of dentin formation once enamel is formed?
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inner enamel epithelium
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Which layer of enamel organ is essential to enamel formation by preparing nutrients for the ameloblasts?
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stratum intermedium
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What forms the junctional epithelium?
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derived from the combining of the 4 layers of the enamel organ that became the reduced enamel epithelium. This became the dentogingival junction then the junctional epithelium
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congenital absence of teeth results from an interruption in what phase of tooth development?
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initiation (bud stage)
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fused or germination of teeth can occur when during the development of teeth?
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initiation (bud stage) or proliferation (cap stage)
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Dentinogenesis imperfecta and amelogenesis imperfecta occur when during teeth development?
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differentiation (bell stage)
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What stimulates the differentiation of odontoblasts?
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lsjf
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Salivary glands of the hard palate are located in the:
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Posterolateral zone.
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Acidophils of the hypophysis secrete?
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GH
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A child falls on a nail that penetrates the submental region in the midline. What is the first muscle to be impaled?
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mylohyoid
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What type of tissue makes up the mucosa of the floor of the mouth?
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thin nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium with a thin lamina propria.
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The nerves in the pulp are what?
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afferent and sympathetic only
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1) sinusoids 2) macrophages 3) lymphocytes 4) connective tissue
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3) lymphocytes
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Serotonin is thought to be produced by: 1) cheif cells 2) Paneth's cells 3) mucous neck cells 4) enteroendocrine (argentaffin) cells
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(4)
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What cells produce bile?
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hepatocytes (not Kupffer cells)
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what is the function of Kupffer cells?
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Liver macrophages
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The esophagus is subdivided into three portions on the basis of a transition in the: 1) submucosa 2) adventitia 3) mucosal layer 4) muscularis externa
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muscularis externa
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Where are basket (myoepithelial) cells located?
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Spaces between the basal lamina and the secretory cell membrane of sweat glands, mammary glands, lacrimal glands, and salivary glands.
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Most of the fibers ascending to or descending from the cerebral cortex traverse the: 1) pyramids 2) internal capsule 3) medial lemniscus 4) cerebral peduncles
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internal capsule
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Which of the following represents the organelle that is typically composed of vesicles and of curved, flattened cisternae that are parallel to one another? 1) centriole 2) mitochondrion 3) golgi complex 4) rough ER 5) smooth ER
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golgi complex
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Long bones of the skeleton increase in length because of the __________ growth in the cartilaginous epiphyseal plate.
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interstitial (not appositional)
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The thoracic splanchnic nerves to the celiac ganglion consist predominantly of: 1) parasympathetic fibers 2) preganglionic visceral efferents 3) postganglionic visceral efferents
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(2)
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What are the unpaired vessels contributing to the arterial circle of Willis?
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Basilar a. and anterior communicating artery
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What layer of skin is only found in thick skin?
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stratum lucidum
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What travels with the anterior interventricular (descending) artery?
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Great cardiac vein
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In the circulating blood of an adult, which or the following leukocytes normally appears in the highest numbers? 1) basophils 2) monocytes 3) eosinophils 4) neutrophils 5) lymphocytes
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(4)
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Where is acellular cementum located?
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Where the cementum meets the enamel, covering approximately 1/3-1/2 of the root (I guess this means the coronal portion of the cementum)
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Lymph from the tip of the tongue arrives at which node first?
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submental
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Lymph from the posterior of the tongue arrives at which node first?
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Jugulodigastric node
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Lymph from the middle of the tongue arrives at which node first?
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Submandibular node
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What travels anteriorly to teh root of the right lung and between the mediatinal pleura and the pericardium?
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Phrenic nerve and pericardiacophrenic artery and vein.
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The superficial head of the medial pterygoid muscle originates on the tuberosity of the maxilla and on the: a) pterygoid fossa b) pyramidal process of the palatine bone c) crest of the greater wing of the sphenoid bone d) lateral surface of the lateral pterygoid plate
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(b)
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What forms the median nerve?
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Branches of the Lateral and medial nerves of the brachial plexus
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What forms the posterior nerve?
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Branches of the Superior, Middle, and Inferior nerves of the brachial plexus
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The ulnar nerve is a branch from what nerve of the brachial plexus?
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Medial nerve
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The musculocutaneous nerve is a branch from what nerve of the brachial plexus?
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lateral nerve
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The radial nerve is a branch of what nerve of the brachial plexus?
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Posterior nerve
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The axillary nerve is a branch of what nerve of the brachial plexus?
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posterior nerve
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The precentral gyrus is located in what lobe?
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Frontal lobe
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The post central gyrus is located in what lobe?
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parietal lobe
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In a faciolingual section through a tooth and its related gingiva, the demarcation line between free gingiva and attached gingiva extends between the a) alveolar crest and the free gingival groove b) bottom of the gingival sulcus and the free gingival groove c) apical margin of the epithelial attachment and the alveolar crest d) apical margin of the epithelial attachment and the free gingival groove.
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(b)
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What connective tissue sheath surrounds: a) a muscle organ b) 10-100 muscle fibers c) individual muscle fibers
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a) epimysium b) perimysium c) endomysium
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The internal thoracic artery gives rise to a) the highest intercostal artery b) the posterior intercostal arteries c) the bronchial and esophageal arteries d) the superior epigastric and musculophrenic arteries
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(d)
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The initial epithelial attachment joining the gingiva to the tooth arises directly from a) oral mucosa b) cervical loop epithelium c) reduced enamel epithelium d) the epithelial root sheath (Hertwig)
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(c)
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The zona pellucida is associated with which of the following? a) corpus luteum b) corpus albicans c) oocyte in a mature follicle d) oocyte in early primary follicle
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(c)
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The tendon of the tensor veli palatini muscle curves around the a) angular spine b) styloid process c) pterygoid hamulus d) lateral pterygoid plate e) spine of the sphenoid
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(c)
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In the temporomandibular joint of an older person, the articulating surface of the temporal bone is covered by a) hyaline cartilage b) elastic cartilage c) highly cellular fibrous connective tissue d) fibrous connective tissue containing chondrocytes
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(d)
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Does cementum have incremental lines?
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no
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What intracellular components have a double-unit membrane?
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Nucleus & Mitochondrion
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All of the following structures lie superficial to the hyoglossus muscle except the a) lingual nerve b) lingual artery c) hypoglossal nerve d) submandibular duct
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(b)
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The white pulp of the spleen is composed primarily of
1) sinusoids 2) macrophages 3) lymphocytes 4) connective tissue |
3) lymphocytes
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