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399 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
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Which of the following are useful diagnostic aids that can be used to determine if a tooth has a vertical crown-root fracture?

A) fiberoptic light for transillumination
B) wedging the tooth in question and then taking an x-ray
C) persistent periodontal defects in an otherwise healthy tooth
D) having a patient bite forcefully on a bite stick
E) all of the above
Endo
E) all of the above
An electric pulp tester usually elicits a response at a higher current than normal if a tooth being tested has:

A) symptomatic pulpitis
B) asymptomatic pulpitits
C) hyperemia
D) open apex
E) a pus-filled canal
F) suffered a trauma
Endo
B) asymptomatic pulpitits
According to the buccal object rule, when the x-ray tube is repositioned either at a more mesial or at a more distal angulation and a film is exposed, the root or canal farther from the film (the buccal) will:

A) move in the opposite direction that the cone is directed
B) move in the same direction that the cone is directed
C) not move at all
Endo
B) move in the same direction that the cone is directed
A trapezoidal outline of the pulp chamber is characteristic of:

A) maxillary molars
B) maxillary premolars
C) mandibular molars
D) mandibular premolars
E) mandibular canines
Endo
C) mandibular molars
Which of the following teeth most often refer pain to the temporal region?

A) mandibular molars
B) maxillary incisors
C) maxillary second premolars
D) maxillary molars
Endo
C) maxillary second premolars
Which tooth will almost always have two canals?

A) maxillary first premolar
B) maxillary second premolar
C) mandibular first premolar
D) mandibular second premolar
Endo
A) maxillary first premolar
Which of the following canals in a maxillary first molar is usually the most difficult to locate?

A) palatal
B) distobuccal
C) mesiobuccal
D) all of the canals are relatively easy to find
Endo
C) mesiobuccal
Which tooth may have a pulp chamber that is somewhat triangular as opposed to oval?

A) maxillary central incisor
B) mandibular central incisor
C) maxillary lateral incisor
D) mandibular lateral incisor
Endo
A) maxillary central incisor
Approximately what percentage of mandibular first premolars may have two canals with two apical foramina?

A) 5%
B) 25%
C) 45%
D) 65%
Endo
25%
The root canal for a mandibular canine is:

A) wide mesiodistally but thin labiolingually
B) thin mesiodistally but wide labiolingually
C) the same width mesiodistally and labiolingually
Endo
B) thin mesiodistally but wide labiolingually
Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a curved canal?

A) maxillary central incisor
B) maxillary lateral incisor
C) maxillary canine
D) mandibular central incisor
Endo
B) maxillary lateral incisor
Which of the following are related to vital teeth and usually do not warrant endodontic therapy?

A) apical scar
B) cementoma
C) traumatic bone cyst
D) globulomaxillary cyst
E) radicular cyst
F) asymptomatic apical abscess
G) asymptomatic periapical granuloma
Endo
B) cementoma
C) traumatic bone cyst
D) globulomaxillary cyst
The most superior of all other retro-filling materials, mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) has all of the following advantages except two. Which two are not properties of MTA?

A) radiopaque
B) easy to manipulate
C) hydrophilic
D) biocompatible
E) not toxic
F) short setting time
G) induction of hard tissue formation
Endo
B) easy to manipulate
F) short setting time
The earliest and most common symptom associated with an inflamed pulp is:

A) a dull throbing pain on mastication
B) sensitivity to hot and/or cold stimuli
C) a persistent feeling of discomfort
D) mild bleeding
E) pain on percussion
Endo
B) sensitivity to hot and/or cold stimuli
Which condition is an apical lesion that develops as an acute exacerbation of an asymptomatic apical abscess?

A) cyst
B) Phoenix abscess
C) granuloma
D) none of the above
Endo
B) Phoenix abscess
The chronic apical abscess is generally:

A) very painful
B) asymptomatic
C) mildly painful
Endo
B) asymptomatic
The most common cause of acute osteomyelitis of the jaws is:

A) unknown
B) iatrogenic
C) dental infection
D) radiation
Endo
C) dental infection
Which condtion is the result of a pulpal infection that extends through the apical forament to the periapical tissues?

A) periodontal abscess
B) gingival abscess
C) periapical abscess
Endo
C) periapical abscess
Which condition is characterized by pain that is spontaneous and has periods of cessation?

A) reversible pulptitis
B) irreversible pulpitis
Endo
B) irreversible pulpitis
A seven year old boy arrives at the office with a complaint of sinus discharge from an earlier traumatized permanent maxillary central incisor. Vitality tests are negative. The required treatment would be:

A) extraction
B) apexogenesis/pulpotomy
C) root canal treatment
D) periodontal surgery to remove sinus
E) it is only necessary to give the child analgesics and antibiotics for pain and infection
F) none of the above
Endo
F) none of the above
While doing vital pulpotomy on a young, immature permanent tooth, the hemorrhage after pulp amputation could not be controlled with cotton pellets even after several minutes. What is the next step in completing this treatment?

A) control the hemorrhage with hemostatic agents
B) apply formocresol with cotton pellets at the amputation site
C) irrigate the canal with sodium hypochlorite then apply calcium hydroxide
D) perform the amputation at a more apical level
E) stop the procedure and close the tooth with an interim restoration
F) all of the above
Endo
D) perform the amputation at a more apical level
Which two of the following situations offer better success for pulp capping?

A) accidental exposure of pulp
B) pulp of a middle-aged person
C) carious exposure of the pulp
D) pulp of a young child
Endo
A) accidental exposure of the pulp
D) pulp of a young child
Which of the following is not an indication to use solvent-softened custom cones?

A) tugback within 1mm of working length
B) lack of apical stop
C) an abnormally large apical portion of the canal
D) an irregular apical portion of the canal
E) after an apexification procedure
Endo
A) tugback within 1mm of working length
All of the following criteria must be met before a canal is considered ready to fill with the gutta-percha except:

A) the canal must be prepared in a manner that ensures optimum debridement and access to the apical area so that the filling material can be condensed to obturate te entire preparation
B) the tooth must be asymptomatic
C) at the time of fill, the canal must be dry
D) if a bacteriologic culture is being used, a negative culture must be obtained
E) the tooth responds to thermal tests
Endo
E) the tooth responds to thermal tests
The most commonly used irrigant in endodontics, sodium hypochlorite is used in the concentration of:

A) 1%
B) 2.6%
C) 5.25%
D) all of the above
Endo
D) all of the above
While regaining canal patency during endodontic retreatment, all of the following statements are true except:

A) eucalyptol is the reagent of choice to dissolve gutta-percha
B) a crown down sequence of instruments is used from coronal to apical
C) Rotary instruments work faster and improve the access early in the treatment as compared to heated instruments
D) a very light apical pressure must be applied while using Nickel Titanium rotary files
E) over-extended gutta-percha cones had to be removed by extending file periapically
Endo
A) eucalyptol is the reagent of choice to dissolve gutta-percha
All of the following statements regarding ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA) are true except:

A) it is a chelating agent with the capability to remove the mineralized portion of the smear layer
B) it can decalcify up to a 50um thin layer of the root canal wall
C) normally it is used in a concentration of 17%
D) RC-Prep and EDTAC are other preparations of EDTA
E) the decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting
F) it is also an excellent irrigation solution
Endo
F) it is also an excellent irrigation solution
The most acceptable method to achieve adequate root canal debridement is:

A) to obtain clean shavings of the canal
B) to attain a clean irrigating solution
C) to achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal
D) all of the above criteria are reliable
E) none of the above criteria is acceptable
Endo
C) to achieve glassy smooth walls of the canal
While cleaning and shaping the canal, an instrument separates in the canal. Your first attempt to retrieve it results in a broken instrument passing through the apex. How should you manage this case now?

A) use a smaller H file to bypass it and try retrieving it
B) use Gates Glidden drills to widen the canal and then try retrieving it
C) raise a flap and remove the instrument surgically followed by gutta-perca filling the canal
D) extract the tooth as irreparable damage has occurred to the apex
E) just inform the patient, fill the canal with gutta-percha and minitor
Endo
C) raise a flap and remove the instrument surgically followed by gutta-percha filling the canal
Which of the following are acceptable methods to clean and shape a canal using Nickel titanium instruments?

A) push and pull stroke
B) reaming motion
C) engine-driven rotary motion
D) all of the above
Endo
D) all of the above
The major advantage of zinc oxide-eugenol based sealer types is:

A) non-staining property
B) fast setting time
C) adhesion
D) insolubility
E) long history of successful usage
Endo
E) long history of successful usage
During access preparation on mandibular molars, two regions tend to be overcut which results in the undesirable over preparation of the tooth. Which are those two mostly abused areas?

A) the mesial aspect under the marginal ridge
B) the distal aspect under the marginal ridge
C) the lingual surface under the lingual cusps
D) the buccal surface under the buccal cusps
Endo
A) the mesial aspect under the marginal ridge
C) the lingual surface under the lingual cusps
A reaming action produces a canal that is relatively:

A) square in shape
B) irregular in shape
C) round in shape
D) triangular in shape
Endo
C) round in shape
Which of the following intracanal instruments is designed for the removal of pulp tissue, cotton pellet absorbent points, and other soft materials, but not for canal enlargement?

A) files
B) reamers
C) broaches
D) none of the above
Endo
C) broaches
Which cells do not characterize the cellular response at the onset of pulpal inflammation?

A) plasma cells
B) macrophages
C) lymphocytes
D) polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes
Endo
D) polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes
When symptoms and clinical tests show the presence of pulpal pathosis in a posterior tooth and the radiograph shows no decay or restoration in any proximity to the pulp, this is virtually pathognomonic of:

A) condensing osteitis
B) a vertical fracture of the tooth
C) periodontal abscess
D) secondary occlusal trauma
Endo
B) a vertical fracture of the tooth
Which of the following is the most commonly used bleaching agent for endodontically treated teeth?

A) ether
B) superoxol
C) chloroform
D) sodium hypochlorite
Endo
B) superoxol
Tooth #9 requires root-end surgery. Which flap design is generally not indicated?

A) a submarginal curved flap
B) a submarginal triangular and rectangular flap
C) a full mucoperiosteal flap
D) none of the above
Endo
A) a submarginal curved flap
Which of the following are contraindications to endodontic therapy?

A) a non-restorable tooth
B) a tooth with insufficient periodontal support
C) a tooth with a vertical root fracture
D) all of the above
Endo
D) all of the above
A periodontal probing defect which may not be managed by endodontic treatment alone is:

A) a conical shaped probing
B) a narrow sinus tract type probing
C) a blow-out type probing
D) none of the above
Endo
A) a conical shaped probing
Regarding the restoration of endodontically treated teeth, all of the following are generally believed to be true except:

A) a major disadvantage of posts/dowels is that it does not reinforce the tooth structure, in fact, it weakens it
B) all post designs are predisposed to leakage
C) at least 4mm of gutta-percha must remain to preserve the apical seal
D) threaded screw posts are preferred over parallel sided and tapered posts
E) pins add to stressed and microfractures in dentin and should not be used
F) cusps adjacent to lost marginal ridges should be restored with an onlay
Endo
D) threaded screw posts are preferred over parallel sided and tapered posts
An apicoectomy is a resection:

A) of the most coronal portion of the root
B) of the coronal portion of the pulp horn
C) of the most apical portion of the root
D) of the entire pulp horn
Endo
C) of the most apical portion of the root
Which two of the following decrease with age in dental pulp?

A) number of collagen fibers
B) number of reticulin fibers
C) the size of the pulp
D) calcifications within the pulp
Endo
B) number of reticulin fibers
C) the size of the pulp
The absence of which layer of dentin predisposes it to internal resorption by cells present in the pulp?

A) mantle dentin
B) circumpulpal dentin
C) predentin
D) secondary dentin
E) tertiary dentin
Endo
C) predentin
Normally, which portion of the pulp contains more collagen?

A) coronal portion
B) apical portion
Endo
B) apical portion
Which of the following statements regarding the management of an avulsed tooth are true?

A) after 60 minutes of dry storage of an avulsed tooth, few periodontal ligament cells survive
B) the storage of an avulsed tooth in tap water is as bad as dry storage
C) saliva is hypotonic and can allow storage of the tooth up to 2 hours
D) milk has a maximum storage time of up to 6 hours
E) teeth with complete root development should be treated endodontically as soon as possible even if replanted within 30 minutes
F) teeth with incomplete root development and replanted within 30 minutes may not require endodontic treatment
G) all of the statements are true
Endo
G) all of the statements are true
Which procedure is probably not considered essential for the success of intentional replantation?

A) a skillful extraction
B) minimum out-of-socket time
C) minimum damage to the root while tooth is held during apical root end preparation
D) curettage of the socket to remove periapical pathosis
E) repair of any perforation or resorptive defect before replantation
Endo
D) curettage of the socket to remove periapical pathosis
The main benefit of primary incisor replantation is:

A) maintenance of a normal anterior dentition
B) to relieve parental guilt
C) to maintain child's self-esteem
D) to maintain child's social acceptance
Endo
A) maintenance of a normal anterior dentition
Which of the following in generally believe to be the cause of internal resorption of a tooth?

A) active orthodontic treatment
B) periodontitis with deep infra-bony pockets
C) inflammation due to an infected coronal pulp
D) dento-alveolar abscess
Endo
C) inflammation due to an infected coronal pulp
The external resorption in which an infected pulp may further complicate the resorptive process, is termed as:

A) surface resorption
B) inflammatory resorption
C) replacement resorption
Endo
B) inflammatory resorption
Endodontic procedures involve taking multiple radiographs. How should you protect yourself or your staff while taking radiographs if there is no barrier available to stand behind?

A) stand at least 4 feet away anywhere around the patient
B) stand at least 5 feet away exactly opposite the x-ray beam source
C) stand at least 6 feet away and in an area that lies between 90 to 135 degrees to x-ray beam
D) stand at least 7 feet away and in the area that lies between 60 to 90 degrees to x-ray beam
E) never take an x-ray without a barrier
Endo
C) stand at least 6 feet away and in the area that lies between 90 to 135 degrees to x-ray beam
All of the following statements regarding adjuncts to endodontic treatment are true, except:

A) transplanted teeth with partial root development have a better prognosis than those with developed roots
B) orthodontic extrusion is a common indication prior to implant placement
C) intentional replantation is a viable alternative to endodontic surgery
D) to stabilize an intentionally replanted tooth, a very effective method is to ask the patient to close in centric occlusion for the remainder of the day
E) a major disadvantage of endodontic implants is the lack of an apical seal
Endo
C) intentional replantation is a viable alternative to endodontic surgery
Several of the significant bacteroides species involved in pulpal-periradicular infection have undergone taxonomic revision. They are now classified as:

A) Porphyromonas and Prevotella
B) Eubacterium and Fusobacterium
C) Actinomycetes and Spirochetes
D) Wolinella and Veillonella species
Endo
A) Porphyromonas and Prevotella
All of the following statements regarding inflammatory resorption of teeth are true except:

A) external resorption is always accompanied by resorption of the bone
B) the teeth with internal resorption have a history of trauma, crown preparation or pulpotomy
C) cervical root resorption does not occue exclusively at the cervical area of the root
D) The usual radiographic presentation of internal resorption is a fairly uniform enlargement of the root canal space
E) "pink" tooth is considered to be pathognomonic of replacement resorption
F) the pulp plays no role in cervical root resorption
Endo
E) "pink" tooth is considered to be pathognomonic of replacement resorption
During a routine radiographic evaluation, you notice bone loss extending from the cemento-enamel junction to the apex of tooth #21. Further evaluation reveals that probing depths are above normal limits all around the tooth, however, at one point the probe drops precipitously to an even greater depth. Vitality test is negative. This patient may require:

A) extensive periodontal treatment followed by vitality re-assessment
B) endodontic treatment only
C) endodontic treatment followed by periodontic treatment
D) root end surgery
E) periodontal treatment followed by endodontic treatment
Endo
C) Endodontic treatment followed by periodontic treatment
"Primate spaces" in the primary dentition are found in which two locations?

A) in the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the central incisors and lateral incisors
B) in the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
C) in the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the canines and first molars
D) in the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
E) There are no primate spaces in the primary dentitions
Ortho
B) in the maxillary arch, the primate space is located between the lateral incisors and canines
C) in the mandibular arch, the primate space is located between the canines and first molars
Which of the following is the normal relationship of the primary molars in the deciduous dentition?

A) distal step
B) flush-terminal plane
C) mesial step
D) none of the above
Ortho
B) flush-terminal plane
The permanent mandibular canines erupt in what direction relative to the primary mandibular canines?

A) lingually
B) facially
C) distally
D) mesially
Ortho
B) facially
Which of the following is definted by the difference in the sum of the mesiodistal widths of the primary canine, first and second molar, and the permanent canine, first premolar and second premolar?

A) Primate space
B) Leeway space
C) Moyer's space
D) Anatomic space
Ortho
B) Leeway space
Overbite is:

A) the horizontal projection of the maxillary anterior teeth beyond the mandibular anterior teeth
B) the vertical overlapping of the maxillary anterior teeth over the mandibular anterior teeth
C) a malocclusion in which the anterior teeth do not close or come together
D) a malocclusion where some of the maxillary teeth are inside of the mandibular teeth when they occlude
Ortho
B) the vertical overlapping of the maxillary anterior teeth over the mandibular anterior teeth
A phase of dentition during which some of the teeth present in the oral cavity are permanent and some are primary is referred to as:

A) intermediate dentition
B) succedaneous dentition
C) mixed dentition
D) non-succedaneous dentition
Ortho
C) mixed dentition
Which of the following is true concerning a mixed dentition analysis?

A) it is used to predict the amount of crowding after the permanent teeth erupt
B) it determines space available vs. space required
C) the analysis is based on a correlation of tooth size
D) it is performed during the mixed dentition
E) it is performed with a boley gauge, study models and a prediction table
F) all of the above are true concerning a mixed dentition analysis
Ortho
F) all of the above are true concerning a mixed dentition analysis
Which space maintainer is most often used when the primary first molar needs to be pre-maturely extracted?

A) band and loop space maintainer
B) distal shoe space maintainer
C) lingual arch appliance
D) Nance appliance
Ortho
A) band and loop space maintainer
A nine year old patient had an extraction of the primary mandibular first molar. The ideal treatment at this time is:

A) place a fixed bridge
B) place a space maintainer
C) place a removable partial denture
D) do nothing an observe
E) place an implant
Ortho
B) place a space maintainer
An 8 year old child with a pulpally involved primary second molar tooth comes into your office. Which of the following ideally is the best approach to manage this case?

A) prescribe antibiotics only
B) treat the pulp and retain the tooth as a space maintainer
C) extract the tooth. Space maintainer is not needed at this age
D) extract the tooth and construct a band and loop space maintainer
E) extract the tooth and construct a distal shoe space maintainer
Ortho
B) treat the pulp and retain the tooth as a space maintainer
In predicting the time of the pubertal growth spurt, while treating jaw mal-relationships in a growing child, the orthodontist can get the most valuable information from:

A) a hand-wrist radiograph
B) height-weight tables
C) presence of secondary sex characteristics
D) stage of dental development
Ortho
A) a wrist-hand radiograph
A contraindication for serial extraction is:

A) class I skeletal pattern
B) deep bite
C) mixed dentition stage of development
D) severe crowding
Ortho
B) deep bite
Arrange the following procedures into their proper sequence for molar uprighting of a tooth requiring both restorative and periodontal treatment:

A) band
B) complete restorative treatment
C) complete periodontal surgery
D) separate
E) upright
Ortho
D) separate
A) band
E) upright
C) complete periodontal surgery
B) complete restorative treatment
The most rapid losses in the A-P distance of the arch is usually due to a:

A) distal tipping and rotation of the permanent second molar after removal of the permanent third molar
B) mesial tipping and rotation of the permanent first molar after removal of the primary second molar
C) mesial tipping and ortation of the permanent canine after removal of the primary lateral incisor
D) distal tipping and rotation of the permanent second premolar after removal of the permanent first molar
Ortho
B) mesial tipping and rotation of the permanent first molar after removal of the primary second molar
The displacement of a tooth from the socker in the direction of eruption is referred to as:

A) tipping
B) translation
C) extrusion
D) intrustion
E) torque
F) rotation
Ortho
C) extrusion
Post-orthodontic circumferential supracrestal fibrotomy is most often performed in which situation?

A) an intruded mandibular second molar
B) a rotated maxillary lateral incisor
C) an extruded maxillary second premolar
D) a mandibular first molar that is in crossbite
Ortho
B) a rotated maxillary lateral incisor
The rationale for retention in orthodontics is to:

A) allow for reorganization of the gingival and periodontal tissues
B) minimize changes due to growth
C) maintain teeth in unstable conditions
D) all of the above
Ortho
D) all of the above
Lateral cephalometric radiographs of a typical growing patient were taken several years apart, and superimposed on the anterior cranial base. The result showed that during growth the maxilla and mandible move:

A) downward and backawrd
B) downward and foward
C) upward and backward
D) upward and foward
Ortho
B) downward and forward
The flat bones of the skull and part of the clavicle are formed by:

A) intramembranous ossification
B) endochondral ossification
C) erythropoiesis
D) epiphyseal formation
Ortho
A) intramembranous ossification
Hyaline cartilage differs from bone in that hyaline cartilage may grow:

A) by appositional growth
B) by interstitial growth
C) neither of the above
Ortho
B) by interstitial growth
In a young child, which structure grows in height and length to accommodate the developing dentition?

A) the tuberosity
B) the ramus
C) the condyles
D) the alveolar process
Ortho
D) the alveolar process
Bone deposition in the __________ region is responsible for the lengthening of the maxillary arch.

A) palate
B) tuberosity
C) incisor
D) zygomatic
Ortho
B) tuberosity
Mandibular anterior crowding occurs in normal young adults as a result of:

A) third molars
B) late mandibular growth
C) maxillary tooth-size excess
D) trauma
Ortho
B) late mandibular growth
What percentage of 6 year-old children have a median diastema?

A) 98%
B) 78%
C) 49%
D) less than 25%
Ortho
A) 98%
In which direction do the permanent teeth move during eruption?

A) mesially and occlusally
B) occlusally and buccally
C) buccally and mesially
D) occlusally and lingually
Ortho
B) occlusally and buccaly
The most commonly impacted teeth are:

A) maxillary canines
B) maxillary central incisors
C) mandibular first premolars
D) mandibular lateral incisors
Ortho
A) maxillary canines
Treatment of the ectopic eruption of a permanent maxillary first molar consists of:

A) disking the distal of the primary first molar
B) an appliance incorporating a finger spring to move the primary second molar mesially
C) a brass wire placed between the primary second molar and permanent first molar
D) extraction of the primary second molar
Ortho
C) a brass wire placed between the primary second molar and permanent first molar
The time required to upright a molar can vary from:

A) 2-3 weeks
B) 1-2 months
C) 6-12 months
D) 2-3 years
Ortho
C) 6-12 months
Malocclusion is most often:

A) caused by trauma
B) acquired from a friend
C) hereditary
D) caused by antibiotics
E) caused by bad habits
Ortho
C) herditary
Which type of malocclusion listed below is most often associated with mouth breathing?

A) dental open bite
B) skeletal open bite
C) dental cross bite
D) skeletal cross bite
Ortho
B) skeletal open bite
Which cusp of the maxillary first molar serves as a reference point in identifying Angle's class I, II and III occlusions?

A) distobuccal
B) mesiobuccal
C) mesiolingual
D) distolingual
Ortho
B) mesiobuccal
What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in class I malocclusions?

A) SNA angle of >84º
B) SNB angle of <78º
C) ANB angle of <4º
D) none of the above
Ortho
C) ANB angle of <4º
Class II malocclusion is usually associated with which facial profile?

A) an orthognathic profile
B) a retrognathic profile
C) a prognathic profile
D) none of the above
Ortho
B) a retrognathic profile
Class II malocclusion is also referred to as:

A) retrognathism or overbite
B) prognathism or underbite
C) neither of the above
Ortho
A) retrognathism or overbite
Which of the following is the least common?

A) class I malocclusion
B) class II malocclusion
C) class III malocclusion
D) normal occlusion
Ortho
C) class III malocclusion
The existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure to avoid incisor interference is found in:

A) true class III malocclusions
B) pseudo class III malocclusions
C) Sunday bite
Ortho
B) pseudo class III malocclusions
Difficulty pronouncing "f" and "v" sounds is most likely associated with which type of malocclusion?

A) an anterior open bite
B) a class II division I malocclusion
C) a class II division II malocclusion
D) a skeletal class III malocclusion
Ortho
D) a skeletal class III malocclusion
All of the following are extra-oral components of the headgear except:

A) neck strap
B) chin cup
C) face-bow
D) head cap
Ortho
C) face-bow
All of the following are fixed orthodontic appliances except:

A) lingual archwires
B) whip-spring appliances
C) palate-separating devices
D) Frankel's appliances
E) Edgewise mechanisms
F) light-wire appliances
Ortho
D) Frankel's appliances
Which of the following alloys are used for archwires in orthodontics?

A) stainless steel
B) chromium-cobalt
C) titanium
D) all of the above
Ortho
D) all of the above
Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?

A) the Begg appliance
B) the edgewise appliance
C) the universal appliance
D) none of the above
Ortho
B) the edgewise appliance
What condition is appropriately treated at an early age?

A) deviated midline in the absence of a functional shift
B) mild crowding of lower permanent incisors
C) two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite
D) posterior crossbite with a functional shift
Ortho
D) posterior crossbite with a functional shift
Displaced teeth related to functional shifts are usually seen in which two of the following circumstances?

A) posterior crossbite after prolonged thumb sucking
B) class II, division I malocclusion
C) anterior crossbite in mildly prognathic children
D) an anterior open bite after prolonged thumb sucking
Ortho
A) posterior crossbite after prolonged thumb sucking
C) anterior crossbite in mildly prognathic children
Crossbites may be associated with all of the following except:

A) jaw-size discrepancy
B) heredity
C) reverse over-jet
D) scissor-bite
E) tongue thrusting
Ortho
E) tongue thrustins
The classic symptoms of a sucking habit may include all of the following except:

A) anterior open bite
B) crossbite
C) expanded maxillary arch
D) proclination of the maxillary incisors
E) retroclination of the mandibular incisors
F) a class II malocclusion
Ortho
C) expanded maxillary arch
An anterior crossbite in the primary dentition is often indicative of which two of the following?

A) impacted permanent maxillary canines
B) a skeletal growth problem
C) a developing class II malocclusion
D) a developing class III malocclusion
Ortho
B) a skeletal growth problem
C) a developing class III malocclusion
Which of the following would be indicative of maxillary retrognathism?

A) an SNA angle of approximately 82º
B) an SNA angle greater than 82º
C) an SNA angle less than 82º
Ortho
C) An SNA angle less than 82º
A steep mandibular plane angle correlates with:

A) short anterior facial vertical dimensions and anterior open bite malocclusion
B) long anterior facial vertical dimensions and anterior open bite malocclusion
C) short anterior facial vertical dimensions and anterior deep bite malocclusion
D) long anterior facial vertical dimensions and anterior deep bite malocclusions
Ortho
B) long anterior facial vertical dimensions and anterior open bite malocclusion
What is needed so that soft tissues are clearly visible on a lateral cephalometric radiograph?

A) adjustment in kilovoltage
B) adjustment in miliamperage
C) a soft tissue shield
D) a hard tissue shield
E) nothing must be done to make soft tissues visible
Ortho
C) a soft tissue shield
A seven-year-old child with an otherwise good occlusion has a lingually locked maxillary permanent central incisor. There is sufficient room for the tooth. In order to treat this condition properly, the dentist should do what?

A) wait until all permanent teeth have erupted
B) surgically reposition the central incisor
C) correct the condition immediately with a simple appliance
D) none of the above
Ortho
C) correct the condition immediately with a simple appliance
Which of the following is usually used as an etching agent before direct bonding of orthodontic brackets?

A) 10-15% unbuffered phosphoric acid
B) 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid
C) 75-85% unbuffered phosphoric acid
D) 100% unbuffered phosphoric acid
Ortho
B) 35-50% unbuffered phosphoric acid
An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this situation?

A) tipping
B) extrusion
C) intrustion
D) translation
Ortho
A) tipping
Which of the following are potentially detrimental conditions that can occur during use of orthodontic appliances?

A) cause irritation to the gingiva
B) act as plaque harbors
C) make proper oral hygiene difficult to perform
D) all of the above
Ortho
D) all of the above
Which of the following types of headgear produces a distal and upward force on the maxillary teeth and maxilla?

A) straight-pull headgear
B) reverse-pull headgear
C) cervical-pull headgear
D) high-pull headgear
Ortho
D) high-pull headgear
The generalized causes of the failure of tooth eruption or delayed tooth eruption include all of the following except:

A) hereditary gingival fibromatosis
B) Down's syndrome
C) Rickets
D) hyperparathyroidism
Ortho
D) hyperparathyroidism
A "Poor man's cephalometric analysis" is performed via a:

A) dental cast analysis
B) facial profile analysis
C) photographic analysis
D) full face analysis
Ortho
B) facial profile analysis
All of the following are advantages of the indirect method of bonding brackets to a tooth over the direct method except:

A) reduce chair-side time
B) more precise location of brackets possible in the laboratory
C) controlled thickness of the resin between the tooth and the bracket interface
D) no need to custom impression trays and silicone or rubber impressions
E) less technique sensitive
F) easier clean-up during bonding and de-bonding
Ortho
E) less technique sensitive
All of the following statements regarding the effect of environmental influences during growth and development of the face, jaws, and teeth are true except:

A) patients who have excessive overbite or anterior open bite usually have posterior teeth that are infra- or supra-erupted respectively
B) a non-nutritive sucking habit leads to malocclusion only if it continues during the mixed dentition stage
C) negative pressure created within the mouth during sucking is not considered a cause of constriction of the maxillary arch
D) tongue thrust swallowing leads to an open bite
E) adenoids which lead to mouth breathing, cannot be indicted with certainty as an etiologic agent of a long-face pattern of malocclusion because studies show that the majority of the long-face population have no nasal obstruction
Ortho
D) tongue thrust swallowing leads to an open bite
Several polymer systems are used in dentistry. Which of the following systems is used most frequently?

A) Bis-GMA
B) polyether
C) methyl methacrylate
D) polyvinyl
Prosth
C) methyl methacrylate
The powder used in mixing acrylic resin is referred to as the:

A) dimer
B) initiator
C) polymer
D) monomer
Prosth
C) polymer
The shape and amount of the distobuccal extension of a complete mandibular edentulous impression is determined during border molding by the:

A) ramus of the mandible
B) position and action of the masseter muscle
C) lateral pterygoid muscle
D) tone of the buccinator muscle
E) size and location of the buccal frena
Prosth
B) position and action of the masseter muscle
The primary reasons for obtaining the most extensive areal coverage for a mandibular complete denture are:

A) to increase the capacity of underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to improve appearance
B) to provide balanced occlusion and to increase tongue space
C) to increase the capacity of the underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to increase effectiveness of the seal
D) to improve retention and to increase tongue space
Prosth
C) to increase the capacity of the underlying structures to withstand the stress due to biting force and to increase effectiveness of the seal
Immediate dentures should be scheduled for relines at:

A) 1 month and 3 months post extraction
B) 4 months and 7 months post extraction
C) 5 months and 10 months post extraction
D) 1 year and 2 years post extraction
Prosth
C) 5 months and 10 months post extraction
All new dentures should be evaluated:

A) 3 hours after delivery
B) 12 hours after delivery
C) 24 hours after delivery
D) 48 hours after delivery
Prosth
C) 24 hours after delivery
Posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause:

A) gagging
B) cheek biting
C) reduced taste
D) speech abberrations
Prosth
B) cheek biting
Maxillary anterior teeth in a complete denture are usually arranged:

A) facial to the ridge
B) lingual to the ridge
C) exactly over the ridge
Prosth
A) facial to the ridge
A patient who wears a complete maxillary denture complains of a burning sensation in the palatal area of his mouth. This in indicative of too much pressure being exerted by the denture on the:

A) incisive foramen
B) palatal mucosa
C) hamular notch
D) posterior palatal seal
Prosth
A) incisive foramen
The treatment plan for a patient indicated that both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures are to be fabricated. The ideal way to do this is:

A) fabricate the maxillary immediate denture first
B) fabricate the mandibular immediate denture first
C) fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time
Prosth
C) fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time
The first step in the treatment of abused tissues in a patient with existing dentures is to:

A) fabricate a new set of dentures
B) reline the dentures
C) educate the patient
D) excise the abused tissues
Prosth
C) educate the patient
The most important benefit of an overdenture (root-retained denture) is:

A) the psychological comfort of avoiding the loss of all teeth
B) the continuous functional feedback for the neuromuscular system from proprioceptors in the periodontal membrane
C) the preservation of the alveolar ridge
D) the improved support and stability for the denture
E) the increased retention of the denture
Prosth
C) the preservation of the alveolar ridge
The incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth should just touch the wet/dry line of the lower lip when enunciating which sound(s)?

A) "Th" sound
B) "F" and "V" sounds
C) "P" and "B" sounds
D) "S" sound
Prosth
B) "F" and "V" sounds
The primary role of anterior teeth on a denture is:

A) to incise food
B) occlusion
C) esthetics
D) stability of the denture
Prosth
C) esthetics
A patient has worn a complete maxillary denture for 8 years against mandibular anterior teeth (the remainder of the mandibular teeth are missing). She complains of looseness of the denture. Examination of the mouth shows an excessive amount of hyperplastic tissue at the anterior part of the maxillary ridge. The maxillary denture teeth do not show below the upper lip. Radiographs show poor bone structure in the anterior part of the maxillae. The principal cause of difficulty with her maxillary denture is:

A) fibrous tuberosities
B) too great a vertical dimension of occlusion
C) a lack of posterior occlusion
D) the maxillary denture teeth that were used are too short
Prosth
C) a lack of posterior occlusion
The primary indicator of the accuracy of border molding is:

A) adequate coverage of tray borders with the material used for border molding
B) contours of the periphery similar to the final form of the denture
C) stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth
D) uniformly thick borders of the periphery
Prosth
C) stability and lack of displacement of the tray in the mouth
You are in the process of making a complete maxillary denture for a patient. Which of the following structure(s) will be the secondary support area(s)?

A) residual ridges
B) palatal rugae
C) incisive papilla
D) maxillary tuberosity
E) buccal vestibule
Prosth
B) palatal rugae
An overextended distobuccal corner of a mandibular denture will push against which muscle during function?

A) zygomaticus
B) orbicularis oris
C) temporalis
D) masseter
Prosth
D) masseter
After border molding the mandibular custom tray, it is important to check for dislodgement in order to detect areas of:

A) underextension of the tray
B) overextension of the tray
C) thickness of the tray
D) none of the above
Prosth
B) overextension of the tray
Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following must be determined?

A) the inclination of each condyle
B) vertical dimension of occlusion
C) centric relation
D) location of the hinge axis point
Prosth
D) location of the hinge axis point
A plaster index is used to:

A) maintain the vertical dimension of occlusion
B) maintain bite registration
C) preserve the fac-bow transfer
D) all of the above
Prosth
C) preserve the face-bow transfer
A generalized speech difficulty with complete dentures is usually caused by which two of the following?

A) faulty tooth position
B) excess vertical dimension of occlusion
C) faulty palatal contours
D) faulty occlusion
Prosth
A) faulty tooth position
C) faulty palatal contours
At the first appointment after insertion of complete dentures, the presence of generalized soreness on the crest of the mandibular ridge is most likely due to:

A) the newness of the denture
B) defective tissue registration
C) premature occlusal contacts
D) incomplete polymerization of the denture base
Prosth
C) premature occlusal contacts
The inferior surfact of the maxillary occlusion rim should be parallel to:

A) Frankfort's plane
B) Camper's line
C) Fox plane
D) horizontal condylar inclination
Prosth
B) Camper's line
The most frequent cause of porosities in a denture is:

A) insufficient pressue on the flask during processing
B) insufficient material in the mold
C) a rapid elevation in temperature to 212ºF causing vaporization of the liquid
Prosth
A) insufficient pressure on the flask during processing
All of the following are disadvantages to immediate denture therapy. Which one is considered to be the major disadvantage to immediate denture therapy?

A) increased post-insertion care
B) increased post-insertion soreness
C) not being able to have an anterior tooth try-in to evaluate esthetics
D) greater complexity of clinical procedures
E) a higher cost of treatment
Prosth
C) not being able to have an anterior tooth try-in to evaluate esthetics
The disadvantage(s) of an immediate complete denture is (are):

A) esthetics is compromised
B) speech adaptation is difficult
C) extraction sites are susceptible to trauma
D) relining/rebasing of the denture is required in 8-12 months
E) masticatory function is lost during the healing phase
F) all of the above
Prosth
D) relining/rebasing of the denture is required in 8-12 months
All of the following statements are true concerning a face-bow or a face-bow transfer except:

A) the face-bow is a caliper-like device used to record the patient's maxilla/hinge axis relationship (opening and closing axis)
B) if the transfer is done properly, the arc of closure on the articulator should duplicate that exhibited by the patient
C) the face-bow transfer is a maxillo-mandibular record
D) the face-bow transfer is used to transfer the maxilla/hinge axis relationship to the articulator during the mounting of the maxillary cast
Prosth
C) the face-bow transfer is a maxillo-mandibular record
The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture:

A) is placed 3mm posterior to the vibrating line
B) is not necessary when fabricating a complete denture on a patient with a flat palate
C) is not necessary if a metal base is used
D) will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form of the patient
Prosth
D) will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form of the patient
Which of the following landmarks is least relevant to the location of the posterior palatal seal area?

A) pterygomaxillary notch
B) vibrating line
C) hamular process
D) fovea palatinae
Prosth
C) hamular process
In metal-ceramic restorations, failure or fracture usually occurs:

A) in the porcelain
B) at the porcelain-metal interface
C) in the metal
Prosth
A) in the procelain
The strength of a solder joint is proportional to its:

A) porosity
B) thickness
C) surface area
D) all of the above
Prosth
C) surface area
Which of the following are indications for fixed bridgework or important considerations to think about when contemplating the fabrication of fixed bridgework for a patient?

A) a limited number of edentulous areas which would not otherwise be more satisfactorily restored with a removable partial denture
B) the need to prevent the over-eruption of opposing teeth and the drift of teeth neighboring the edentulous space
C) the presence of suitable abutment teeth -> favorable crown/root ratio, adequate alveolar support, absence of apical pathology
D) esthetics
E) patient motivation, including time availability
F) clinical and technical ability
G) all of the above
Prosth
G) all of the above
Endodontically treated teeth that have been restored with a cast post and core, and crown, are subjected to the high incidence of:

A) periodontal disease
B) recurrent caries
C) vertical root fracture
D) the need for an apicoectomy
Prosth
C) vertical root fracture
All of the following are indications for porcelain veneers except:

A) coverage of labial surface defects -> hypoplasia of the enamel
B) masking of discolored teeth -> tetracycline staining, discoloration following loss of vitality
C) the severe inbrication of teeth
D) repair of structural damage -> fractured incisal edges
E) improvement of tooth contour -> peg-shaped lateral incisors
F) reduction of spacing in cases when orthodontics would be inappropriate
Prosth
C) the severe inbrication of teeth
The absolute maximum number of posterior teeth, which can be safely replaced with a fixed bridge is:

A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Prosth
C) three
A reverse 3/4 crown is most frequently fabricated for a:

A) maxillary premolar
B) mandibular premolar
C) mandibular molar
D) maxillary molar
Prosth
C) mandibular molar
High-gold noble alloys, which are used in fabricating metal-ceramic restorations, are:

A) 50% gold, platinum, and palladium
B) 75% gold, platinum, and palladium
C) 98% gold, platinum, and palladium
D) 100% gold, platinum, and palladium
Prosth
C) 98% gold, platinum, and palladium
Periodontal health of the gingival tissues is a major concern when planning any fixed prosthodontic treatment. For optinum periodontal health, restoration finish lines should be:

A) within the sulcus at least 1.0mm and away from the free gingival margin without encroaching on the biologic width
B) terminated at the free gingival margin
C) supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing
D) as far as possible subgingivally into the attachment apparatus
Prosth
C) supragingival whenever possible (at least 0.5mm from the free gingival margin) to allow for hygienic cleansing
When casting conventional gold alloys, which type of investment material is used?

A) silica-bonded investments
B) phosphate-bonded investments
C) gypsum-bonded investments
Prosth
C) gypsum-bonded investments
All of the following statements regarding metal-ceramic restorations are true except:

A) The metal and porcelain must have compatible melting temperatures as well as compatible coefficient of thermal expansions
B) The metal's melting temperature should be at least 300-500ºF higher than the fusing temperature of the porcelain
C) the metal coping should preferably have sharp surfaces to prevent shrinkage of the porcelain
D) the absolute minimum required thickness of the porcelain is 0.7mm and the metal's thickness may vary from 0.3 to 0.5mm for noble alloys and 0.2mm for base metal alloys
E) in function, glazed porcelain on the occlusal surface removes 40 times as much of the opposing tooth structure than gold
Prosth
C) the metal coping should preferably have sharp surfaces to prevent shrinkage of the porcelain
When preparing a tooth for either a full or partial-veneer casting, the functional cusp bevel is an integral park of the occlusal reduction phase. The functional cusp bevel:

A) enhances resistance form when buccal-to-lingual forces are applied
B) serves as a positive stop when the casting is seated during cementation
C) relieves the functional cusp from additional stresses when the restoration is loaded in the long axis of the tooth
D) provides space for restorative material of adequate thickness in an area of heavy occlusal contact
Prosth
D) provides space for restorative material of adequate thickness in an area of heavy occlusal contact
The preparation for a full gold crown involves circumferential and occlusal reduction of between:

A) 0.5 and 1.0 mm
B) 2.0 and 2.5 mm
C) 3.0 and 3.5 mm
D) 4.0 and 4.5 mm
Prosth
A) 0.5 and 1.0 mm
Which of the following best describes "strain hardening" or "work hardening?"

A) hardening (or deformation) of a metal at room temperature
B) hardening (or deformation) of a metal at a very high temperature
C) softening a metal by controlled heating and cooling
D) softening a metal at room temperature
Prosth
A) hardening (or deformation) of a metal at room temperature
Which of the following best describes the term "quenching?"

A) a metal is elevated to a temperature above room temperature and held there for a length of time
B) a metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below
C) softening a metal by controlled heating and cooling
D) none of the above
Prosth
B) a metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature to room temperature or below
Gypsum bonded investment material can be used for:

A) dowel crowns to be cast in silver-palladium alloys
B) titanium crowns and copings
C) the substructure for metal ceramic crowns
D) type IV gold alloys
E) none of the above
F) all of the above
Prosth
A) dowel crowns to be cast in silver-palladium alloys
The path of insertion for an anterior 3/4 crown should:

A) be perpendicular to the incisal one-half of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth
B) be parallel to the incisal one-half to two-thirds of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth
C) be parallel to the long axis of the tooth
D) be parallel to the cervical one-third of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth
Prosth
B) be parallel to the incisal one-half to two-thirds of the labial surface rather than the long axis of the tooth
When treatment planning for fixed prosthodontics, all of the following information can be obtained by studying diagnostic casts except:

A) the length of the abutment teeth can be accurately gauged
B) the true inclination of the abutment teeth will be evident
C) the presence of periodontal pockets and the crown-to-root ration of potential abutment teeth
D) mesial/distal drifting, rotation, and faciolingual displacement of potential abutment teeth can be clearly seen
Prosth
C) the presence of periodontal pockets and the crown-to-root ratio of potential abutment teeth
All of the following statements concerning pontics are true except:

A) with regard to the ease of cleaning and good tissue health; proper pontic design is more important than the choice of material in fabricating the pontic
B) the contour and nature of the pontic contact with the ridge is very important
C) the area of contact between the pontic and the ridge should be small
D) the portion of the pontic approximating the ridge should be as concave as possible
E) the pontic should exert no pressure on the ridge (passive contact with no blanching of the tissue)
Prosth
D) the portion of the pontic approximating the ridge should be as concave as possible
The ideal crown-to-root ratio of a tooth to be utilized as a bridge abutment is:

A) 3:1
B) 2:1
C) 1:2
D) 1:1
Prosth
C) 1:2
Which agent is most commonly added to the flux (used for soldering stainless steel or cobalt chromium alloys) with a specific purpose to dissolve the passivating film (chromium oxide film) that may prevent wetting of the metal with the solder?

A) sodium pyroborate
B) boric acid
C) silica
D) potassium fluoride
Prosth
D) potassium fluoride
What type of pontic design would you use in a patient with a high esthetic demand when preparing teeth numbers 9-11 for a fixed partial denture?

A) the ridge lap or saddle pontic
B) the sanitary of hygienic pontic
C) the modified ridge lap pontic
D) an ovate pontic
E) bullet-shaped pontic
Prosth
C) the modified ridge lap pontic
Which of the following luting materials should be the material of choice to cement a ceramic crown and can provide the strongest bond?

A) zinc polycarboxylate cement
B) glass ionomer cement
C) zinc phosphate cement
D) ZOE cement
E) composite resin
Prosth
E) composite resin
Which of the following marginal designs is theoretically the best finishing margin for cast gold restorations, allowing burnishing and adaptation of the gold to the tooth?

A) shoulder
B) shoulder with a bevel
C) chamfer
D) bevel or feathered edge
Prosth
D) bevel or feathered edge
What is the general rule for sprue pin diameter when using a centrifugal type of casting machine?

A) the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal or greater than the thickest portion of the pattern
B) the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or smaller than the thickest portion of the pattern
C) the diameters of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thinnest portion of the pattern
D) the diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or smaller than the thinnest portion of the pattern
Prosth
A) The diameter of the sprue pin should be equal to or greater than the thickest portion of the pattern
A non-rigid connector is comprised of:

A) a key
B) a keyway
C) a key and a keyway
Prosth
C) a key and a keyway
The anteroposterior curvature (in the median plane) and the mediolateral curvature (in the frontal plane) in the alignment of the occluding surfaces and incisal edges of artificial teeth that are used to develop balanced occlusion is called:

A) Curve of Spee
B) Compensating Curve
C) Curve of Wilson
D) Curve of Pleasure
Prosth
B) Compensating Curve
Assume that a patient wearing complete dentures for a number of years is given an oral examination and it is determined that the vertical dimension of occlusion has been decreased. This would cause:

A) an increased vertical dimension that leaves the teeth in a clenched, closed relation in normal positions
B) an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position
C) an insufficient amount of interarch distance because of heavy, bony ridges
D) an inability to open the mandible because of temperomandibular joint pathosis
Prosth
B) an occluding vertical dimension that results in an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position
Centric relation is an example of a (an):

A) tooth-to-tooth relation
B) an occlusal relation
C) bone-to-bone relation
D) balanced relation
Prosth
C) bone-to-bone relation
Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication for centric relation is not true?

A) primary centric holding cusps are the maxillary lingual cusps
B) secondary centric holding cusps are the mandibular buccal cusps
C) selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is working side interference
D) grind only the cusp tips of the upper buccal and lower lingual (B.U.L.L.) cusps if they are premature in centric, lateral, or protrusive movements
Prosth
C) selective grinding of the inner inclines of secondary holding cusps can be done if there is a working side interference
Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of the:

A) facial cusps of mandibular molars
B) facial cusps of maxillary premolars
C) lingual cusps of mandibular molars
D) facial cusps of maxillary molars
Prosth
A) facial cusps of mandibular molars
Where do the occlusal contact possibilities occur during a protrusive movement?

A) on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular distal inclines
B) on the maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
C) on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
D) on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular distal inclines
Prosth
C) on the maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines
Which of the following best describes Camper's line (plane)?

A) it is a line (plane) which is determined by the occlusal surfaces of the teeth
B) it is a line (plane) which extends from the outer canthus of the eye to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
C) it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
D) none of the above
Prosth
C) it is the line (plane) running from the inferior border of the ala of the nose to the superior border of the tragus of the ear
In the inercuspal position, the mesiolingual cusp of a permanent maxillary first molar occludes where?

A) central fossa of the mandibular first molar
B) central fossa of the mandibular second molar
C) the interproximal marginal ridge areas between mandibular first and second molars
D) the interproximal marginal ridge areas between mandibular second and third molars
Prosth
A) central fossa of the mandibular first molar
During non-working, excursive movements, the permanent maxillary first molar's mesiolingual cusp escapes through:

A) the lingual groove of the mandibular first molar
B) the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
C) the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
D) the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
E) the space between the mesiobuccal and distobuccal cusps of the mandibular first molar
Prosth
D) the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
Which should ideally provide the predominant guidance through the full range of movement in lateral mandibular excursions?

A) premolars
B) first molars
C) incisors
D) canines
Prosth
D) canines
When establishing a balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the balancing side should contact:

A) the central fossae of mandibular posterior teeth
B) the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
C) the lingual inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
D) the facial inclines of lingual cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
Prosth
B) the lingual inclines of facial cusps of mandibular posterior teeth
In an indeal intercuspal position, the facial cusp tips of permanent maxillary premolars oppose:

A) the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth mesial to it
B) the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
C) the opposing central fossae
D) the opposing mesial marginal ridge
Prosth
B) the facial embrasure between their class counterpart and the tooth distal to it
In the intercuspal position, the distobuccal cusp of a permanent mandibular second molar occludes where?

A) the interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary second bicuspidd and first molar
B) central fossa of the maxillary first molar
C) central fossa of the maxillary second molar
D) the interproximal marginal ridge area between the maxillary first molar and second molar
Prosth
C) central fossa of the maxillary second molar
In a retrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in a:

A) backward and upward direction
B) downward and forward direction
Prosth
A) backward and upward direction
During typical empty mouth swallowing, the mandible is braced in which jaw position to allow for proper stabilization?

A) intercuspal position (IP)
B) retruded contact position (RCP)
C) protruded contact position (PCP)
D) centric relation (CR)
Prosth
A) intercuspal position (IP)
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, the contact of teeth is:

A) maximum
B) not present
C) premature
D) slight
Prosth
B) not present
Bite registration material used to make an accurate interocclusal record should have what important characteristics?

A) offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing
B) offer a maximum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
C) offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
D) offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have high flow at mixing
Prosth
C) offer a minimum resistance to the patient's jaw closure and have low flow at mixing
Which of the following materials available for recording centric relation when fabricating a removable partial denture is the least satisfactory?

A) modeling plastic
B) wax
C) quick-setting impression plaster
D) metallic oxide bite registration paste
E) silicone impression materials
Prosth
B) wax
The lingual cusps of the maxillary posterior teeth are:

A) non-supporting and working
B) supporting and balancing
C) supporting and working
D) non-supporting and balancing
Prosth
C) supporting and working
Anterior guidance is the result of:

A) horizontal overlap
B) vertical overlap
C) horizontal and vertical overlap
Prosth
C) horizontal and vertical overlap
All of the following concepts related to occlusion are true except:

A) optimum occlusion requires minimum adaptation by the patient
B) bilateral balanced occlusion dictates that a minimum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursive movements
C) unilateral balanced occlusion or "group function" calls for all teeth on the working side to be in contact during a lateral excursion
D) mutually protected occlusion, also called "canine guided" or "organic" occlusion is the one in which anterior teeth protect posterior teeth in all mandibular excursions
E) mutually protected occlusion is the most widely accepted arrangement of occlusion
Prosth
B) bilateral balanced occlusion dictates that a minimum number of teeth should contact during mandibular excursive movements
All of the following are the theoretical determinants needed for restoring a complete and functional occlusal surface of a tooth except:

A) the amount of vertical overlap of the anterior teeth
B) the contour of the articular eminence
C) the height of the pulp horn of that particular tooth
D) the amount and direction of lateral shift in the working side condyle
E) the position of the tooth in the arch
Prosth
C) the height of the pulp horn of that particular tooth
All of the following are considered to be the basic principles for occlusal adjustment, except:

A) the maximum distribution of occlusal stresses in centric relation
B) the forces of occlusion should be borne as much as possible by the long axis of the teeth
C) when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to-surface contact
D) once centric occlusion is established, never take the teeth out of centric occlusion
Prosth
C) when there is point-to-surface contact of flat cusps, it should be changed to a surface-to-surface contact
In an ideal intercuspal position, the mesiobuccal cusp of the permanent maxillary second molar opposes:

A) the distobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar
B) the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
C) the mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular second molar
D) the developmental groove between the distobuccal and the distal cusps of the mandibular first molar
Prosth
B) the buccal groove of the mandibular second molar
In the early stages of lateral movements, the condyle appears to rotate with a slight lateral shift in the direction of the movement. This movement is called the Bennett movement. This Bennett movement refers to the:

A) non-working side condyle only
B) working side condyle only
C) both the non-working and working side condyles
D) neither of the condyles
Prosth
B) working side condyle only
When posterior teeth are in a normal ideal relationship, which of the following cusps are considered to be guiding cusps?

A) maxillary lingual cusps
B) maxillary buccal cusps
C) mandibular lingual cusps
D) mandibular buccal cusps
Prosth
B) maxillary buccal cusps
C) mandibular lingual cusps
The "Glossary of Prosthodontic Terms" defines balanced occlusion as:

A) an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric only within the functional range
B) an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in eccentric positions only within the functional range
C) an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range
Prosth
C) an occlusion of the teeth which presents a harmonious relation of the occluding surfaces in centric and eccentric positions within the functional range
Reducing occlusal interferences (selective grinding) should usually be done:

A) after a fixed bridge or a partial denture is delivered to a patient
B) before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient
C) after a fixed bridge but before a partial denture is delivered to a patient
D) after a partial denture but before a fixed bridge is delivered to a patient
Prosth
B) before constructing a fixed bridge or a partial denture for a patient
Prolonged sensitivity to heat, cold, and pressure after cementation of a crown or a fixed bridge is usually related to:

A) recurrent decay
B) a periodontal problem
C) occlusal trauma
D) an open margin
Prosth
C) occlusal trauma
In a posterior fixed bridge, all of the following are true except:

A) a pontic should be in contact in centric occlusion
B) a pontic may or may not be in contact in working-side movements
C) a pontic should be in contact in non-working side movements
Prosth
C) a pontic should be in contact in non-working side movements
Condylar guidance is a factor which:

A) is totally controlled by the dentist
B) is totally dictated by the patient
C) is partially dictated by the patient but can be adjusted by the dentist if necessary
D) can be adjusted by the laboratory technician
Prosth
B) is totally dictated by the patient
Decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to an occluding vertical dimension that results in:

A) a loss of interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (decreased freeway space)
B) an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest position (insreased freeway space)
C) neither of the above, vertical dimension of occlusion does not affect interocclusal distance
Prosth
B) an excessive interocclusal distance when the mandible is in the rest positions (increased freeway space)
Centric relation (CR) is a:

A) muscle-guided position
B) ligament-guided position
C) tooth-guided position
Prosth
B) ligament-guided position
All of the following statements concerning the functionally generated pathway technique are true except:

A) a prerequisite for the use of this technique for the restoration of a single tooth is the presence of a class III occlusion
B) this technique allows the cuspal movements of the dentition to be recorded in wax intra-orally and transferred to the articulator in the form of a static plaster cast
C) this static plaster cast is also called the functional index
D) by registering the pathways of the opposing tooth surfaces during mandibular movements, the technique allows a laboratory technician to provide a restoration with an occlusal surface less likely to incorporate occlusal interferences
Prosth
A) a prerequisite for the use of this technique for the restoration of a single tooth is the presence of a class III occlusion
There are four types of gypsum products approved for use in dentistry. Which of the following types is used rarely today?

A) type I
B) type II
C) type III
D) type IV
Prosth
A) type I
In mixing dental stone, why should the powder be sprinkled onto the water in the bowl?

A) the addition of powder prevents the mix from becoming exothermic
B) this is not recommended; the water should be added to the powder
C) this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles
D) the powder is added to the water to avoid using more than one bowl
Prosth
C) this process results in better powder mixing and reduced chance for air bubbles
Dental stone and dental plaster both have a slightly different type of principal component (calcium sulfate hemihydrate). Dental plaster has:

A) beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has gamma-hemihydrate
B) alpha-hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate
C) gamma hemihydrate and dental stone has beta-hemihydrate
D) beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha-hemihydrate
Prosth
D) beta-hemihydrate and dental stone has alpha-hemihydrate
Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to:

A) minimize distortion
B) reduce setting time
C) eliminate air bubbles
D) increase the setting time
Prosth
C) eliminate air bubbles
Dental plaster is produced by:

A) heating gypsum in an open vessel at 150-160ºC
B) heating gypsum under steam pressure in an autoclave at 120-150ºC
C) by boiling gypsum in a 30% aqueous solution of calcium chloride and magnesium chloride
Prosth
A) heating gypsum in an open vessel at 150-160ºC
An edentulous patient has slight undercuts on both tuberosities and also on the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the following?

A) all undercuts
B) the anterior undercut only
C) both tuberosity undercuts
D) none of them
Prosth
C) both tuberosity undercuts
Rotational movements take place in which component of the TMJ?

A) upper (mandibular fossa - articular disc) compartment
B) lower (condyle - articular disc)
C) both the upper and lower compartments
Prosth
B) lower (condyle - articular disc)
An articulator which has the condylar elements on the lower member of the articulator and the condylar path elements on the upper member is called the:

A) Arcon articulator
B) non-arcon articulator
Prosth
A) Arcon articulator
You are ready to place packing cord around a tooth that was prepared for a crown on a patient with hypertension. It is recommended to use a cord impregnated with:

A) epinephrine
B) alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
C) zinc chloride
D) any of the above
Prosth
B) alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
A small hook-like projection of bone that extends from the medial pterygoid plate of the sphenoid bone is called the:

A) hamulus
B) hamular notch
C) maxillary tuberosity
D) fovea palatini
Prosth
A) hamulus
The torus palatinus is a hard bony enlargement that occurs in the midline of the roof of the mouth and is found in about:

A) 2% of the population
B) 20% of the population
C) 50% of the population
D) 75% of the population
Prosth
B) 20% of the population
Which of the following is the most important reason for treatment of hyperplastic tissue before construction of a complete or removable partial denture?

A) it will make the patient feel better
B) it will make the face-bow transfer easier to perform
C) to provide a firm, stable base for the denture
D) the final impression material will flow better
Prosth
C) to provide a firm, stable base for the denture
When inflammatory papillary hyperplasia is seen on the palate of a patient wearing a maxillary complete denture, the condition is most likely going to be associated with:

A) a vitamin B deficiency
B) a sudden increase in body weight
C) a hypersensitivity of the patient to the acrylic denture base
D) ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene
Prosth
D) ill-fitting dentures and a poor state of oral hygiene
The most common cause of dry mouth (xerostomia) is:

A) aging
B) alcoholism
C) vitamine A or vitamin B deficiency
D) the use of drugs to manage chronic diseases
E) diabetes
Prosth
D) the use of drugs to manage chronic diseases
A chronically ill-fitting denture may cause an inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia adjacent to its border. This condition is known as:

A) verrucous vulgaris
B) inflammatory papillary hyperplasia
C) stomatitis nicotina
D) epulis fissuratum
Prosth
D) epulis fissuratum
Most cases of which diseases below are detected because patients complain that their dentures are not fitting since the bone has become too large for them?

A) Addison's disease
B) Paget's disease
C) Hashimoto's disease
D) multiple sclerosis
Prosth
B) Paget's disease
Which of the following is not associated with diabetes?

A) delayed healing
B) rapidly progressing periodontal disease with marked alveolar bone loss
C) mucosal bleeding
D) increased calculus formation
E) a predilection for periapical abscesses
Prosth
C) mucosal bleeding
All of the following muscles are involved in elevating the mandible (closing the mouth) except:

A) masseter muscles
B) medial pterygoid muscles
C) lateral pterygoid muscles
D) temporalis muscles
Prosth
C) lateral pterygoid muscles
You have prepared tooth #8 for a dowel core. Which of the following will best serve the purpose of provisionally restoring the tooth?

A) place a piece of paper clip or stiff wire into the canal and put a resin filled polycarbonate crown over it
B) take an alginate impression, fabricate an acrylic crown and cement it in with zinc phosphate
C) use the overimpression technique to construct the provisional crown and cement it in with any temporary luting cement
D) use a pre-formed metal crown and cement it in with a temporary luting cement
E) none of the above
Prosth
A) place a piece of paper clip or stiff wire into the canal and put a resin filled polycarb
One disadvantage of dental porcelain restorations is:

A) poor esthetics
B) expansion
C) brittleness
D) radioactivity
Prosth
C) brittleness
Which of the following is true concerning the first application of dental porcelain to a restoration?

A) the first layer is called incisal and provides a stable substrate for additional layers
B) the first layer is called body and is very translucent
C) the first layer is called opaque and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
D) the first layer is called glaze and provides reduction of surface oxides on the metal casting
Prosth
C) the first layer is called opaque and effectively covers the metallic sheen of the underlying casting
Color can be described in terms of three standard components. Which of the following is not a standard component used to describe a color?

A) hue
B) chroma
C) value
D) intensity
Prosth
D) intensity
Teeth that appear to be color matched under one type of light may appear very different under another light source. This phenomenon is called:

A) fluorescence
B) metamerism
C) opaqueness
D) translucency
Prosth
B) metamerism
Glazed porcelain is:

A) obtained by heating the previously fired body very slowly for 60 minutes at its fusing temperature
B) nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is wel tolerated by the gingiva
C) not as durable (in its surface characteristics) as an over-glazed porcelain
D) all of the above
Prosth
B) nonporous, resists abrasion, possesses esthetic ability and is well tolerated by the gingiva
Low-fusing porcelain is usually used for the manufacture of:

A) denture teeth
B) all ceramic crowns
C) metal-ceramic crowns
D) all of the above
Prosth
C) metal-ceramic crowns
The process by which a casting is heated in a porcelain furnace to a temperature of 980ºC to burn off any remaining impurities prior to adding porcelain is called:

A) quenching
B) pickling
C) degassing
D) investing
Prosth
C) degassing
Comparing household porcelain to dental porcelain, household porcelain:

A) contains larger amounts of feldspar
B) contains larger amounts of kaolin
C) is fabricated at temperatures above the melting point
D) all of the above
Prosth
B) contains larger amounts of kaolin
How would you classify a removable partial denture in which a portion of the functional load is carried by the residual ridge at one end of the denture base segment while the other end of the base segment is supported by natural teeth?

A) a tooth-borne removable partial denture
B) a bilateral distal extension removable partial denture
C) a unilateral distal extension removable partial denture
Prosth
C) a unilateral distal extension removable partial denture
A major connector is:

A) the connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis
B) the part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border of the denture
C) the unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side
D) none of the above
Prosth
C) the unit of a partial denture that connects the parts of the prosthesis located on one side of the arch with those on the opposite side
When designing an anterior-posterior palatal bar maxillary major connector, the anterior, posterior, and lateral straps should be about:

A) 2-4 mm wide
B) 6-8 mm wide
C) 8-10 mm wide
D) at least 12 mm wide
Prosth
B) 6-8 mm wide
A mandibular lingual bar major connector requires a minimum of:

A) 3 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
B) 5 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
C) 7 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
D) 9 mm of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth
Prosth
C) 7 mm of vertical height between the ginigval margin and the floor of the mouth
All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for removable partial dentures except:

A) corrosion resistance
B) high strength
C) high flexibility
D) low specific gravity
Prosth
C) high flexibility
The type or form of clasp is generally selected after:

A) looking at x-rays
B) talking to the patient
C) surveying the cast
D) the initial try-in of the metal framework
Prosth
C) surveying the cast
Suprabulge retainers (clasps) originate:

A) below the height of contour
B) above the height of contour
C) above the 0.08" undercut
D) above the occlusal surface of most molars
Prosth
B) above the height of contour
All of the following are advantages of infrabulge retainers as compared to suprabulge retainers except:

A) more efficient retention
B) less distortion of coronal contours
C) less tooth contact
D) cleaner
E) less bothersome to vestibular tissues
F) less prone to caries
G) esthetically superior in most cases
H) greater adjustability
Prosth
E) less bothersome to vestibular tissues
Which of the following indirect retainers will provide the best leverage against lifting of the denture base?

A) the one located the closest to the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area
B) the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area
C) the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area
Prosth
B) the one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area
Which of the following Kennedy classes of removable partial dentures are not tooth-borne?

A) class I
B) class II
C) class III
D) class IV
Prosth
A) class I
B) class II
What is the recommended treatment for a patient who has lost her four maxillary incisors some time ago and has suffered excessive ridge resorption?

A) a conventional six-unit fixed bridge
B) no treatment
C) a removable partial denture
D) a Maryland bridge
Prosth
C) a removable partial denture
All of the following are indications for using a linguoplate as a mandibular major connector except:

A) to avoid a high lingual frenum or when there is no space in the floor of the mouth
B) mandibular tori that cannot be removed
C) to support periodontally weakened teeth
D) lingually tilted mandibular anterior teeth
E) severe anterior crowding
F) to serve as retention for lower anterior denture teeth when the prognosis for the natural teeth is guarded
Prosth
E) severe anterior crowding
It is important that a wrought wire clasp have an elongation percentage of:

A) more than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
B) more than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
C) less than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
D) less than 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
Prosth
B) more than 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
All of the following are true regarding indirect retention except:

A) it is a rest seat
B) it is located as far anterior as possible
C) the function is to prevent vertical displacement of the distal extension base of a removable partial denture
D) it is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
Prosth
D) it is usually an MO rest seat on a first molar
The strength, hardness, and tensile strength of wrought wire is approximately:

A) 5% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
B) 25% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
C) 50% less than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
D) 75% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
Prosth
B) 25% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
In the mesial rest, guide plane and I-bar design, reciprocation is achieved by all of the following except:

A) rigid plating
B) minor connectors
C) guide planes extended around the vertical line of abutments
D) achieving balanced occlusion
E) contact areas of proximal teeth
F) reciprocal clasp arms
Prosth
D) achieving balanced occlusion
The cingulum rest is usually confined to preparation on:

A) maxillary lateral incisors
B) maxillary canines
C) mandibular lateral incisors
D) mandibular canines
Prosth
B) maxillary canines
When designing a clasp assembly for the abutment tooth of a distal extension RPD, on which part of the crown surface should the retentive and reciprocal clasp arms be located?

A) occlusal third
B) middle third
C) ginigval third
Prosth
C) ginigval third
Which of the following is defined as "the quality of a restoration to be firm, steady, constant and not subject to change of position when forces are applied?"

A) retention
B) stability
C) adhesion
D) reciprocation
Prosth
B) stability
A patient of yours walks into your office with the following complaint. "When I smile, my upper denture doesn't hold." Which area of the denture base needs to be adjusted?

A) labial notch and labial flange
B) buccal notch and buccal flange
C) posterior border
D) distobuccal flange
Prosth
B) buccal notch and buccal flange
Free end saddles are liable to be displaced under occlusal pressure (anteroposterior rocking around the abutment tooth, which acts as a pivot). This is as a result of the displaceability of the mucosa. Which technique is employed to try and prevent this by taking an impression of the mucosa under controlled pressure?

A) the functional load technique
B) the altered cast technique
C) the residual ridge technique
D) the total occlusal load technique
Prosth
B) the altered cast technique
Most designs of stressbreakers will rather effectively dissipate vertical forces to terminal abutments. However, this occurs at the expense of what supporting entity?

A) the periodontal ligament of the abutment teeth
B) the alveolar support of the abutment teeth
C) the residual ridge
D) all of the above
Prosth
C) the residual ridge
All of the following are advantages of precision attachment restorations except:

A) they provide retention without an unsightly display of metal
B) they are easy to repair
C) the functional load is dispersed down the long axis of the abutments by virtue of the low central loading at the base of the attachments
D) the restorations permit the patient access to all areas of the tissues when the denture is not in place
E) if both sides of the dental arch have this type of restoration and are joined by a rigid major connector, excellent bilateral stabilization is provided to the abutments
Prosth
B) they are easy to repair
When surveying casts, the clinician/technician must perform an important step in order to correctly record the path of insertion, the position of the survey line and the location of undercut and non undercut areas. Which of the following is considered to be that step?

A) the recontouring of proximal walls of abutments parallel to the path of insertion
B) the use of indelible lead marker
C) placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
D) fixing the casts with screws on the surveying table
E) all of the above steps are equally important
Prosth
C) placing tripod marks on the cast to record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor
Which primary design-quality of the occlusal rest would categorize it as a "positive" rest?

A) allow no tilting of the appliance
B) prevent the movement of the appliance
C) transmit stress down the long axis of the tooth
D) form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors
E) have a thickness of 1.5 mm
F) all of the above
Prosth
D) form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connectors
The size of posterior teeth for a removable partial denture is determined primarily by which two of the following?

A) the useful posterior tooth space
B) the lip line of the patient
C) the age of the patient
D) the characteristics of the denture-supporting tissues
E) the face-bow transfet
Prosth
A) the useful posterior tooth space
D) the characteristics of the denture-supporting tissues
Dr. Blandi requested that you mix alginate and take an impression. While measuring the water, you got involved in a conversation with your patient and did not notice how cold it was. This oversight will:

A) shorten the gelation time
B) make the mix unusable
C) lengthen the gelation time
D) not affect the gelation time
Prosth
C) lengthen the gelation time
Which of the following is not a characteristic of polyether impression materials?

A) the working and setting times are shorter than those for polysulfide materials; they are more like those of addition silicone materials
B) slow setting
C) dimensionally stable if more than one cast is poured
D) excellent dimensional stability when dry
E) they are very stiff compared to other materials
F) they are clean materials to use but have an unpleasant taste
G) they are very accurate and easy to pour with gypsum products
Prosth
B) slow setting
Which of the following impression materials has a "putty/reline" form, which affords it delayed pouring of up to six hours?

A) polysulfides
B) silicones
C) polyvinyl siloxanes
D) polyethers
Prosth
B) silicones
Which of the following is an example of an inelsatic impression material?

A) polysulfide
B) alginate
C) addition silicone
D) ZOE impression paste
Prosth
D) ZOE impression paste
The popularity of agar impression material (reversible hydrocolloid) is limited by the:

A) difficulty in pouring the impression
B) poor reproduction of detail
C) need for special equipment
D) high cost
Prosth
C) need for special equipment
The filler in alginate gives the mixed material "body" that allows acceptable handling. Without filler, the mixed material would be too runny for use. Which of the following is a main component of the alginate powder and functions as the filler?

A) zinc oxide
B) calcium sulfate
C) potassium titanium fluoride
D) diatomaceous earth (silica)
E) potassium alginate
F) tri-sodium phosphate
Prosth
D) diatomaceous earth (silica)
ZOE impression material:

A) will spring back from undercuts
B) has its set retarded by water
C) should be mixed to a uniform color
D) sets by cooling the material
Prosth
C) should be mixed to a uniform color
You are taking an impression with alginate and unbeknownst to you there is debris on the tissue. How will this affect the final impression?

A) it will be grainy
B) it will tear easily
C) there will be ireegularly shaped voids
D) it will be distorted
Prosth
C) there will be irregularly shaped voids
Which component of zinc-oxide-eugenol impression paste facilitates the speed of the reaction which results in a smoother, more homogenous product?

A) oil of cloves
B) resinous balsam
C) rosin
D) calcium chloride
Prosth
C) rosin
Polyvinyl siloxane impression materials:

A) set by opening of the Si=O bond
B) are also known as condensation silicones
C) should be teased from around the teeth to prevent tearing
D) are also known as addition silicones
Prosth
D) are also known as addition silicones
Place the following non-aqueous elastic impression materials in order from best to worst in regards to dimensional stability.

A) polyether
B) polysulfide
C) condensation silicone
D) addition silicone
Prosth
D) addition silicone
A) polyether
B) polysulfide
C) condensation silicone
Place the following elastic impression materials in order from longest to shortest in regards to working time.

A) polyether
B) polysulfide
C) agar (reversible hydrocolloid)
D) alginate (irreversible hydrocolloid)
E) silicones
Prosth
C) agar (reversible hydrocolloid)
B) polysulfide
E) silicones
D) alginate (irreversible hydrocolloid) = A) polyether
All elastomeric impression materials:

A) expand initially and then contract during curing
B) expand slightly during curing
C) contract slightly during curing
D) contract initially and then expand during curing
Prosth
C) contract slightly during curing
Some impression materials are most accurate when at least 3 mm of space is present between the impression tray and the oral tissue. Which of the following impression material types shows this characteristic?

A) polyethers
B) polysulfides
C) silicones
D) irreversible hydrocolloids
Prosth
D) irreversible hydrocolloids
Today was a very busy day for Ashley, the dental hygienist in our office. Ashley took alginate impressions on her first patient in the morning, who needed a nightguard. Since she was so busy, Ashley left the alginate impressions in the lab most of the morning. Ashley decided to place the impressions in a bowl of water so that they would not dry up before she had a chance to pour them up in dental stone. Which of the following was the result of AShley leaving these impressions immersed in water for a few hours?

A) gelation
B) hysteresis
C) syneresis
D) imbibition
Prosth
D) imbibition
If your patient indicates a tendency to gag while taking alginate impressions, all of the following maneuvers can help except:

A) lessening the time to take an impression
B) using cold water to mix the alginate
C) having the patient breathe through his/her nose
D) seating the patient in an upright position
E) seating the posterior portion of the tray first
Prosth
B) using cold water to mix the alginate
Characteristics of polysulfide rubber base impression materials include all of the following except:

A) moisture accelerates set
B) sets by S-S crosslinking
C) short setting time
D) strong odor
E) deform readily when removed from undercut areas
F) good tear resistance
Prosth
C) short setting time
The brown paste used in polysulfide rubber base is called the:

A) filler
B) base
C) polymer
D) accelerator
Prosth
D) accelerator
Custom trays are an important part of rubber base impression techniques, since elastomers are:

A) more accurate in uniform, thin layers 0.5 to 1.0 m thick
B) more accurate in uniform, thin layers 1.0 to 1.5 mm thick
C) more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick
D) more accurate in uniform, thin layers 5.0 to 6.0 mm thick
Prosth
C) more accurate in uniform, thin layers 2.0 to 4.0 mm thick
The shade of the ceramic crown should be matched by what order of color characteristics?

A) hue, chroma, value
B) chroma, hue, value
C) chroma, value, hue
D) value, hue, chroma
E) value, chroma, hue
Prosth
E) value, chroma, hue
SIntering of a ceramic:

A) involves heating the raw materials above the melting point
B) results in an increase in porosity
C) decreases its mechanical strength
D) increases its density
Prosth
D) increases its density
All of the following are morphological changes associated with the edentulous state except:

A) deepening of nasolabial groove
B) loss of labiodental angle
C) retrognathic appearance
D) decrease in horizontal labial angle
E) narrowing of lips
F) increase in columella-phitral angle
Prosth
C) retrognathic appearance
There are several disadvantages associated with the use of base metal dental casting alloys. Which of the following is an advantage that base metal alloys have over the noble metal alloys?

A) base metal is much heavier (denser) than noble metal alloys
B) base metal is easier to cast and finish
C) base metal has a stronger porcelain bond
D) base metal is stronger and has a lower density
Prosth
D) base metal is stronger and has a lower density
If a mold that is created for investing and casting does not __________ to compensate for the action of the metal alloy, the casting will not fit.

A) equate
B) contract
C) expand
D) none of the above
Prosth
C) expand
A seven-eights crown is a three-quarter crown whose vertical:

A) mesiobuccal margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the buccal surface
B) distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface
C) mesiolingual margin is positioned slightly distal to the middle of the lingual surface
D) distolingual margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the lingual surface
Prosth
B) distobuccal margin is positioned slightly mesial to the middle of the buccal surface
Regarding the occlusion of a complete denture:

(1) a decreased vetical dimension of occlusion refers to excessive interocclusal distance (increased freeway space)
(2) a decreased vertical dimension of occlusion refers to the loss of interocclusal distance in the rest position
(3) an excessive vertical dimension frequently results in cheek biting
(4) an excessive vertical dimension is the usual cause of clicking teeth
(5) phonetics helps in verifying the vertical dimension of occlusion
(6) esthetics helps in verifying the vertical dimension of occlusion

A) 1, 3, and 5 are true
B) 2, 4, and 6 are true
C) 1, 3, 5, and 6 are true
D) 2, 3, 5, and 6 are true
E) 1, 4, 5, and 6 are true
F) all of the above statements are true
Prosth
E) 1, 4, 5, and 6 are true
Polysulfide rubber base impression materials:

A) set in 5 to 6 minutes
B) have a very poor moisture tolerance
C) have a good odor and taste
D) have a shelf-life that is relatively long, up to 48 months
E) require custom trays for impression making
Prosth
E) require a custom tray for impression making
A wire-guage is selected on the basis of its active length. A short arm clasp (< 7 mm) should be made in what gauge of wire for optimum function below its proportional limit?

A) 20-gauge
B) 19-gauge
C) 18-gauge
D) 16-gauge
Prosth
A) 20-gauge
All-ceramic crowns are generally known for their low flexural strength. Which type of porcelain is considered better than other types for this property?

A) feldspathic
B) In-Ceram
C) IPS0Empress
D) In-Ceram Zirconia
E) Dicor
Prosth
D) In-Ceram Zirconia
Which statement regarding an autogenous free gingival graft is not true?

A) it can be placed to prevent further recession
B) it can be used to effectively widen the attached gingiva
C) it retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels
D) the greatest amount of shrinkage occurs within the first 6 weeks
E) it is useful for covering non-pathologic dehiscences and fenestrations
Perio
C) it retains its own blood supply and is not dependent on the bed of recipient blood vessels
All of the following statements regarding periodontal flaps are true except:

A) full thickness periodontal flaps involve reflecting all of the soft tissue, including the periosteum to expose the underlying bone
B) the partial thickness periodontal flap includes only the epithelium and a layer of the underlying connective tissue
C) both full thickness and partial thickness periodontal flaps can be displaced
D) flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than any other region
E) flaps should be uniformly thin and pliable
Perio
D) flaps from the palate are considered easier to be displaced than any other region
There are various distal flap approaches used for retromolar reduction. The simplest is the:

A) gingivectomy
B) apically positioned flap
C) distal wedge
D) laterally positioned flap
Perio
C) distal wedge
Which situation would be a contraindication for a gingivectomy?

A) a fibrotic area of free gingiva that covers part of the occlusal surface of tooth number 17
B) an infrabony pocket of 8mm on the distal aspect of tooth number 19
C) correction of severe gingival overgrowth
D) gingival pockets composed of enlarged fibrotic tissue
Perio
B) an infrabony pocket of 8mm on the distal aspect of tooth number 19
The primary objective and advantage of surgical flap procedures in the treatment of periodontal disease is:

A) reduce or eliminate periodontal pockets
B) to provide access to root surfaces for debridement
C) regrowth of alveolar bone
D) maintenance of biological width
E) establishment of adequate soft tissue contours
Perio
B) to provide access to root surfaces for debridement
A modified Widman flap is:

A) a partial-thickness flap
B) a full-thickness flap
Perio
B) a full-thickness flap
A soft tissue graft that is rotated or otherwise repositioned to correct an adjacent defect is called a:

A) free ginigval graft
B) pedical graft
C) connective tissue graft
D) frenectomy
Perio
B) pedicle graft
What is guided tissue regeneration?

A) a soft tissue graft used to correct mucogingival junction involvement
B) placement of nonresorbable barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect
C) a free ginigval graft used to increase the amount of attached gingiva
D) placement of an autograft to treat a bony defect
Perio
B) placement of nonresorbablt barriers or resorbable membranes and barriers over a bony defect
The primary reason for failure of a free ginigval graft is:

A) infection
B) edema
C) disruption of the vascular supply before engraftment
D) the formation of scar tissue
Perio
C) disruption of the vascular supply before engraftment
A variation of the laterally positioned flap is called:

A) a coronally positioned flap
B) a modified Widman flap
C) a double papilla flap
D) a free gingival flap
Perio
C) a double papilla flap
All corners of a periodontal flap should be:

A) sharp
B) rounded
C) it doesn't matter whether the corners of a periodontal flap are sharp or rounded
Perio
B) rounded
Which of the following is a full-thickness, mucoperiosteal flap that has a relatively high degree of predictability and is a "work-horse" of periodontal therapy?

A) coronally positioned flap
B) laterally positioned flap
C) double papilla flap
D) apically positioned flap
Perio
D) apically positioned flap
A free mucosal autograft differs from a free gingival graft in that the transplant in a free mucosal graft is:

A) connective tissue with an epithelial covering
B) connective tissue without an epithelial covering
C) epithelial tissue with its own bloody supply
D) epithelial tissue without its own blood supply
Perio
B) connective tissue without an epithelial covering
Which of the following mucogingival surgical techniques is indicated in areas where there is gingival recession that is narrow, adjacent to which a wide band of attached gingiva exists, which can be used as a donor site?

A) free gingival autograft
B) double papilla flap
C) modified Widman flap
D) laterally positioned flap
Perio
D) laterally positioned flap
Non-supporting bone is alveolar bone not directly related to tooth support. It includes all of the following except:

A) bony exostoses
B) edentulous ridges
C) tori
D) the alveolar bone proper
E) flattened interdental contours and ledges
Perio
D) the alveolar bone proper
Clinically, a bone grafting procedure is most likely to be successful in:

A) one-walled defects
B) two-walled defects
C) three-walled defects
D) through-and-through furcation defects
Perio
C) three-walled defects
Which of the following is the least important diagnostic aid in recognizing the early stage of gingivitis?

A) bleeding upon probing
B) gingival color
C) pocket depths
D) stippling of the gingival tissue
Perio
D) stippling of the gingival tissue
Generally speaking, bacteria associated with periodontal health are characterized as:

A) gram-negative, motile, aerobes
B) gram-negative, nonmotile, anaerobes
C) gram-positive, nonmotile, facultative anaerobes
D) gram-positive, motile, aerobes
Perio
C) gram-positive, nonmotile, facultative anaerobes
Endotoxins are the lipopolysaccharide component of the cell wall of:

A) gram-positive bacteria
B) gram-negative bacteria
C) both gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
D) neither gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
Perio
B) gram-negative bacteria
Which of the following clinical signs and symptoms is characteristic of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?

A) minimal bleeding
B) ulceration of papillae (punched out)
C) painless
D) periodontal pocket formation
Perio
B) ulceration of papillae (punched out)
In a healthy sulcus, which bacteria below are most abundant?

A) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans and Bacteroides forsythus
B) Streptococcus species and Actinomyces species
C) Treponema species and Capnocytophaga species
D) Prevotella intermedia and Porphyromonas gingivalis
Perio
B) Streptococcus species and Actinomyces species
Which two organisms are most commonly associated with the etiology of localized aggressive periodontitis?

A) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
B) Wolinella recta
C) Capnocytophaga ochraceus
D) Porphyromonas gingivalis
E) Actinomyces israeli
Perio
A) Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
C) Capnocytophaga ochraceus
A patient who presents with fiery red marginal and attached gingiva and demonstrates ulcerated and necrotic epithelium that sloughs (or peels off) with air blasts probably has:

A) periodontitis
B) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C) desquamative gingivitis
D) hyperplastic gingivitis
Perio
C) desquamative gingivitis
Which of the following statements regarding periodontitis is incorrect?

A) periodontitis does not always begin with gingivitis
B) gingivitis and periodontitis cannot be induced without bacteria
C) there are no radiographic features of gingivitis
D) the presence of pockets cannot be determined from radiographs
E) chronic gingivitis does not always lead to periodontitis
Perio
A) periodontitis does not always begin with gingivitis
The junctional epithelium in health is:

A) a collar-like band of stratified columnar epithelium 2-5 cells thick near the sulcus and 1-2 cells thick at the apical end
B) a collar-like band of stratified squamous epithelium 10-20 cells thick near the sulcus and 2-3 cells thick at the apical end
C) a collar-like band of simple coulmnar epithelium 5-10 cells thick near the sulcus and 20-25 cells thick at the apical end
D) a collar-like band of pseudostratified columnar epithelium 2-5 cells thick near the sulcus and 10-15 cells thick at the apical end
Perio
B) a collar-like band of stratified squamous epithelium 10-20 cells thick near the sulcus and 2-3 cells thick at the apical end
A cuplike resorptive area at the crest of the alveolar bone is a radiographic finding of:

A) gingivitis
B) occlusal trauma
C) early periodontitis
D) acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
Perio
C) early periodontitis
Which of the following is most significant in regard to the prognosis of a periodontally involved tooth?

A) pocket depth
B) attachment loss
C) anatomical crown length
D) bleeding upon probing
Perio
B) attachment loss
Gingivitis is most often caused by:

A) a hormonal imbalance
B) inadequate oral hygiene
C) occlusal trauma
D) a vitamin deficiency
E) aging
Perio
B) inadequate oral hygiene
Which of the following needs to be evident in order to make a diagnosis of periodontitis?

A) bleeding
B) pocket depths of 5mm or more
C) radiographic evidence of bone loss
D) a change in tissue color and tone
Perio
C) radiographic evidence of bone loss
Pseudopockets are most likely to be seen in a patient with:

A) acute gingivitis
B) advanced periodontitis
C) inflammatory gingival enlargement
D) desquamative gingivitis
Perio
C) inflammatory gingival enlargement
The most important plaque retentive factor is:

A) subgingival and/or overhanging margins of restorations
B) carious lesions that extend subgingivally
C) calculus
D) furcations exposed by loss of attachment and bone
E) crowded and mal-aligned teeth
F) root grooves and concavities
Perio
C) calculus
Gingival changes evident during pregnancy probably result from the effect of:

A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) histamine
D) a vitamin deficiency
Perio
B) progesterone
In the chronic stage of gingivitis:

A) mast cells predominate
B) plasma cells predominate
C) lymphocytes predominate
D) macrophages predominate
Perio
B) plasma cells predominate
People suffering from diabetes type 1 and 2:

A) have no chance of developing periodontitis
B) have just as much a chance of developing periodontal disease as the nondiabetic population
C) have 15 times the risk of developing periodontal disease as compared to the nondiabetic population
D) have only a slight risk of developing periodontal disease
Perio
C) have 15 times the risk of developing periodontal disease as compared to the nondiabetic population
The frequency of maintenance visits for a patient who has had previous periodontal treatment should be dependent upon which two factors?

A) on whether or not the patient feels the frequent visits will help maintain his/her periodontium
B) on the appearance and clinical condition of the gingival tissues
C) on the amount of attachment loss prior to the periodontal treatment
D) on the ability and performance in home care
Perio
B) on the appearance and clinical condition of the gingival tissues
D) on the ability and performance in home care
Which of the following cells participates in the early phase of inflammation, for example, the early lesion of gingivitis?

A) eosinophils
B) Kupffer's cells
C) mast cells
D) epithelioid cells
Perio
C) mast cells
The first leukocytes to arrive as a result of inflammation caused by plaque formation in the initial lesion of gingivitis are the:

A) eosinophils
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils (polymorphonuclear neutrophils)
D) basophils
E) monocytes
Perio
C) neutrophils (polymorphonuclear neutrophils)
The vascular phase of acute inflammation involves all of the following except:

A) platelets
B) tissue mast cells
C) eosinophils
D) basophils
Perio
C) eosinophils
Which local sign of acute inflammation is caused by the dilation of capillaries?

A) redness
B) heat
C) swelling
D) pain
Perio
A) redness
The characteristic cell components of chronic inflammation include all of the following except:

A) lymphocytes
B) plasma cells
C) polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D) macrophages
Perio
C) polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Extrinsic dental stains include:

A) green to brown stains caused by erythroblastosis fetalis
B) brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque
C) red to brown stain caused by congenital porphyria
D) gray or brownish stains caused by tetracycline
Perio
B) brown, black, green, or orange stains caused by chromogenic bacteria in plaque
All of the following are diagnostic of occlusal trauma except:

A) thickening of the lamina dura
B) periodontal pocket formation
C) widening of the periodontal ligament space
D) angular bone destruction
E) increase in tooth mobility
F) fremitus
G) wear facets
Perio
B) periodontal pocket formation
The purpose of using rosin in the periodontal dressing is to:

A) serve as an astringent
B) improve the taste
C) act as a filler for strength
D) provide an antibacterial property
Perio
C) act as a filler for strength
Which of the following will reduce the abrasive action of a polishing agent?

A) using an agent with nice large particles
B) using an agent containing particles that are dull and round
C) using a thick, viscous mixture of polishing paste
D) applying the polishing agent with firm pressure and increasing to a heavy constant pressure
E) polishing at a high speed with heavy pressure
Perio
B) using an agent containing particles that are dull and round
The collagen found in the gingiva:

A) is mostly of type I
B) is biochemically similar to the collagen found elsewhere
C) has a turnover rate which is as rapid as in the periodontal ligament
D) accounts for 90% of the gingival protein
Perio
A) is mostly of type I
The most important procedure in the treatment of a localized periodontal abscess is to:

A) prescribe an antibiotic
B) create drainage of the inflammation through the pocket or by an incision
C) have the patient rinse twice daily with warm saline
D) leave it alone and let it clear up by itself
Perio
B) create drainage of the inflammation through the pocket or by an incision
All of the following are clinical signs of bruxism except:

A) TMJ symptoms
B) muscle soreness
C) periodontal pocket formation
D) cracked teeth or fillings
E) wear facets on teeth
F) widened PDL spaces on radiographs
Perio
C) periodontal pocket formation
Which of the following are contraindications to selective grinding in the natural dentition?

A) when pulp chambers are large
B) in the presence of tooth sensitivity
C) when major occlusal discrepancies may require orthodontics or full mouth reconstruction
D) in patients who are poor candidates for full mouth reconstruction because of psychological factors
Perio
E) all of the above
Which of the following is not correctly matched with regards to a periodontal treatment plan?

A) preliminary phase --> plaque control
B) phase I --> mouth preparation
C) phase II --> periodontal surgery
D) phase III --> restorative phase
E) phase IV --> maintenance phase
Perio
A) preliminary phase --> plaque control
When assessing tooth mobility, a score of 1 indicates:

A) no detectable movement
B) barely distinguishable tooth movement
C) any movement up to 1mm
D) any movement more than 1mm or teeth that can be depressed or rotated in their sockets
Perio
B) barely distinguishable tooth movement
All of the following statements concerning B cells are true except:

A) they mature in the bone marrow and migrate to lymphoid organs
B) they are found in the germinal centers of the spleen and lymph nodes
C) they are progenitors of plasma cells
D) they are involved in humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immunity
Perio
D) they are involved in humoral (antibody-mediated) and cell-mediated immunity
Cellular cementum (contrasted with acellular cementum) is:

A) cementum that is resorbing
B) newly formed cementum
C) that part of the cementum that is adjacent to the enamel
D) cementum that contains cementocytes
Perio
D) cementum that contains cementocytes
Which of the following is not true of cementum?

A) it is produced by cells of the periodontal ligament
B) the main function is to compensate for tooth wear
C) the deposition of new cementum continues periodically throughout life whereby root fractures may be repaired
D) the cementum is indistinguishable on radiographs
E) it is lighter in color than dentin, contains 40 to 50% inorganic substance, and is permeable
Perio
B) the main function is to compensate for tooth wear
Which component of Super Floss is most effective in cleaning around appliances and between wide spaces?

A) stiffened end
B) spongy floss
C) regular floss
Perio
B) spongy floss
Water irrigation devices (oral irrigators) have been shown to:

A) eliminate plaque
B) dislodge food particles from between teeth
C) disinfect pockets for up to 12 hours
D) prevent calculus formation
Perio
B) dislodge food particles from between teeth
Chlorhexidine gluconate 0.12%, in an alcohol containing vehicle:

1. stains teeth, tongue, and resin restorations
2. impairs taste perception
3. causes teratogenic alterations
4. has a high systemic toxicity
5. has retention properties that are concentration and time dependent and is not influenced by the temperature or pH of the rinsing

A) 1 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1, 2, and 5
E) all of the above are true
F) none of the above are true
Perio
D) 1, 2, and 5
Which of the following oral hygiene aids is appropriate for cleaning a class II furcation?

A) stim-u-dent
B) interproximal brushes
C) interdental stimulator
D) perio aid
E) oral irrigator
Perio
D) perio aid
Which of the following controlled-release delivery systems for site-specific antimicrobial therapy is impregnated with 12.7mg of tetracycline HCl?

A) atridox
B) acitisite
C) perio chip
D) all of the above
Perio
B) acitisite
The periodontium is a collective term for the supporting structures of the teeth. All of the following are considered to be a part of the periodontium except:

A) gingiva
B) periodontal ligament
C) cementum
D) alveolar bone
E) pulp
Perio
E) pulp
Of the choices listed below, which one describes the boundaries that define the attached gingiva?

A) from the gingival margin to the interdental groove
B) from the free gingival grove to the gingival margin
C) from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
D) from the epithelial attachment to the cementoenamel junction
Perio
C) from the mucogingival junction to the free gingival groove
Gingival fibers are found within the:

A) attached gingiva
B) free gingiva
C) mucogingival junction
D) attached and free gingiva
Perio
B) free gingiva
Which group of gingival fibers arise from the alveolar crest and fan out coronally into the adjacent gingival connective tissue?

A) circular fibers
B) dentogingival fibers
C) dentoperiosteal fibers
D) alveologingival fibers
Perio
D) alveologingival fibers
Which group of principal fibers of the periodontal ligament help to prevent tipping and dislocation of the tooth?

A) transseptal
B) alveolar crest
C) horizontal
D) oblique
E) apical
F) interradicular
Perio
E) apical
Which structure is the inner layer of cells of the junctional epithelium and attaches the gingiva to the tooth?

A) mucogingival junction
B) free gingival groove
C) epithelial attachment
D) gingival col
Perio
C) epithelial attachment
Cervical line contours are closely related to the attachment of the gingiva at the neck of the tooth. The greatest contour of the of the cervical lines and gingival attachments occur on:

A) the distal surface of anterior teeth
B) the distal surface of posterior teeth
C) the mesial surface of anterior teeth
D) the mesial surface of posterior teeth
Perio
C) the mesial surface of anterior teeth
The narrowest band of attached gingiva is found:

A) on the lingual surfaces of maxillary incisors and the facial surfaces of maxillary first molars
B) on the facial surfaces of mandibular second premolars and the lingual surface of canines
C) on the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines
D) none of the above
Perio
C) on the facial surfaces of the mandibular canine and first premolar and the lingual surfaces adjacent to the mandibular incisors and canines
Which of the following types of oral mucosa is not keratinized under normal conditions?

A) buccal mucosa
B) vermillion border of the lips
C) hard palate
D) gingiva
Perio
A) buccal mucosa
The alveolar process is that part of the maxilla and mandible that houses the teeth. It consists of two main parts which are called:

A) alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bone
B) cortical plate and spongy bone
C) compact lamellar bone and a layer of bundle bone
Perio
A) alveolar bone proper and supporting alveolar bone
The periodontal ligament is made of large collagen fibers that course between the cementum and the alveolar bone. These fibers are embedded in the outer layer of cementum and are called:

A) purkinje's fibers
B) sharpey's fibers
C) spindle fibers
D) gray fibers
Perio
B) sharpey's fibers
The periodontal ligament consists predominantly of:

A) bundles of collagenous and elastic fibers
B) fibrous elements that are formed by the fibroblasts
C) regularly arranged bundles of collagenous fibers
D) large bundles of oxytalan fibers
Perio
C) regularly arranged bundles of collagenous fibers
The periodontal ligament in an adult is about:

A) 0.002mm wide
B) 0.2mm wide
C) 2.0mm wide
D) 20mm wide
Perio
B) 0.2mm wide
Surrounding the root of each tooth is a specialized epithelium known as a:

A) connective tissue attachment
B) periodontal ligament attachment
C) junctional epithelium
D) nasmyth's membrane
Perio
C) junctional epithelium
Which of the following cells are most abundant in the periodontal ligament?

A) fibroblasts
B) osteoblasts
C) cementoblasts
D) osteoclasts
Perio
A) fibroblasts
Parts of the free gingiva include all of the following except:

A) gingival margin
B) free gingival groove
C) mucogingival junction
D) gingival sulcus
E) interdental (interproximal) gingiva
Perio
C) mucogingival junction
Supragingival plaque:

A) is unattached or loosely adherent
B) is dominated by gram-negative organisms
C) acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet in the oral cavity
D) is dominated by anaerobes
Perio
C) acquires nutrition from saliva and host diet in the oral cavity
The key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and periodontal disease is:

A) calculus
B) plaque
C) toothbrush abrasion
D) saliva
Perio
B) plaque
All of the following statements concerning bacterial plaque are true except:

A) it is the key etiologic agent in the initiation of gingivitis and periodontal disease
B) it is an accumulation of a mixed bacterial community in a dextran matrix
C) it forms on a cleaned tooth within minutes
D) it is composed of bacteria and an intermicrobial matrix. Organic and inorganic solids constitute approximately 80% (bacteria make up at least 70 to 80% of the solid matter) and water accounts for 20%
E) there are two categories: supragingival and subgingival plaque
F) different bacteria may be found in plaque (cocci, rods, and filaments) and ther proportions change with time, diet, and location
Perio
D) it is composed of bacteria and an intermicrobial matrix. Organic and inorganic solids constitute approximately 80% (bacteria make up at least 70 to 80% of the solid matter), and water accounts for 20%
Early or young plaque consists primarily of:

A) filaments
B) cocci
C) rods
D) vibrios
Perio
B) cocci
Which of the following crystalline salts is most prevalent in calculus?

A) whitlockite
B) brushite
C) octocalcium phosphate
D) hydroxyapatite
Perio
D) hydroxyapatite
Periodontal osseous defects (infrabony or intrabony pockets) are generally classified by:

A) the number of bony walls that were destroyed by periodontal disease
B) the number of bony walls left surrounding the tooth
C) the number of bony walls that will remain after surgery
D) periodontal probe readings
Perio
B) the number of bony walls left surrounding the tooth
When evaluating an osseous defect, the only way to determine the number of walls left surrounding the tooth is by:

A) periodontal probing
B) radiographs
C) exploratory surgery
d) testing for mobility
Perio
C) exploratory surgery
In a suprabony pocket, the epithelial attachment is located:

A) within basal bone
B) coronal to alveolar bone crest
C) apical to alveolar crest bone
D) none of the above
Perio
B) coronal to alveolar bone crest
In infrabony pockets:

A) the bone loss is angular or vertical in nature
B) the bone loss is horizontal in nature
C) transseptal fibers are horizontal
D) supracrestal fibers follow the normal bone contour
Perio
A) the bone loss is angular or vertical in nature
A furcation invasion in which bone loss allows the probe to extend more than 1mm horizontally but not completely through the furcation is classified as:

A) grade I
B) grade II
C) grade III
D) chronic
Perio
B) grade II
All of the following drugs can be associated with gingival hyperplasia except:

A) phenytoin (dilantin)
B) cyclosporine A (sandimmune)
C) paroxetine GCl (paxil)
D) nifedipine (procardia)
E) diltiazem (cardizem)
Perio
C) paroxetine HCl (paxil)
When using the periodontal probe to measure pocket depth, the measurement is taken from the:

A) base of the pocket to the CEJ
B) free gingival margin to the CEJ
C) junctional epithelium to the margin of the free gingiva
D) base of the pocket to the mucogingival junction
Perio
C) junctional epithelium to the margin of the free gingiva
How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

A) it should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
B) it should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
C) it should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
D) it should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact area
Perio
C) it should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and beyond the contact area
How should the periodontal probe be inserted into the sulcus?

A) perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth
B) with a firm pushing motion
C) with a short oblique stroke
D) parallel to the tooth surface
Perio
D) parallel to the tooth surface
If you should meet resistance after inserting the periodontal probe into the sulcus, you should:

A) remove the probe and reinsert it in a different spot
B) lift the probe away from the tooth and attempt to move it apically
C) force the probe beyond the obstruction
D) remove the probe and select one with a narrower diameter
E) record the measurement where the probe stopped
Perio
B) lift the probe away from the tooth and attempt to move it apically
Which of the following is the most common error when performing periodontal probing?

A) using the wrong type of probe
B) incorrectly reading the periodontal probe
C) excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth
D) forgetting to also probe the lingual of every tooth
Perio
C) excessively angling the probe when inserting it interproximally beyond the long axis of the tooth
When extensive scaling and root planing must be performed, the best approach would be:

A) a series of appointments set up to scale and root plane a segment or quadrant of teeth at a time (thoroughly and completely)
B) gross debridement (sub and supragingival) of the entire mouth, followed by a series of appointments for fine scaling and polishing
C) perform everything in a single appointment
D) none of the above
Perio
A) a series of appointments set up to scale and root plane a segment or quadrant of teeth at a time (thoroughly and completely)
Which of the following presents the most difficulty in performing a thorough scaling and root planing on?

A) mesial surfaces of maxillary premolars
B) proximal surfaces of mandibular incisors
C) trifurcations of maxillary molars
D) distal surfaces of mandibular molars
Perio
C) trifurcations of maxillary molars
Incidental gingival curettage is performed during:

A) polishing
B) scaling and root planing
C) ultrasonic scaling
D) all of the above
Perio
B) scaling and root planing
The main objective of root planing is:

A) to remove chronically inflamed tissues
B) to change the bacterial microflora
C) to provide optimally smooth root surfaces
D) to eliminate pockets
Perio
C) to provide optimally smooth root surfaces
Maximum shrinkage after gingival curettage can be expected from tissue that is:

A) fibrotic
B) edematous
C) fibroedematous
D) formed within an infrabony pocket
Perio
B) edematous
The ultrasonic tip should not be allowed to remain on the tooth surface for too long because it will:

A) burnish the calculus onto the tooth surface
B) stop the vibrations of the tip
C) clog the water that sirculate through the handpiece
D) damage the tooth surface
Perio
D) damage the tooth surface
Which of the following instruments is considered least traumatic and most effective for performing nonsurgical root planing procedures?

A) an unltrasonic instrument
B) a hoe
C) a periodontal curet
D) periodontal files
Perio
C) a periodontal curet
Indications or objective of gingival or subgingival curettage include all of the following except:

A) to eliminate the cause of periodontal inflammation
B) as maintenance treatment for areas of recurrent inflammation and where pocket reduction surgery has previously been performed
C) to reduce inflammation prior to pocket elimination
D) to remove chronically inflamed periodontal tissues
Perio
A) to eliminate the cause of periodontal inflammation
All of the following statements regarding sonic and ultrasonic instruments are true except:

A) sonic instruments do not release heat the way ultrasonic instruments do
B) magnetostrictive units of ultrasonic scalers have a linear pattern of vibration of the tip
C) ultrasonic instruments may be used for scaling, curetting, as well as removing stains
D) ultrasonic scalers can remove calculus from both supragingival as well as subgingival sites
E) ultrasonic scaling is based on the principle of high-frequency sound waves
Perio
B) magnetostrictive units of ultrasonic scalers have a linear pattern of vibration of the tip
If a patient experiences sensitivity while being scaled with an unltrasonic scaling device, all of the following actions will be appropriate to counter this problem except two. Which two are inappropriate?

A) proceeding to another tooth and then returning to the sensitive tooth later in the appointment
B) moving the instrument slower
C) making necessary adjustments to the water spray
D) turning up the power of the device
E) using less pressure
Perio
B) moving the instrument slower
D) turning up the power of the device
Air is used to deflect the free gingival margin in order to detect:

A) supragingival calculus
B) the CEJ
C) smooth root surfaces
D) subgingival calculus
E) inflammation
Perio
C) subgingival calculus
The primary function of the periodontal file is to:

A) root plane
B) remove heavy subgingival calculus
C) crush or fracture heavy tenacious calculus
D) completely remove heavy subgingival calculus
Perio
C) crush or fracture heavy tenacious calculus
Regarding instrument sharpening:

1. a wire edge is produced when the direction of the sharpening stroke is away from, rather than into or toward, the cutting edge
2. oil should be used for synthetic stones and water for natural stones
3. sharpen instruments at the first sign of dullness
4. the angle between the face of the blade and the stone is kept at 100º to 110º
5. the technique to sharpen Gracey curets is essentially the same for universal curets

A) 1 only
B) 1, 2, and 3 only
C) 2 and 5 only
D) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
Perio
D) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
When sharpening, a wire edge is produced:

A) only when using a coarse artificial stone
B) when using a mounted ruby stone only
C) when no oil is used for lubrication of the stone
D) when the last stroke of the stone is drawn away from the cutting edge
Perio
D) when the last stroke of the stone is drawn away from the cutting edge
A curet designed to scale and root plane anteior teeth with deep pockets will have a:

A) short, straight shank
B) long, straight shank
C) short, angled shank
D) long, angled shank
Perio
B) long, straight shank
The push stroke:

A) is directed in the same plane as the long axis of the tooth
B) is likely to injure the junctional epithelium
C) is good for posterior teeth where vertical strokes are difficult
D) is directed circumferentially around the tooth
Perio
B) is likely to injure the junctional epithelium
Toothbrush trauma (abrasion) usually occurs on:

A) centrals and laterals
B) canines and premolars
C) second and third molars
D) first and second molars
Perio
B) canines and premolars
The most accepted theory as to the cause of root sensitivity is the:

A) Bayer's theory
B) chemoisomotic theory
C) hydrodynamic theory
D) quantum theory
Perio
C) hydrodynamic theory
The most important factor in the control of hypersensitive roots among patients with periodontal disease after gingival recession has exposed the cervical portions of teeth is:

A) prescription of home fluoride rinses
B) minimal removal of tooth structure during root planing
C) the application of desensitizing agents that contain fluoride
D) thorough daily plaque control
Perio
D) thorough daily plaque control
The bacteria that form plaque and calculus release toxins that stimulate the immune system to over produce powerful infection-fighting factors called:

A) free radicals
B) cytokines
C) amides
D) lymphokines
Perio
B) cytokines
Which of the following is the single major preventable risk factor for periodontal disease?

A) smoking
B) diabetes
C) genetics
D) pathogenic bacteria
Perio
A) smoking
In a commercial toothpaste, sodium benzoate functions as a (an):

A) humectant
B) preservative
C) surfactant
D) binder or thickener
E) abrasive
Perio
B) preservative
The source of minerals for subgingival calculus os:

A) food
B) crevicular fluid
C) blood
D) saliva
Perio
B) crevicular fluid
Prevotella intermedia was formerly known as:

A) Bacteroides melaninogenicus
B) Wolinella intermedius
C) Bacteroides gingivalis
D) Bacteroides intermedius
Perio
D) Bacteroides intermedius