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165 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are quaternary ammonium compounds that are used for skin antisepsis classified as?
Cationic detergents
Surface active agents composed of a long-chain, lipid-soluble, hydrophobic portion and a polar hydrophilic group, which can be cation, anion, or nonionic.
Detergents
What do the surfactants of detergents interact with?
Lipids in cell membrane via hydrophobic chain to disrupt the membrane
What are the quaternary ammonium compounds used for?
What type of bacteria is most susceptible?
Disinfectants / Antiseptics
gram+
What are the negatives against using cationic detergents?
Not sporicidal
Not tuberculocidal
Not Virocidal
Inactivated by anionic detergents
What is a good example of an anionic surface-acting substance?
Soaps
Substances that alter the nature of interfaces to lower surface tension and increase cleaning.
Anionic detergents
What is the primary value of an anionic detergent?
Remove microorganisms mechanically from skin
_____ _____ do not possess any antimicrobial properties
Nonionic chemicals
_____ destroys all the microorganisms in a certain environment except for _____.
Disinfection / Spores
The complete elimination of all organisms including spores.
Sterilization
What is a powerful oxidizing agent that inactivates bacteria and most viruses by oxidizing free sulfhydryl groups?
Chlorine
(active component of hypochlorite or bleach)
Antimicrobial agents that kill (germicide) or prevent the growth (microbiostatic) of pathogenic microorganisms. Not considered safe for tissue. Used only on surfaces
Disinfectants
What disinfectant was originally used in hospitals but is now discontinued due to it being caustic?
Phenol
What disinfectant denatures protein and nucleic acids?
Formaldehyde
_____ and _____ _____ are critical factors that determine the effectiveness of an antimicrobial agent against a particular microorganism.
Concentration, Contact time
What parts of a microbial cell can be affected by an antimicrobial agent?
Cell membrane
cytoplasmic contents (esp. enzymes)
nuclear material
How long does it take to kill bacterial spores when a dental instrument is placed in a 2% solution of glutaraldehyde?
10 hours
An alkalizing agent highly lethal to essentially all microorganisms if sufficient contact time is provided with an absence of extraneous organic material?
2% Glutaraldehyde
What are the advantages of glutaraldehyde?
Most potent chemical germicide
Kills spores after 10 hours
EPA - Immersion sterilant
used on heat sensitive materials
What are the disadvantages of glutaraldehydes?
Long time sterilization
Allergenic
Not environmental disinfectant
Toxic to tissues
What is glutaraldehyde used to disinfect in hospitals?
respiratory therapy equipment
What is the proper time and temp. for autoclaving?
250 F (121 C) for 15-20 min.
What is the amount of pressure behind autoclaving?
15 lbs. of pressure of steam per square inch
How does the moist heat of autoclaving destroy bacterias?
Denatures high protein containing bacteria
What speeds up the heating process while autoclaving?
heat under pressure
If it only takes ten minutes to destroy the required bacteria in autoclaving why is the time 15-20 min?
Allows for penetration when the instruments are wrapped in towels
How is the effectiveness of autoclaving best determined?
How often is this recommended?
Culturing bacterial spores
Recommended weekly
What is the most important step in instrument sterilization?
Precleaning
Debris is a barrier to sterilant
What is the safest and most effective method of precleaning?
Ultrasonic instrument cleaning
What is the proper time and temp for dry heat sterilization?
320 F (160 C) for 2 hours
How does dry heat destroy microorganisms?
Causing coagulation of proteins
Why should you immediately remove items from the Autoclaving?
Diminish the possibility of corrosion of the instruments
What are the advantages of dry heat?
Effective and safe sterilazation for metal
Does not dull / corrode instruments
What are the disadvantages of dry heat?
Long cycle
poor penetration
ruin heat sensitive materials
What interferes with the sterilization process?
Water
Instruments must be dry before process
Why do spores have to be subjected to heat at high pressure?
They are resistant to boiling (100 C at sea level)
What is the most heat resistant spores?
Clostridium botulinum (Botulism)
What is the flash cycle of steam autoclaves?
134 F (270 C) at 30 psi for minimum 3 min.
What is the minimum required temperature to destroy all organisms?
121 F (250 C)
The _____ _____ will vary directly with the type of load placed into the chamber.
Autoclaving time
What is the flash cycle of the autoclave most useful for?
Unwrapped instruments
How long does sterilization of ethylene oxide take place?
20-50 min. depending on material sterilized
What phase is ethylene oxide used in as a sterilizer?
Why is its use limited?
Gas
Very toxic and flammable
What are the advantages of ethylene oxide sterilization?
Highly penetrative
No damage to heat labile material
Evaporates w/out leaving residue
Used for materials that can't be exposed to water
How does ethylene oxide function as a disinfectant?
Alkylating agent
Irreversibly inactivates cellular nucleic acids (DNA) and proteins
Process of killing all microorganisms including spores
Sterilization
The killing of many, but not all, microorganisms
Disinfection
Reserved for chemicals that are used on inanimate surfaces, and are not considered safe for living tissues.
Sterilization
Chemical agents similar to disinfectants, but may be applied safely to living tissues.
Antiseptics
What is the Doctrine of sterilization?
Do not disinfect what you sterilze
What is not destroyed when instruments are immersed in cold disinfectants?
Spores or the hepatitis viruses
What are generally sterilized by filtration?
liquids
What is the most commonly used filter?
What does it retain?
Nitrocellulose w/ pore size of .22 um
Retains bacteria and spores
What is the most widely used antiseptic that is used to reduce the number of microorganisms on the skin surface in the area of a wound?
Alcohol
What does alcohol do to make it an effective antiseptic?
Denatures proteins
extracts membrane lipids
acts as dehydrating agent
Inactivates lipophilic viruses
What are the drawbacks of alcohol as an antiseptic?
Evaporates quickly
Diminished activity against viruses in dried blood, saliva, other surface secretions
What makes dried blood, saliva and surface secretions so effective at rendering alcohol ineffective?
Presence of tissue proteins and glycoproteins
What is the major alcohol used in hospitals?
Isopropyl alcohol (90-95%)
What is the alcohol that is widely used to clean the skin prior to immunization or venipuncture?
Ethanol (70%)
What is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice and acts as an oxidizing agent and combines irreversibly with proteins?
Iodine
What is the greatest occupational health care worker risk for bloodborne infection?
Hep B
What percentage of infection in health care professionals were attributed to Hep B before the universal precautions were changed to standard precautions by the CDC in 1987?
10-30%
What are the concentrations of HBV in the blood of a chronic carrier?
1,000,000 to 100,000,000 virions per ml
What has greater viral loads?
HBV, HIV, AIDS?
HBV > HIV > AIDS
Where does the viral concentration of Hep C range?
Between HBV and HIV
What can standard precautions for HBV also do with less infectious organisms?
Prevents cross-infection of other lesser microorganisms
Has contact with saliva, tears, or sweat ever been shown to result in transmission of HIV?
No
What are antimicrobial agents that destroy microorganisms when applied onto inanimate surfaces, such as counter tops or lights?
Disinfectants
Defined as the use of physical or chemical procedure to destroy all microbial life, including bacterial endospores
Sterilization
Less than lethal sterilization, involves chemical process of microbial inactivation which destroys virtually all pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate surfaces, but not necessarily all microbial forms
Disinfection
Involves chemical agents applied onto living tissues to both remove accumulated transient microorganisms, and temporarily lower the concentration of normal, resident flora
Antiseptics
What is used as a hand washing agent?
Chlorohexidine gluconate
Triclosan
What does Chlorohexidine gluconate and Triclosan offer as a hand washing agent?
Broad antimicrobial activity
Substantivity; residual washing action for extended periods
What is not used for hand washing but still is called waterless hand hygiene?
Isopropyl alcohol 60-80% alcohol
An antibacterial solution which directly kills bacteria is said to be...
Bactericidal
The use of bactericidal chemicals is preferable to what?
Static chemicals
Why are static chemicals not ideal?
Don't directly kill or inactivate
Inhibit metabolism and replication
When do bactericidal agents work best?
During the log phase of bacterial growth
What is the marker microorganism for intermediate surface disinfection?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Why is tuberculosis used as the intermediate marker for disinfection?
The morphology and structure of it makes it relatively resistant to penetration by low-level disinfectants
What are some examples of intermediate level agents?
Phenols, iodophors, hypochlorite
What makes an agent an intermediate level one?
Able to penetrate the wax and lipid outer layers surrounding mycobacteria
What are the antigens which are most responsible for an immediate type 1 reaction to latex?
proteins
What tree does natural rubber latex come from?
What antibody is involved in the reaction?
Hevea brasiliensis
IgE mediated
Why is the cleaning of surfaces prior to disinfection in clinical settings required?
reduce the concentration of pathogens
The physical removal of debris
Cleaning
What are the two results from efficient cleaning?
Reduction in # of microorganisms
Removal of:
Blood
tissue bioburden
debris which interferes with infection
What is the most efficient way to kill microbes?
heat sterilization
What happens to cause microbial cell death in an autoclave, unsaturated chemical vapor, or dry heat unit?
Heat inactivation of critical enzymes and other proteins
What must be sterilized using heat?
Anything that comes into contact with a patient's blood, saliva, or mucous membranes
What is the most common form of an adverse epithelial reaction noted for health-care professionals?
Irritation dermatitis
What is the percentage of health care workers who suffer from chronic or occasional dermatitis on their hands?
20-30%
Non-specific immune reaction often caused by contact with a substance that physically or chemically damages the skin.
irritation dermatitis
What can aggravate the condition of irritation dermatitis?
Frequent handwashing
residual glove powder
harshness of repeated washing
What are some examples of antiseptic agents?
Chlorohexidine gluconate
parachlorametaxylenol
iodophors
triclosan
What is the acceptible alternative to latex?
vinyl or nitrile gloves
What products are not considered an alternative to latex? Why?
Products with the designation hypoallergenic
contains latex with a chemical coating
The treatment of dairy foods, such as milk, for short intervals with heat, to kill certain disease-causing microorganisms; the target is the destruction of mycobacterium tuberculosis
Pasteurization
Treatment of water supplies to reduce microbial levels to safe public health levels
Sanitization
What is the most infectious target of standard precautions?
Hep B
How is the Hep C virus primarily transmitted?
Through infected blood transfer
Who is most at risk of receiving Hep C?
Parenternal Drug abusers
Persons receiving transfusions
organ recipient
hemophiliacs getting factor VIII and IX
Persons receiving tatoos
Persons receiving piercings
How is a dentist most likely to be infected by a patient that has Hep C?
Needle stick
Hep C is a significant risk factor for the development of what?
Hepatocellular carcinoma
An infection caused by normally non-pathogenic microorganisms in a host whose resistance has been decreased or compromised is known as what?
Opportunistic infection
Infections that originate in a hospital or hospital like setting. Primarily caused by opportunists.
Nosocomial infection
What are the particular microorganisms that are responsible for the opportunistic response of nosocomial infections?
Enterococcus spp.
Escherichia coli.
Pseudomonas spp.
Staphylococcus aureus
Infection which occurs during or after a primary infection. May result from the treatment itself of from alterations in the immune system.
Secondary infection
it is recommended that face masks should be changed...
At least with every patient
More often with heavy spatter
What measures the percent efficiency at which the face mask filters bacteria passing through the mask?
BFE (Bacterial Filtration Efficiency)
What measures the percent efficiency at which the face mask filters particulate matter passing through the mask?
PFE (Particulate Filtration Efficiency)
Defined as the ability of a face masks material construction to minimize fluids from traveling through the material and potentially coming into contact with the user of the face mask.
Fluid resistance
Why is fluid resistance important?
reduces exposure to blood and fluids from spatter
What does a type IV latex allergy entail?
Sensitivity to certain chemicals used in the latex manufacturing process
The genetic tendency to develop the classic allergic diseases (3/4 atopic dermatitis, allergic rhinitis, asthma)
Atopy
What antibody does atopy have a capacity to produce in response to common environmental proteins such as house dustmites, grass pollen, and food allergies?
IgE
What are the subsets of T-Helper lymphocytes that are involved in cell-mediated immune responses?
TH1 and TH2
What does TH1 cells secrete?
What does this do?
IL-1, Gamma interferon
Enhances: cell-mediated immune response
Inhibits: TH2 and humoral immune response
What are the functions of TH1
Inflammatory

B Cells in IgG2 production
Activates macrophages and CTL
Stimulates Delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV)
What does TH1 produce?
IL2, IFNgamma, TNFbeta
What does the TH2 secretions cause?
Inhibit cell-mediated immune response
enhance the humoral response
What do TH2 cells produce?
IL4, IL5, IL6, IL10, IL13
What help does TH2 cells provide?
IL's support B cells - Induces switch to IgE and IgG1
Supports eosinophils and mast cells
What are the advantages of rapid heat transfer sterilization over dry heat units?
Fast cycle time
No dulling of cutting instruments
Dry instruments after cycle
How does a dry heat convection oven differ from other dry heat units?
Use higher temp.
There is controlled internal air flow within the chamber
How fast can a dry heat convection oven sterilize?
12 min at 375 F (190 C) - Wrapped
6 min. - unwrapped
Personal protective equipment clinic jackets should be...
Long sleeve, high neck
In healthcare what is the primary disease prevention measure?
Handwashing
How long should routine handwashing take place?
lather for ten seconds followed by a thorough rinse
30 sec
What is the aim of handwashing?
Removal of microorganisms form the hands preventing their potential transfer
Where can microbes reside that are not easily dislodged in the skin?
Sweat ducts and hair follicles
How many medical professionals carry potentially pathogenic antibiotic-resistant pathogens on his or her hands?
1 in 5
What is the rate at which hand washing is done amongst medical professionals?
30% of the ideal rate
What is the main guarantee of sterilization?
Calibrated biological indicators (BI)
What has to happen before an instrument can be disinfected or sterilized?
Thoroughly cleaned to remove all organic matter and residue.
Why does Why must organic matter be removed before sterilization?
It shields organisms from destruction
May inactivate some disinfectants
What is defined as entering vascular system or sterile body tissues?
Critical object
What are examples of critical objects?
Scalpels and other surgical instruments
What type of decontamination is required for critical objects?
Sterilization and holding in a sterilized state
What is defined as coming in contact with intact mucous membranes?
Semi-critical objects
What are examples of semi-critical objects?
Thermometer, Vaginal speculum, sigmoid scope
What kind of decontamination is required for semi-critical objects?
High level heat or chemicals
What is defined as something that comes into contact with intact skin?
Non-critical object
What are examples of non-critical objects?
Examining table top, blood pressure cuff, baby weight scale
What is the decontamination process required for non-critical objects.
Intermediate or low level disinfection
What do hand hygiene agents that contain high concentrations of alcohol do instead of removing proteinaceous bioburden?
They denature and dehydrate proteins
What is considered infectious and meets the OSHA Bloodborne pathogen standard criteria for regulated waste that requires special handling and disposal
Blood Saturated gauze used in oral surgical procedure
Can be initiated by any activity related to the provision of health care, including medical or dental treatments and diagnostic procedures, regardless of whether they are performed properly and regardless of host immunity.
Iatrogenic Infections
What can Iatrogenic infections also be called if a patient could not normally develop them without first having a compromised host immunity?
Opportunistic Infection
Persons vaccinated against Hep B virus who have developed immunity are also immune to...
Hep D
What kind of virus is the Hep D virus (HDV)?
RNA virus
Incapable of completing its own replication within infected host cells
Why is HDV sometimes referred to as the parasite of HBV?
Uses excess Hep B surface antigen (HBsAg) from existing Hep B virus as the major capsid protein
What happens when a person is immune to Hep B?
HBV replication does not occur and HBsAg is undetectable.
What is still considered to be the gold standard for destruction of microbial pathogens?
Heat sterilization
According to the occupational safety and health administration (OSHA) Bloodborne pathogens standard, disposable gloves that have been contaminated shall be replaced...
As soon as practical
A set of combined precautions that include the major components of universal precautions or to reduce the risk of bloodborne pathogens and body substance isolation or reducing the risk of transmission of pathogens from moist body surfaces.
Standard precautions
What bodily fluids do Standard precautions apply to?
All bodily fluids except perspiration, and intact skin and mucous membranes
A set of infection control practices and procedures based on the concept that all blood and other body fluids that might be contaminated with blood should be treated as infectious
Universal precautions
What is considered to be items that have contact with blood or other body secretions?
Contaminated waste
Whate are exampes of contaminated waste?
Gloves, masks, disposable guns
Bibs
Used gauze w/ saliva and blood
Used barriers and covers
True false:
Contaminated waste must be placed ina biohazard trash after use?
False generally not regulated and can be discarded w/ office trash
What is a subset of medical waste capable of causing an infectious disease?
Infectious waste
What are some examples of infectious waste?
Blood and Blood-saturated materials
Pathological waste: tissue;extracted teeth (no amalgam)
sharps used in patient care
What is infectious waste that requires special handling, neutralization and disposal?
Regulated waste