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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is ORM?
ORM is a dexision making tool- used by people at all levels to increase operational effectiveness by anticipatings hazards and reducing the potenital for loss, thereby increasing the probability of a successful mission.
What are the five steps in applying ORM?
1. Identify Hazards 2. Assesss the Hazards 3. Make Risk Desicions 4. Implement Controls 5. Supervise
What year did the US Army adopt Risk Management to reduce training and combat losses?
1991
What are three types of ORM Controls?
Engineering Controls, Administrative Controls, and Personal Protective Equiptment
Which ORM Control is the least effective control and why?
PPE is the least effective type of control because it does not reduce the probability of a mishap occurring, it only reduces the severity when a mishap does occur.
How often do Safety Councils convene to develop recommendations for policy and analyze progress of the overall safety program?
Quarterly
Who does the Safety Council members consist of?
Chairperson(CO or XO), Unit Safety Officer(recorder), and seafety reps from each department
Who is ultimately responsible for safety within the command?
Commanding Officer.
Who is responsible for advising the CO on matters pertaining to the safety, manages the command safety program, investigates mishaps, monitors projects, shops, and special evolutions for compliance with safety hazards?
Safety Officer.
When should personnel use hearing protection?
When noises exceed 84 DBA.
When should personnel use double hearing protection?
When there is a sustained noises greater than 104 DBA.
What is used to provide data regarding information of a particular substance and provides procedures for handling of working with the substance in a safe manner and includes physical data, storage, disposal, protective equiptment, and spill handling procedures?
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Who is authorized to perform lockout/tagout procedures?
Only qualified designated personnel in writing are authorized.
What type of extinguisher do you use for a Class B fire?
Dry chemical, CO2 foam
What is EDVR?
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
What is a Naval Message and what are three categories?
A formal and secure form of correspondence that has the ability to be tracked once sent.

1) routine 2) priority 3) flash
What is a Page 2?
NAVPERS 1070/602 Dependency Applicatoin/Record of Emergency Data
What is a Page 4?
NAVPERS 1070/604, used to report educational experience, qualifications, awards, rating designator, and more.
What is a Page 13?
NAVPERS 1070/613 Administrative Remarks, seves as a chronological record of significant miscellaneous entries which are not provided for elsewhere in the service record.
What is an OPREP used for?
The OPREP is used by Navy Forces to report significant events and incidents to senior leadership.
Under LOAC what is a Combatant?
All persons in uniform, carrying a weapon or participating in any way in military operations or activites.
Under the LOAC what is a Non-Combatant?
Civilians, medical personnel, and chaplains.
Who initated America's first sea based offensive against the British?
General George Washington
The idea of naval construction battalions was conceived by?
Bureau of Yards and Docks
Seabee's celebrate March 5th, 1942 as?
The day permission was granted to use the name Seebea.
In May 1942, a battle was fought entirely with aircraft launched from carries; the two fleets never saw each other. Name this battle.
Batlle of the Coral Sea
Mobile Explosive Investigation Units (MEIU) were insturmental in the clearance of exploseive hazards both on land and at sea. What were they later renamed?
Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD) Units
RIverine Assault Operations employ Marine Corps and Navy forces to collect intelligence information. True or False?
False.
Who is appointed by the President as head of the Department of the Navy?
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
Navy representative on the Joint Chiefs of Staff is?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
N-4 Department head is responsible for scheduling visitor interviews with the XO and other officers as appropriate? True or False?
False.
N-1 Department head is responsible for administration of a unit's supplies and equipage funds so that all essential material requirements are met. True or False?
False
Navy Expeditionary Combat Command (NECC) responsibility is?
Provide overisight and command and control of anit-terrorism force protection (ATFP) and expeditionary-type forces within the Navy.
Which command listed below is not a core NCW Force?
a) Naval Costal Warfare Group (NCWGRU)
b) Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Units (MIUWU)
c) Inshore Boat Units (IBU)
d) Mobile Communications Detachments (MCD)
e) United States Coast Guard (USCG) Port Security Units (PSU)
d) Mobile Communications Detachments
Deployable, armed small craft units that support security operations in littoral regions worldwide manned with USCG and USCGR SELRES are?
Port Security Units (PSU)
Teams, which provide protections to MSC ships such as maratime prepositioning ships, fast combat support ships and bulk fuel carriers, and their civilian crews are known as..
Embarked Security Teams (EST)
What are three Air Mobility Command (AMC) Organic aircraft we commonly use?
C-130 Hercules, C-5 Galaxy and C-17 Globemaster 3
What is the primary mission of a C-130?
Intra-theater tactical airlift.
What is the primary mission of a C-5?
Intra-theater strategic airlift of outsized cargo.
What is the primary mission of a C-17?
Intra-theater airlift of outsized items of cargo to smal austere airfields at or near the battle area, by aerial delievery or air-land method.
What organic aircraft replaced the C-141?
C-17 Globemaster 3
What is the typical use of a C-130
Moving cargo from main theater staging bases to the front lines.
What does MPF stand for?
Maratime Prepositioning Forces.
Hazardous cargo needs to have a Shipper's Declaration fo Dangerous Goods Form completed. True or False?
True.
Military Sealift Command (MSC) are tasked with providing strategic, common-user sealift transportation services to U.S. Forces to deploy, employ, sustain, and redeploy those forces on a global basis. True or False?
True.
What does APF stand for?
Afloat Pre-positioning Force.
Currently, how many ships does APF have?
Over 30 ships.
APF is seperated into what two mission categories?
Maritime Pre-positioning ships and Afloat Pre-positioning Ships.
Are prowords to be subsituted for text?
No.
Name a method of communication that can be used in areas where oral communication is not reliable
Arm and hand signals, Whistle signals, and Special signals.
What is the nature and purpose of command and control?
To enable the Naval Commander to understand the situation in his/her battle space.
Who drives the command and control process?
The Commander.
Who has final responsibility and accountability for success of the mission?
The Commander.
What are three forms of intelligence?
Strategic, Operational, and Tactical
What is the cornerstone of naval intelligence?
To support the operating forces (at sea, from sea and ashore)
Name two key attributes of naval intelligence?
Timelines, objectivity, usability, availabilty, thoroughness, accuracy and relevance.
What does the acronym COMSEC stand for?
Communications Security
What is COMSEC?
The Navy's system for providing safeguards on telecommunications via encryption.
What is meant by the term TPI?
Two-person integrity is the security measure taken to prevent single-person access to COMSEC keying material and cryptographic maintenance manuals.
What are the three types of security clearances?
1) Confidential 2) Secret 3) Top Secret
Name the frequencies of HF, VHF, and UHF.
HF: 3 MHZ - 30MHZ
VHF: 30MHZ - 300MHZ
UHF: 300MHZ - 3GHZ
Name two factors that effect the range of radio equiptment?
Weather, terrain, antenna, power, location of the radio
What is meant by the term minimize when pertaining to radio chatter?
To drastically reduce normal message and telephone traffice so that vital messages connected with the situation at hand will not be delayed.
What is meant by the term beadwindow?
It is to alert the operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit.
What are the 5 basic phases to an Expeditionary Camp Layout?
1) Planning
2) Site Survey/Security
3) Camp Establishment
4) Camp Maintenence
5) Camp Teardown
Planning phase has what four types of camps?
1) Base
2) Expeditionary
3) Unit
4) Logistics Hub
Site survey preparations are future site by aerial photograph, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol. True or False?
True.
List about three facilities or structures in Phase 3 Camp Establishment.
Billeting, food service, showers/heads, field armory, BAS, laundry, Administractive services, MWR, ministry
What are the basic duties of First Aid Station?
Emergency Response Team, Minor Surgeries, Patient Monitoring, Medical Evacuation, Pharmacy and Administration.
Personnel should be trained in Basic First Aid and Adult CPR. True or False?
True.
Phase 4 maintenence is normally run by who?
Seebeas and Contractors (KBR and Blue Diamond)
Who maintains the tactical equiptment in camp?
Seabee mechanics and L-3 Mechanics.
What is an intergral component of a septic tank individual sweage disposal system?
Leach Field.
What form is filled out when a trouble call is submitted to the Trouble Desk?
Emergency/Service Authorization (ESA)
What are the four priority work classifications?
Safety
Function
Preventive
Appearance
State the reason for a priority work classification 1 (Safety)?
Work required primarily for safety reasons.
What is potable water for?
Suitable for drinking, cooking and personal use.
What are the three standard gear issue categories?
Fighting/Load carrying
Bivouac
Protective
The standard 782 Gear Issue consists of what?
Pistol belt and two magazine pouches
Pack, usually a medium size
H-harness or suspenders
Name the three fighting positions.
Hasty Position
Improved One Man
Improved Two Man
What is the biggest disadvantage of an improved two-man fighting position as opposed to an improved one-man position?
Two-man provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and shelling.
Which type of camouflage is more preferable when concealing a vehicle; natural cover or cammie netting?
Natural Cover
What is the first thing you do if caught in the open at night with a flare overhead?
Hit the deck.
What does "KOCOA" stand for?
Key Terrain
Observation and Fields of Fire
Concealment and Cover
Obstacles and Movement
Avenues of Approach
Explain the process of orienting a map using a compass.
1) When a compass rose appears on the map place the compass over the magnetic north line.
2) Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned.
3) For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line.
What does "BAMCIS" stand for?
Begin planning
Arrange recon
Make recon
Complete the plan
Issue the order
Supervise
What does "SMEAC" stand for?
Situation
Mission
Execution
Administration and Logistics
Command and Signal
What are the three sub-paragraphs of the Situation Paragraph of a Five Paragraph Order?
Enemy forces
Friendly forces
Attachments and Detachment
When is a "SALUTE" report used?
When observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat.
What is the primary mission of a reconnaissance patrol?
Information Gathering.
What are three considerations when creating a fire plan?
Sectors or Zone of Fire
Individual fighting postitions
Crew Served Weapons
Rifleman postitions
Fire Team Leader
What are two types of fire limits?
Lateral
Forward
Name four types of fire team formations.
Column
Wedge
Skirmishers (Left and Right)
Echelon (Left and Right)
How many articles are contained in the Code of Conduct?
6
What are the four THREATCON levels?
Alpha
Bravo
Charlie
Delta
What are three tyrpes of wire entanglements?
Tactical
Protective
Supplementrary
Describe Challenge and Reply.
Two words used to determine friend or foe, or a duress situation.
What are the three types of waterborne security zones?
Assessment
Warning
Threat
List four things addressed by an effective AFTP plan.
Concept of Operations
Preplanned responses
Tactics
Crisis management procedures
Consequence management procedures
Baseline security posture
Measures to increase security posture
Reporting procedures
Command and Control procedures
Name the five types of waterborne threats.
Small boats
Deep Draft Boats
Subsurface
Swimmer
Floating Mines