Navmed P-117

Front 1

The Navy Dental Corps was established in what year?

Back 1

1912

Front 2

Who is also the BUMED Director of the Office of the Dental Corps?

Back 2

Deputy Chief for Denistry

Front 3

The commanding officer for an MTF/DTF/BN will be assigned by whom?

Back 3

BUPERS

Front 4

Dental Officers must maintain registration in BLS and recieve other appropriate training per what series?

Back 4

BUMEDINST 1500.15

Front 5

All dental officers detaching to operational billets should complete advanced trauma training no later than how long before detachment?

Back 5

6 months

Front 6

Dental Officers must ensure compliance with what series to identify and resolve issues to assure quality dental care?

Back 6

BUMEDINST 6010.13

Front 7

Dental Officers must ensure the excellence of Navy dental health care following what?

Back 7

DON Standard of Oral Health Care

BUMEDINST 6320.82

Front 8

Dental Officers must be credentialed and priviledge per what series?

Back 8

BUMEDINST 6320.66

Front 9

Dental CO, dept. head, and OIC must establish a Mercury Control Program per what series?

Back 9

BUMEDINST 6260.30

Front 10

Dental Healthcare providers must be immunized against viral hepatitis per what series?

Back 10

BUMEDINST 6230.15

Front 11

COs must ensure strict compliance with this series and maintain an infection control program to prevent outbreaks in dental workplace?

Back 11

Dental Infection Control Program

BUMEDINST 6600.10

Front 12

What were established to provide a flexible, mobile, dental service for the USMC branch?

Back 12

Force Dental Compaines

Front 13

The rank of a force dental officer will be?

Back 13

Captain

Front 14

What is the T/O for a Dental Battalion?

Back 14

• 74 dental officers
• 2 Med Ser Cor Officers
• 153 dental techs
• 9 Marines

Front 15

Dental professional training requirements are published in the MANMED, BUMED, directives and what series of the MCO?

Back 15

1500 series

Front 16

Per MANMED article 15-31 a record of an disqualifying defect is warranted to be documented on what?

Back 16

DD 2808

Front 17

The Operational Dental Readiness goal for active and reserve personnel is what percent?

Back 17

95%

Front 18

Personnel will not deploy in what dental class?

Back 18

Class 3 or 4

Front 19

The dental health goal for active duty is what percentage?

Back 19

65%

Front 20

Physical examination findings should be recorded on what form?

Back 20

DD 2808 REPORT OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION

Front 21

Facilities conducting physical exams will keep a copy of the examination and any supporting documents for how long?

Back 21

2 years

Front 22

DD 2807 and 2808 are valid for how long?

Back 22

2 years

Front 23

What type of physical exams are no longer required for active duty or flag officers?

Back 23

Routine periodic

Front 24

Recruit screening examinations should be conducted within how long after reporting to basic?

Back 24

14 days

Front 25

Separation exams will be conducted on all reserve members within 180 days after last day of service on active duty. How long do members have to serve for?

Back 25

31 days

Front 26

Naval aviators and student aviators are what class?

Back 26

Class 1

Front 27

Aviation personnel other than designated naval aviators or student naval aviators are what class?

Back 27

Class 2

Front 28

Members in aviation related duty not requiring them to personally be airborne are what class?

Back 28

Class 3

Front 29

Applicants are generally considered what on the basis of having the potential to adapt to the rigors of aviation by possessing the temperament, flexibility, and adaptive defense mechanisms to allow for full attention to flight and successful completion of training?

Back 29

Aeronautically Adaptable

Front 30

Which exam for is used to recommend aviators for fitness to fly and clearance for high and moderate risk training?

Back 30

Aeromedical Clearance Notice (NAVMED 6410/2)

Front 31

Which form is used by aviation personnel to recommend the fitness and clearance to fly?

Back 31

Aeromedical Grounding Notice (NAVMED 6410/1)

Front 32

Following a medical grounding in excess of how many days will require a focused physical exam?

Back 32

60 days

Front 33

The DME is performed on candidates when applying for initial diving duty, every five years from 20 - 50 and then when after that?

Back 33

Annually

Front 34

Any Navy provider may perform a DME but it must be reviewed and countersigned by whom?

Back 34

Underwater Medical Officer

Front 35

What is the governing document for the Navy's Radiation Health Protection Program?

Back 35

NAVMED P-5055

Radiation Health Protection Manual

Front 36

What duty is characterized by isolation, medical austerity, need for reliability, prolonged subsistence in enclosed spaces, exposure to atmosphere contaminants, and psychological stress?

Back 36

Submarine Duty

Front 37

Submariners returning from absences of greater than how many days require a UMO eval before continuing duty?

Back 37

7 days

Front 38

The Explosive Motor Vehicle Operator (720) exam for civilian workers is required how often?

Back 38

Every 2 years

Front 39

For Explosive Handlers (721), the examination is how often until what age?

Back 39

- Every 5 years

- 60

Front 40

All Class I (Craftmaster, Engineer) and Class IA (Navigator) applicants will undergo an initial applicant exam no more than what time frame before being accepted?

Back 40

1 year

Front 41

Policies and procedures for the medical care of non-active beneficiaries, including reservist are addressed in what?

Back 41

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3b

Front 42

Women begin cervical cytology at what age?

Back 42

21

Front 43

Women aged 30 years and older who have had three consecutive cervical cytology test results that are negative for intraepithelial lesions and malignancy may be screened every how often?

Back 43

3 years

Front 44

Women who are infected with what should have cervical cytology screenings twice in the first year of diagnosis and then annually?

Back 44

HIV

Front 45

Servicewomen deploying to OSAs will follow Combatant Commander requirements outlined in what current series?

Back 45

BUMEDINST 1300.3

Overseas Suitability Screening

Front 46

Who has overall responsibility for the Pharmacy?

Back 46

CO

Front 47

Inspections will be conducted at least how often on ares where meds are stored, administered, dispensed?

Back 47

Monthly

Front 48

For safety and economy what system is used for packaging and distribution to MTFs?

Back 48

Unit-dose

Front 49

What series provides guidance for training, certifying, and supervising IDCs?

Back 49

OPNAVINST 6400.1

Front 50

Retired military physicians, possessing a current license, may use what form to write prescriptions for personal use, except for controlled substances?

Back 50

DD FORM 1289

Front 51

Products containing what or other OTC medications with FDA restrictions shall not be dispensed as an OTC?

Back 51

Pseudoephedrine

Front 52

Controlled substance medications used for seizure control may be provided in a quantity not to exceed a supply of what quantity?

Back 52

72 hour

Front 53

Prescription for a controlled substance classified as a DEA Schedule II shall be filled within how many days of the date originally written?

Back 53

30 days

Front 54

Up to a how many a day supply of stimulant medications is authorized?

Back 54

100

Front 55

Deploying members may receive up to how many of Scheduled II medications?

Back 55

90

Front 56

Prescriptions for class 3, 4, and 5 shall be filled within how many months?

Back 56

6 months

Front 57

Deploying members may receive up to how much supply a day for Schedule IIIV medications?

Back 57

180 pills

Front 58

Women get birth control filled with how many packages in one refill?

Back 58

6 packages

Front 59

Refills for maintenance medications can be requested when levels reach what percent used?

Back 59

75 percent

Front 60

What shall be used to monitor pharmaceutical purchasing?

Back 60

Prime Vendor System

Front 61

Drugs with no acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential are known as?

Back 61

Schedule 1

Front 62

Drugs having an acceptable medical use and a very high abuse potential are known as?

Back 62

Schedule 2

Front 63

Drugs having an acceptable medical use which are considered to have lessening degrees of abuse potential are known as?

Back 63

Schedule 3

Front 64

Schedule I and II drugs shall be locked in a vault and inventoried by a CSIB. Vault lock should be changed every how often?

Back 64

6 months

Front 65

How often shall CSIB be conducted, and what provides guidance on conducting the boards?

Back 65

Quarterly

BUMEDINST 6710.70

Front 66

What is the NAVMED 6710/1?

Back 66

Narcotic Account Record

Front 67

All prescriptions, formularies, and drug list may be destroyed when how old?

Back 67

2 years

Front 68

All Schedules II through V controlled substances prescriptions and accounting records will be available for at least how long?

Back 68

2 years

Front 69

What is the minimum distance between heads of sleeping persons recommended for barracks?

Back 69

6 ft

Front 70

In barracks there should be 1 urinal and shower for how many men?

Back 70

25

Front 71

For Navy purposes, a nursing unit accomodating how many patients is a size most adequate and ecomomically administered?

Back 71

30 - 40

Front 72

Shipboard garbage grinders are not to be operated in harbor or river access or within how many nautical miles of the coast?

Back 72

12

Front 73

What provides the basic guidance for the scope and components of an occupational health service?

Back 73

Federal Personnel Manual 792