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523 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the primary function of a inventory manager?
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Assure proper balance between supply & demand
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NAVICP-P manages what type of equipment?
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Aircraft equipment & spare parts, photographic, meteorological, catapult & arresting gear equipment & associated spare parts
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The management of DBOF funds is under which of the follwoing system commands?
- NAVAIR - NAVSUP - NAVSEA - NAVFAC |
NAVSUP
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Inventory managers are under the command of which activity?
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Naval Supply Systems Command
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What is the main function of the Customer Service Advocate Branch under the Operations Directorate?
-Serves as a connecting link between NAVICP & it's customers -Serves as item manager for different types of material -rovides material submitted by the stock points -Provides technical information to the customer |
Serves as a connecting link between NAVICP & it's customers
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AECL
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Aircraft Equipment Configuration List
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What is the primary function of a inventory manager?
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Provide effective & efficient support to the fleet & shore activities
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Supply department's ashore may set up fuel's division when authorized by whom?
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NAVSUP
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On most ships, stock control is a part of what supply division?
- S-1 - S-2 - S-3 - S-6 |
S-1
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Aboard ship, which division stores & issues avaition material?
- S-2 - S-4 - S-5 - S-6 |
S-6
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Which didviosn aboard ship is in control of the general stores/materials?
- S-2 - S-7 - S-8 - S-9 |
S-8
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Which division aboard ship is the customer service branch/
- S-7 - S-10 - S-11 - S-9 |
S-9
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Which division aboard ship is in charge of HAZMAT/
- S-12 - S-13 - S-10 - S-4 |
S-13
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Food Service Division?
- S-5 - S-4 - S-2 - S-3 |
S-2
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Ship's store & Retail clothing?
- S-2 - S-3 - S-5 - S-8 |
S-3
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Which division among the ship is in charge of Disbursing?
- S-4 - S-6 - S-8 - S-9 |
S-4
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Wardroom mess Division?
- S-5 - S-7 - S-8 - S-10 |
S-5
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MWR Division
- S-6 - S-7 - S-11 - S-12 |
S-7
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CPO Mess Division?
- S-9 - S-10 - S-11 - S-12 |
S-11
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Postal Division?
- S-3 - S-6 - S-8 - S-12 |
S-12
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What total number of defense supply centers are under the DLA?
- 4 - 5 - 6 - 8 |
4
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A brief form of correspondence used by the via addresse to comment on the contents of a letter is known by which of the following terms?
- Business letter - Memo - Mulitple address letter - Endorsement |
Endorsement
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What type of directive contains info of a continuing nature or requires continuing action?
- a notice - a memo - a change transmittal - an instruction |
an instruction
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What part of the OPNAVINST 4790.2E identifies the type of directive?
- OPNAV - INST - 4790.2 - E |
INST
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Info that can cause serious damage to the national security if disclosed to the enemy is given what classification?
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Secret
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To obtain information on the single standard system for seperating & filing Navy and Marine Corps records, you should refer to what instruction?
- SECNAVINST 5212.15 - OPNAVINST 5510.1 - SECNAVINST 5210.11 - OPNAVINST 4790.2 |
SECNAVINST 5210.11
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The Navy's SSIC's are broken down into how many groups?
- 10 - 11 - 12 - 13 |
13
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You should conduct a physical inventory of the keys in the key locker at which of the following times?
- During turnover of the space - After securing from work - During shift change or before securing for the day - After the duty section muster |
During shift change or before securing for the day
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Materials, equipment and supplies used aboard ship that are not stocked in supply but are ordered to meet specific requirements are referred to as what?
- Excess materials - direct turnover (DTO) - Unauthorized supplies - Equipage items |
DTO
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Which of the following best describes the term "endurance"?
- The amount of time a ship will be at sea - The distance a ship can travel without refueling - The period of time required by a ship to use a definite amount of supplies - The period of time required by a ship to use all of it's supplies |
The period of time required by a ship to use a definite amount of supplies
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Once the SUPPO knows the rate of usage and the total storage space available, he/she can estimate which of the following?
- Excess amount of material - % of under stocking of standard items - % of over stocking of consumables - Number of days that can be maintained by capacity loading |
Number of days that can be maintained by capacity loading
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What type of key padlock will be used insupply spaces?
- 1 1/4" type - 1 1/2" type - 1 1/4" pin tumble type - 1 1/2" pin tumble type |
1 1/2" pin tumble type
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How often will the combo's to keyless padlocks be changed?
- 3 months - 6 months - 9 months - 1 year |
6 months
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A master key which will open all locks in Group I supply spaces will be in the custody of who?
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SUPPO
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Which of the following publications should you use as a desktop reference for the proper coding of MILSTRIP requisitions?
- NAVSUP P-567 - NAVSUP P-485 - NAVSUP P-437 - NAVSUP P-409 |
NAVSUP P-409
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Supply Afloat packing procedures manual?
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NAVSUP P-484
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Ship's store afloat manual?
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NAVSUP P-487
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Food Service Management Manual?
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NAVSUP P-486
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Storage & Materials Handling manual?
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NAVSUP P-284
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What is the Navy's manual for accounting?
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NAVSO P-3013,
Financial Management of Resources |
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Personnel assigned to OPTAR record keeping duties should refer to which of the following manuals for info?
- NAVSO P-519 - NAVSO P-3073 only - NAVSO P-3013 only - NAVSO P-3073 & P-3013 |
NAVSO P-3073 & P-3013
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Who establishes and maintains the NAVSO P-3013?
- Asst SECDEF - SECNAV - NAVSUPSYSCOM - Dept of Navy Staff Offices |
Dept of Navy Staff Offices
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Normally, changes to a NAVSUP manual are made how?
- Pen & ink changes - Page changes - Change bulletins - Directives |
Page changes
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Which manual would you refer to for management of the your COSAL?
- SECNAVINST 4441.170a - NAVSUPINST 4441.170a - SPCCINST 4441.170a - SPCCINST 4441.172a |
SPCCINST 4441.170a
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In the supply system, the term "material cognizance" refers to which of the following stock points opr personnel?
- primary stock points - secondarty stock points - the inventory manager - the inventory managers & technical advisors |
the inventory managers
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Materials are assigned to federal supply classification according to which of the following?
- Physical & performance - Category & use - Security requirements - Manufacturers identification |
Category & use
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Which of the following items is vested to DLA for joint military requirements?
- Retail - Wholesale - Repairable - Consumable |
Retail
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What character of the COG id's the stores account?
- 1st - 2nd - 3rd - 4th |
1st
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Material ID under the Federal Catalog System involves what?
- Naming, describing, classifying & numbering - Describing, classifying, numbering & inventorying - Classifying, numbering, inventorying & naming - Numbering, inventorying, naming & describing |
Naming, describing, classifying & numbering
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The second part of the COG describes what?
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who the inventory manager is or ICP
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Administration of the Federal Catalog System is accomplished by which agency?
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Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
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Which FSC group does the Navy use for forms & pubs?
- 01 thru 09 - 10 thru 19 - 20 thru 29 - 30 thru 39 |
01 thru 09
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Which of the various elements of the NSN may be used to ID a specific item of material?
- NIIN - COG - Federal Supply Classification - Federal Supply Group |
FSC
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SMIC
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Special material identification code
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Which of the following FSG's ID's medical material?
- 10 - 28 - 34 - 65 |
65
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Which of the following COg's ID's APA material?
- 1R - 2E - 6R - 8R |
6R
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What cataloging handbook contains a list of groups & classes of material in the supply system?
- QH2 - H2 - QR6 - R6 |
H2
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The Navy Stock Account (NSA) consists of all material paid from the DBOF and is always charged to the end user's OPTAR
T/F? |
True
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The Appropriation Purchases Account (APA) material is not charged to the end user's OPTAR unless used for something other than it's original purpose
T/F |
True
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The SMIC for material requiring weapons system applicability is assigned by what person?
- The Tech advisor of the material systems group - The inventory manager of the material - The cognizant TYCOM - The weapons system analyst |
The inventory manager of the material
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Which of the following parts of the SMIC ID's material for an FA-18?
- SF - MF - FF - BF |
SF
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NICN
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Navy Item Control Number
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SMIC's with an N in the 2nd position apply to what weapons system?
- Antisubmarine aircraft - Helo's - Turboprop engine - Jet engines |
Jet engines
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Color codes are used on compressed gas cylinders for what purpose?
- To ID the type of cylinder - To ID the type of gas contained inside the cylinder - To ID the type of metal the cylinder is made of - To ID whether each cylinder is flammable or inflammable |
To ID the type of gas contained inside the cylinder
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A compressed gas cylinder that contains the highly flammable gas acetylene is painted what color?
- Red - Gray - Yellow - Brown |
Yellow
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The white stripe on an oxygen cylinder indicates that the contents are fit for human use. What is the body color of this cylinder?
- black - blue - green - yellow |
green
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All except which of the following items of info is etched on the manufacturer's nameplate of installed equipment?
- Manufacturer's name - NSN - Model number - Serial number |
NSN
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Which of the following provides descriptive data that associates a material requirement to an NSN?
- Navy Stock List of Pub's, Forms & Directives - HAZMAT Information System - IPB - COSAL |
COSAL
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Which of the following is available in CD-ROM form that allows you to research by NSN form or publication number?
- Navy Stock List of Pub's, Forms & Directives - HAZMAT Information System - IPB - COSAL |
Navy Stock List of Pub's, Forms & Directives
NAVSUP P-2003 |
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What datat should be your most accurate guide in determining the requirements for your ship?
- ship's allowance list - ship's experience as shown in accurate stock records - ship's intial outfitting list - ship's usage data tables |
ship's experience as shown in accurate stock records
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Administration of the Federal Catalog System is accomplished by which agency?
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Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
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Which FSC group does the Navy use for forms & pubs?
- 01 thru 09 - 10 thru 19 - 20 thru 29 - 30 thru 39 |
01 thru 09
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Which of the various elements of the NSN may be used to ID a specific item of material?
- NIIN - COG - Federal Supply Classification - Federal Supply Group |
FSC
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SMIC
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Special material identification code
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Which of the following FSG's ID's medical material?
- 10 - 28 - 34 - 65 |
65
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Which of the following COg's ID's APA material?
- 1R - 2E - 6R - 8R |
6R
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What cataloging handbook contains a list of groups & classes of material in the supply system?
- QH2 - H2 - QR6 - R6 |
H2
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The Navy Stock Account (NSA) consists of all material paid from the DBOF and is always charged to the end user's OPTAR
T/F? |
True
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The Appropriation Purchases Account (APA) material is not charged to the end user's OPTAR unless used for something other than it's original purpose
T/F |
True
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The SMIC for material requiring weapons system applicability is assigned by what person?
- The Tech advisor of the material systems group - The inventory manager of the material - The cognizant TYCOM - The weapons system analyst |
The inventory manager of the material
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ICRL
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Individual Component Repair List
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AVCAL
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Aviation Consolidated Allowance List
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Which of the following factors may necessitate a review of stock records and a reevaluation of requirements for some or all items stocked aboard a ship?
- Type of climate during operation & length of cruise only - Length of cruise & type of operation only - Supply support available only - Length of cruise, type of operation, supply support availibility & climate during operation |
Length of cruise, type of operation, supply support availibility & climate during operation
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In preparing for your ships deployment what factor is of prime importance to the SUPPO?
- stockage available - amount of material on hand - availability of supply support during the cruise - ship's allowance |
availability of supply support during the cruise
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When ordering non NSN material, you should use what form?
- 1348 (6pt) - 1348-6 - 1384 - 1387-2 |
1348-6
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TARSLL
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Tender and Repair Ship Load List
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The DD form 1348-6 format consists of how many parts?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
2
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What DD form should you use to requisition rentals of copying machines & repairs of certain equipment?
- 1348(6pt) - 1348-6 - 1348 - 1149 |
1149
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The use of what form is mandatory in all procurements of material from a SERVMART?
- NAVSUP form 1250 - NAVSUP form 1250-1 - NAVSUP form 1314 - NAVSUP form 1348 |
NAVSUP form 1314
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NORS
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Not-Operationally Ready Supply
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SSL
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ServMart Shopping List
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The DD form 1348 emergency requirement requisition used to obtain material from ships other than supply ships and tendors should contain all of the following EXCEPT:
- Routing Identifier - Document Identifier - Identification of requisition - Identification of source of supplu |
Routing Identifier
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All except which of the following sources are customary sources of supply for fuel oil?
- Commercial Ships - Foreign commercial shore installations under Navy or defense contracts - Shore installations of other services - Other Navy ships |
Commercial Ships
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Who is responsible for buying fuel?
- CO - XO - SUPPO - OOD |
SUPPO
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All field level repairables are identified by what MCC code?
- A - B - C - D |
D
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The material outstanding file should be maintained in what order?
- Julian Date - Calendar date - Doc # - Alphabetic |
Doc #
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The amount & kind of status you receive on a requisition is indicated by which of the following codes?
- Advice - Media & Status - Priority Designator - Signal |
Media & Status
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Which of the following Document Identifiers is used for a follow up request?
- A01 - AB1 - AC1 - AF1 |
AF1
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What supply status will the A01 Doc. Identifier give you?
- Cancellation request - Follow-up - Requisition - Automatic supply status |
Requisition
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What supply status will the AC1 doc. identifier give you?
- Follow-up - Cancellation - Direct delivery supply status - Automatic shipment status |
Cancellation
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What supply status will the AE1 doc. identifier give you?
- Direct delivery supply status - Automatic shipment status - Automatic supply status - cancellation |
Automatic supply status
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What means is used by a supply activity to inform the customer that action has been taken on their requisition?
- A stock balance card - a material obligation validation - a requisition status - an action taken card |
a requisition status
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NAVSUP P-560
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Supply Aquisition Regulation Supplement (SUPARS)
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Using the purchase order method what is the maximum value of a purhase that a SUPPO afloat may be authoraized to make under normal conditions?
- $250 - $500 - $2,500 - $25,000 |
25K
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What form is used as an OPTAR obligation document anytime a purchase order is negotiated from an ashore activity?
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DD Form 1348
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Request for Contractual Procurement is what document?
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NAVCOMPT Form 2276
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Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request is what document?
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DD Form 448
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You can use what total number of methods for making small purchases?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
4
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Each Blank Purchase Agreement (BPA) should NOT exceed what maximum dollar amount?
- $500 - $2,500 - $10,000 - $250,000 |
10K
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Which of the following forms is
the purchase order invoice-voucher used for over-the-counter purchases/ - DD Form 1149 - DD Form 1348-6 - SF 44 - SF 364 |
SF 44
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Excluding purchases for oil, what is the maximum dollar limit for purchases when an SF-44 is used?
- 50K - 25K - 2,500 - 500 |
2,500
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Who has overall responsibility of material stored in supply spaces?
- storeroom supervisor - qa officer - division officer - suppo |
suppo
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Who is responsible for the financial report imbalances from receipts?
- duty SK - receiving supervisor - stock control officer - special asst |
stock control officer
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Who is responsible for the administrative functions of stores?
- special asst - duty SK - suppo - workcenter supervisor |
special asst
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All commercial & government deliveries shipped under a bill of lading are classified as which of the following types of delivery?
- Direct delivery - Freight - Special delivery - Regular mail |
Frieght
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Supplies delivered to ships by government or commercial sources and accepted by ships, squadron or group representitive are classified as which type of delivery?
- Mail/parcel post - Direct delivery - Consignments - Freight |
Direct delivery
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Repairs or rentals are requisitioned on what form?
- DD form 1149 - DD form 1348 - DD form 1348-1 - DD form 1348-1A |
DD form 1149
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Which form is designed to be used with the activities Logistics Applications of Automated Marking and Reading Symbols (LOGMARS)?
- DD 1149 - DD 1348 - DD 1348-1 - DD 1348-1A |
DD 1348-1A
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When using "Fast Pay" what form shall be used?
- DD 1149 - DD 1155 - DD 1348 - DD 1384 |
DD 1155
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Under "fast pay" procedures cosignees should notify the purchasing activity of non-recepit of supplies within how many days after the specified delivery date?
- 7 - 14 - 30 - 60 |
30
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to give delivery instructions to a commercial carrier, which of the following forms should be used?
- SF 1103 - DD 250 - DD 1149 - DD 1348-1 |
SF 1103
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What instruction is used for managing shelf life items?
- NAVSUP P-485 - DOD 4500.32-R - DD 1387 - DD 4140.27-M |
DD 4140.27-M
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Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR)
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SF 364
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Aboard ship, what officer must authorize storage of supply department stock in other department spaces?
- OPSO - Air Officer - CO - SUPPO |
CO
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Maintaining the stock records of supply material stored in other department spaces in the responsibility of what person?
- The designated custodian - The other department head - The person using the material - SUPPO |
SUPPO
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The assigned custodian for material stowed in other department spaces is responsible for maintaining which of the following records?
- financial records - location records - transaction records - demand records |
location records
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What does "MAM" stand for?
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Maintenance Assistance Module
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Where are MAM's listed and who are has custody of them?
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They are listed in the AVCAL and are in the custody of the SUPPO
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To maintain control of stored material, you should meet all of the following Except?
- Provide orderly stowage & access - Prevent damage to the ship of personnel - Reduce material loss or damage - Issue the newest stock first |
Issue the newest stock first
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What aisle allow movement of the material handling equipment or supplies through the length of a general-purpose warehouse?
- fire aisle - personnel aisle - main aisle - cross aisle |
main aisle
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A refrigerated warehouse is usually separated in what total number of parts?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
2
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The firewalls used in a flammable storage warehouse have what prescribed fire resistance rating?
- 6 - 8 - 4 - 9 |
4
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How many different types of open storage spaces are there?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
2
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Aboard ship, an allowance list item needs to be stored temporarily in a shore activity for over 1 year. The ship must obtain approval from what person?
- stock control officer - stores officer - department head - TYCOM |
TYCOM
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The material protection level provides protection against less severe conditions?
- A - B - C - D |
B
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What type of drawing shows the actual layout of storage area and enables the LS to match the location on the locator file with the floor plan?
- a planograph - blueprint - gross storage space drawing - net storage space drawing |
planograph
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Most 2,000 pound forklift trucks will lift 2,000 pounds if the load does NOT extend beyond what maximum distance from the heel or fork?
- 10 in - 20 in - 24 in - 36 in |
24 in
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Which of the following stowage aids is used for storing odd sized items or weak containers that will not support a superimposed load?
- safety pallet - horizontal dunnage - box pallet - notched spaces |
box pallet
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When using a forklift to elevate personnel, you should use which of the following types of pallets?
- box pallet - safety pallet - standard pallet - winged pallet |
safety pallet
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Which of the following stowage aids can be made from cut salvaged lumber and used to protect material from water damage?
- standard pallets - notched spacers - pallet racks - floor dunnage |
floor dunnage
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Which of the following stowage aids are used for horizontal palletizing of compressed gas cylinders?
- notched spacers - pallet racks - box pallets - collars |
notched spacers
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The HMIS lists oxidizing material by what special material content code?
- A - D - H - J |
J
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The Suppo or duty Suppo
should make a security report of the storerooms at what interval? - twice a day - daily - weekly - at irregular internals |
daily
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A clothing space belongs to what space group?
- Group 1 - Group 2 - Group 3 - Group 4 |
Group 3
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A master key is NOT provided for spaces of what groups?
- I - II - III - IV |
III
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The Suppo is required to maintain custody of a grand master key which will pass locks in all EXCEPT which of the following groups?
- I - II - III - IV |
III
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Any act that results in the decrease of Navy assets is known by which of the following terms?
- Equipage - Expenditure - Stock balance - Inventory |
Expenditure
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Which of the following methods is used to process expenditures?
- Transfer - Inventory - Packing - Storage |
Transfer
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What is the most common method of expenditure used to charge the user's OPTAR?
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Issue
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The issue of material from a supply department to a supported unit or squadron is known by which of the following terms?
- Subcustody - On-station issue - Off-station issue - Shipment |
On-station
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After the completion date, documents filed in the expenditure invoice file should be retained at least how long?
- 1 yr - 2 yr - 3 yr - 4 yr |
1 year
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What issue group is processed on a "first in, first out basis"?
- I - II - III - IV |
III
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Requisition priorities 1 through 3 should be processed within what maximum time frame?
- 1 hr - 2 hr - 12 hr - 24 hr |
1 hr
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Material delivered to a requisitioner should have at least how many copies of the issue document with it?
- 6 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
2
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For posting or to use as proof of delivery, afloat delivery personnel should send completed issue documents to what section or division in supply?
- the receiving section - shipping section - supply response section - quality assurance division |
supply response section (SRS)
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In automated ships what term refers to the manual processing of requisitions submitted on a DD Form 1348 (6pt)?
- in-line - off-line - real-time - NALCOMIS |
off-line
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Issue Group I requisitions are available for what type of pick-up?
- bearer pick-up - priority pick-up - expeditied pick-up - express pick-up |
bearer pick-up
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On a requisition, the supplying activity uses which of the following information to determine how and where to send the supply status?
- routing identifier - signal code - media and status code - demand code |
media and status code
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An issue transaction is complete after which of the following events?
- after POD is received - after the material is delivered - after getting the customer's signature and the issue is posted - after the stock replenishment is submitted |
after getting the customer's signature and the issue is posted
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During manual processing, what ASD area acts as the central point of entry for processing requisitions?
- SRS - DCU - PMU - AWP |
SRS
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While awaiting for the POD copy, the S/LSC should retain a copy of the issue document in what file?
- material outstanding file - material completed file - issue pending file - financial file |
issue pending file
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When issuing material for requisitions that require standard pack adjustment, you should mark the document in which of the following ways?
- line out the issued quantity - circle the quantity originally requested - line out the quantity originally requested, then enter & circle the issued quantity - circle both the original & issued quantity |
line out the quantity originally requested, then enter & circle the issued quantity
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When a partial NIS, subsitute issue items are processed, what total number of issue documents is required?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
2
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An automated activity that processes transactions manually will use what issue processing method to post the documents to the computer?
- real-time - prepost - post-post - interactive |
post-post
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A list of flight clothing items that may be issued to autorized personnel is contained in what NAVAIR pub?
- 00-35QH-2 - 00-35QB-2 - 00-35QD-2 - 00-35QR-4 |
00-35QH-2
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When a replacement for a surveyed item of flight clothing is ordered, the REQ must be approved my whom?
- material control officer - CO - OPSO - maintenance officer |
CO
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issues of flight clothing are entered in an individuals record on what form?
- SF 44 - OPNAV 3760/32B - OPNAV 4790/60 - DD 1348 |
OPNAV 3760/32B
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What person is responsible for entering the issue of flight clothing in the members record?
- the supply person issuing the item - the administrative officer - the flight gear custodian of the receiving activity - the material control officer |
the flight gear custodian of the receiving activity
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What NAVSUP instruction contains procedures for ordering odd sized flight clothing with special measurements?
- 4400.70 - 4410.52 - 4421.20 - 4440.115 |
4400.70
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MSP
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maintenance support package
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On a ship, what self-service area stocks low-cost/high-usage items?
- main issue storeroom - light gear storeroom - engine storeroom - SEAMART |
SEAMART
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During manual processing afloat, what form is used to document issues of aviation fuel to embarked aircraft squadrons or detachments?
- DD 1348-6 - DD 1348-1 - DD 1348(6pt) - DD 1384 |
DD 1348(6pt)
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When transferring material from a ship to a NWCF activity, what appropriation number must be used on the transfer document?
- 17X4930 - 17X1234 - 17X1804 - 97X8097 |
17X4930
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Special Accounting Class (SAC) 207 is part of the NSA material on board specific types of ships. Whihc of the following types of ships carry SAC 207?
- AE - AO - AOR - CV |
CV
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What copy of the DD form 1348 (6pt) is used by the transferring ship to post the transaction and for the expenditure invoice file?
- original - hardback - green - pink |
original
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Material being transferred should have what copies off DD form 1348-1 attached to it?
- the original & copy 2 - copies 3 & 4 - copies 4 & 5 - copies 2 & 3 |
copies 2 & 3
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The originator keeps what copy of the DD form 200?
- the original, if not required by higher authority - copy 1 - copy 2 - copy 3 |
the original, if not required by higher authority
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The number of requests (hits) for an item in a given time frame is known by what term?
- DTO - frequency of demand - high limit - DBI |
frequency of demand
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The maximum quantity of material to be on hand and on order to sustain current operations is known as?
- low limit - carried item - endurance level - high limit |
high limit
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A supply activity is allowed to stock 100 different line items with a high limit of 10 each per NSN. What is the "item range"?
- 115 - 100 - 50 - 10 |
100
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Which of the following terms is synonymous with low limit?
- requisitioning objective - high limit - reorder point - Demand Based Item (DBI) |
reorder point
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The anticipated (or advertised) time between order and receipt is known as what type of time?
- receipt processing time - product processing time - shipping elapse time - order and shipping time |
order and shipping time
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POS items have a demand frequency of 2 or more in a 6 month period, and continue to have at least how many demands every 6 months after?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
1
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The stock position that signals the need to start replenishment action is known by what term?
- not carried - reorder point - order & shipping time - frequency of demand |
reorder point
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The quantity of a particular NSN item stocked is known as what?
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item depth
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The maximum quantity of material, which include the operating level plus the safety level, to be maintained on hand to sustain current operations is known as what?
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stockage objective
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What area in the supply department is responsible for the inventory control and management of all supply stock?
- stock control - storage - receiving - shipping |
stock control
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The processing of collected transactions or information into the computer to change the data file is known as what?
- update - inquiry - real-time - interface |
update
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To update information in the stock records, NAVICP provides activities with a unit price change at least how often?
- weekly - monthly - quarterly - annually |
annually
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The stock control history file includes which of the following completed documents?
- offship req's only - issues & receipts only - change notices only - offship req's, issues & receipts, and change notices |
offship req's, issues & receipts, and change notices
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when ordering replenishments for stock, nondeployed ships in CONUS should use what prescribed order and shipping time?
- 10 days - 30 days - 75 days - 90 days |
30 days
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When it is considered necessary to maintain the prescribed stock endurance level, what person may authorize changes to the O&ST?
- TYCOM - NAVSUP - Activities SUPPO - the copgnizant fleet commander |
the copgnizant fleet commander
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Selective Item Management (SIM) items are replenished when the quantities on hand and on order are equal to or less that what prescribed amount?
- high limit - low limit - safety level - endurance level |
low limit
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In receipt documents, which of the following MILSTRIP data is commonly subsituted from the original req?
- fund code - doc # - signal code - stock number |
stock number
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You can expect to receive an item with a different NSN when which of the following requisition status codes is provided by the source?
- BA - BB - BH - BV |
BH
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What activity manages aviation depot-level repairable items?
- GSA - NAVICP-P - NAVICP-M - FMSO |
NAVICP-P
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An aircraft carrier operating under end-use SUADPS-RT holds AVDLR items in what account series?
- 51000 - 52000 - 55000 - 57000 |
55000
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The AVDLR's under the DBOF and carried in stores account 51000 are managed by which of the following activities?
- DLA - GSA - FMSO - NAVICP |
NAVICP
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New secondary items, provided by the contractor of the Navy, which have NOT reached MSD, are identified by what number in the 1st digit of the COG?
- 0 - 1 - 8 - 7 |
0
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What fund, if any, is charged for the interim support items issued to users by the contractor?
- OPTAR - Operating & Maintenance Fund - DBOF - None |
None
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When AVLDR items are requisitioned, what price is obligated when (a) there is no turn-in, and (b) the turn-in is or will be made?
- (a)Net (b)standard - (a)Net (b)repair - (a)Standard (b)net - (a)Repair (b)unit |
(a)Net (b)standard
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Normally, ships receive a new AVCAL at which of the following times?
- during deployment - 1 month after deployment - prior to each deployment - before commissioning |
prior to each deployment
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What activity convenes the AVCAL quality review board?
- NAVICP-P - FMSO - NAVAIR - MAVICP-M |
NAVICP-P
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Unless ortherwise directed what fund code and advice code is normally used by ships when ordering the initial allowance quantity of AVDLR stock items?
- 7F & 5A - 7L & 5D - QZ & 5D - QZ & 5G |
QZ & 5D
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If carcass tracking remains open for a specific time frame, the ICP will sned a follow-up inquiry by using what Doc. identifier?
- BK1 - BK2 - BK3 - BK4 |
BK1
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An afloat unti submitted a req. for an AVDLR item by using a 5G advice code. The ICP should send the carcass follow-up inquiry to the ship after what prescribed number of days from the req. date?
- 30 days - 45 days - 60 days - 90 days |
30 days
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To avoid additional billing from NAVICP, activities must send a response to a BK1 by using what doc. indentifier?
- D6A - BK2 - BK4 - BE1 |
BK2
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ICP sent a BK1 for a requisition that was submitted to replace a surveyed item. What response code should you use in the BK2?
- A - B - C - D |
C
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If a BK2 response is considered invalid, the ICP will notify the customer by using what doc. indentifier?
- D6A - D6R - BK1 - BKR |
BKR
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On a BK4 doc. sent by ICP, which of the following Response codes requires a credit to the SFOEDL?
- A - B - C - D |
A
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Afloat activities should offload excess RFI AVDLR items at which of the following locations?
- the closest civilian storage facility - the closet NAVY TIR activity - the closest command that uses the items - the TYCOM's general storage facility |
the closet NAVY TIR activity
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When ICP grants the credit requested by the activity for AVDLR items that were offloaded, the credit will be given to?
- the requisitioning activity - supporting FISC - TYCOM of requesting activity - ICP |
TYCOM of requesting activity
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Aboard and aviation ship who is responsible for determining the aviation fuels requirements?
- suppo - avaition fuels officer - air wing commander - engineering officeer |
aviation fuels officer
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Issues and transfers of avaition fuels from ships to squadrons are charged to what account?
- AFM - TYCOM's open allotment - OPTAR - APA |
OPTAR
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Message reports on fuel inventory are sent to NAVICP how often?
- monthly - daily - weekly - quarterly |
monthly
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Shipboard material inventories are divided into how many parts?
- 3 - 4 - 5 - 6 |
5
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To ensure that the quantity of items on the inventory reflect what is on the shelf what type of functions are conducted?
- location audits - receipt processing - carcass tracking - physical inventories |
physical inventories
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What type of inventory involves the physical count of all stock material either shipwide or in a specific storeroom?
- velocity - spot - bulk-head to bulkhead - specific commodity |
bulk-head to bulkhead
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What type of an inventory is an inventory of all pipe fittings?
- bulkhead to bulkhead - specific commidity - special material - velocity |
specific commidity
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An inventory of all fast movers?
- bulkhead to bulkhead - specific commidity - special material - velocity |
velocity
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An inventory of all items in a storeroom?
- bulkhead to bulkhead - specific commidity - special material - velocity |
bulkhead to bulkhead
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A bulkhead to bulkhead inventory may be the conducted when a random sampling result is less than what percent accurate?
- 92% - 98% - 96% - 90% |
90%
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An inventory of all storeroom items that are specifically selected for seperate identification and inventory control?
- bulkhead to bulkhead - specific commidity - special material - velocity |
special material
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What type of inventory is performed if it includes only shelf-life items, pilferable items, or classified material?
- wall-to-wall - specific commodity - spot - special material |
special material
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The unscheduled inventory needed to verify the quantity of material on hand as a result of an NIS requisition status is known as a?
- wall to wall - specific commodity - spot - velocity |
spot
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What is the minimum inventory frequency for AVDLR's?
- quarterly - annually - biennially - semiannually |
annually
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velocity inventories are conducted to account for stock items that experience which of the following demand frequencies?
- medium movers only - slow movers only - fast movers only - slow & fast movers |
slow & fast movers
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After review of the count documents is finished, which of the following actions should be the next step in the inventory process?
- applicable count documents should be dated and initialed - inventory physical count should be completed - inventory count documents should be reconciled with the stock records - re-verify the location of each item |
inventory count documents should be reconciled with the stock records
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A major difference in inventory exists when the physical count of a stock item differs from the confirmed stock record balance by what minimum percentage?
- 1% - 3% - 5% - 10% |
10%
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Equipage consists of shipboard items selected or approved by which of the following officials?
- fleet supply officers - Chief of Naval Material - Fleet commanders in chief - CNO |
Fleet commander in cheif
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LAP
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Location Audit Program
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NAVSUP Form 306
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Inventory control record
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What total number of copies of Equipage Custody Record should be prepared when only one department has responsibility for the item indicated?
- an original one - an original and one copy - an original and two copies - an original and three copies |
an original and two copies
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The original NAVSUP Fomr 306 must be retained by whom?
- storeroom LS - equipage custodian - Suppo - CO |
Suppo
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Each new balance on a "signature required" equipage custody record must be attested to by the signature of which of the following individuals?
- CO - Suppo - Equipage custodian - LS |
Suppo
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An inventory of all equipage is taken annually during what specific time period?
- 15 Feb to 15 Mar - 15 Jun to 15 Jul - 15 Sep to 15 Oct - 15 Dec to 15 Jan |
15 Feb to 15 Mar
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Controlled equipage inventories should be conducted under what circumstance?
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When the Suppo is being relieved
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Responsibility for conducting the annual inventory of equipage rest with which of the following individuals?
- Suppo - Department heads - controlled equipage LS - An officer designated by the CO |
Department heads
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During an inventory, if equipage is find to be missing what is the first step that must be taken?
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Conduct a recount and/or investigative research
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Which of the following equipment is used to pickup, carry, and stack unti loads of supplies and material?
- 2 wheel hand truck - hand pallet truck - tractor trailer - forklift truck |
forklift truck
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In reference to a forklift, what is meant by the term "free lift"?
- maximum lifting height - safe distance between the forks from the ground when traveling - the lifting height of the forks before the inner slides move above the mast - the maximum height of the forks when lifting loads over the weight limit |
the lifting height of the forks before the inner slides move above the mast
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A forklift truck should not be used to move loads beyond what maximum distance?
- 100ft - 200ft - 300ft - 400ft |
400ft
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when moving loads beyond the maximum travel distance for a forklift, which of the following equipment should you use?
- hand pallet truck - tractor-trailer train - pneumatic wheel forklift - hand cart |
tractor-trailer train
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Under normal conditions, a tractor should operate with a maximum of how many sets of trailors?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
3
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What is the rated drawbar pull range of a Navy gasoline-powered warehouse tractor?
- 1000 to 2500 - 2500 to 3000 - 3000 to 4000 - 4000 to 7500 |
4000 to 7500
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What is the towing capacity of a warehouse tratcor if it has a drawbar pull of 2600 pounds?
- 50 tons - 150 tons - 250 tons - 350 tons |
50 tons
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The caster-steering type of warehouse trailers are available in what capacity?
- 4000 pound capacity - 6000 pound capacity - both 4000 & 6000 pound capacity - 8000 pound capacity |
both 4000 & 6000 pound capacity
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In storage operations where mechanical equipment cannot be used because of space limitations, which of the following types of materials-handling equipment would be most useful?
- hand trucks - warehouse trailers - warehouse tractors - warehouse tractors and trailers |
hand trucks
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The forks of a Navy hand pallet truck can be raised what prescribed distance from the deck?
- about 1" - about 2" - about 3" - about 4" |
about 4"
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What type of hand truck would you use if you have a large number of orders to fill for small retail issues?
|
stockpicker truck
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When warehouse operations involve short hauls & frequent stops, which of the following equipment should be used to move material?
- two wheel hand cart - tractor trailer - four wheel platform hand truck - stockpicker |
four wheel platform hand truck
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The standard tiering truck used by military services has what load capacity?
- 1000 lbs - 2000 lbs - 3000 lbs - 4000 lbs |
4000 lbs
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What device is equipped with horizontal bars and is used to lift palletized loads by a crane or ship's boom?
- pallet sling - spreader bar - forklift - cargo net |
pallet sling
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What is the standard pallet size?
|
40x48 inches
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Which of the following stowage aids are used for storing odd sized items or weak containers that will not support superimposed load?
- safety pallet - horizontal dunnage - box pallet - notched spacers |
safety pallet
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Which of the following stowage aids are used for horizontal palletizing of compressed gas cylinders?
- notched spacers - pallet racks - box pallets - collars |
notched spacers
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A straddle truck is designed to handle what type of loads?
- containers equipped with skids - long and heavy loads - boxes not palletized - large rigid containers or packages |
long and heavy loads
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How many different types of drum-handling forklift truck attachments are available?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
4
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What type of drum handling forklift attachment is not used Navy wide because of installation cost?
- spaced forks with cradle drums - side rails with hooks - vacuum operative - one drum vertically operated |
vacuum operative
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Most cargo net slings are what size?
- 12' x 12' only - 14' x 14' only - 12' x 12' or 14' x 14' - 10' x 12' or 12' x 14' |
12' x 12' or 14' x 14'
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Cargo net slings are used in what type of operations?
- in general use aboard CLF ships and in UNREP operations - in ship to ship transfers - in vertical replenishment operations at sea only - in ship to ship materials-handling operations only |
in general use aboard CLF ships and in UNREP operations
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What materials-handling device having its principal application aboard the ship is used to strike down stores?
- gravity type conveyors - power-driven conveyors - chutes - rollers |
chutes
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What crane has the greatest topping distance?
|
the mobile crane with the truck chassis-mounted boom
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The most common form of gantry used on the gantry cranes is the one that has which of the following components?
- a stiff-legged derrick - a trolley running on the bridge, carrying a hoist - rotating-pillar or jib crane - a hammerhead crane mounted on its bridge |
a trolley running on the bridge, carrying a hoist
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What type of crane is particularly adapted to the transfer of cargo between the pier and a vessel?
- gantry - wharf - mobile - warehouse |
wharf
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What are the common types of dollies used by the Navy?
- general-purpose and reefer car dollies only - pallet rollers, reefer car, and general purpose dollies - reefer car, boxcar, and storeroom dollies - general-purpose, boxcar, and truck dollies |
pallet rollers, reefer car, and general purpose dollies
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When cargo is being loaded or unloaded, it should be stopped how far above the intended loading area and then guided to a safe landing?
- 1ft - 2ft - 3ft - 4ft |
1ft
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How many members should steady a draft and remove slings from it?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
4
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When cargo is being hoisted from or lowered into a hold, which of the following poistions should the hold crew take?
- take cover aft of the square of the hatch only - take cover forward of the square of the hatch only - take cover aft or forward of the square of the hatch - stand ready to assist in landing or hoisting the cargo |
take cover aft or forward of the square of the hatch
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Air shipments of material may be made on items with which of the following priority designators (PD's)
- 3 only - 8 only - 15 only - 3,8, and 15 |
3,8, and 15
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Within the Department Transportation System, air shipments normally are limited to which of the following transportation priorities (TP's)?
- Priority 1 only - Priority 2 only - Priorities 1 & 2 - Priority 3 |
Priorities 1 & 2
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Shipment documents with priority designators 01 thru 03 are assigned what transportation priority?
- Pri 1 - Pri 2 - Pri 3 - Pri 4 |
Pri 1
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Which of the following means of material delivery is provided by LOG-EX for deployed CV's
- COD - Barge - INREP - UNREP |
COD
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When authorized, government vehicles may be used to transport frieght up to what maximum number of miles?
- 15 miles - 25 miles - 50 miles - 100 miles |
100 miles
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In the USPS, what class of mail should be used to mail NMCS/PMCS items weighing over 12 ounces?
- 4th class - 3rd class - Priority - Consolidated Freight |
Priority
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Material eligible for all classes of mail, including MOM, is limited to 70 pounds or less and no more that what maximum number of inches in length and girth combined?
- 75 in - 100 in - 125 in - 200 in |
100 in
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The document identifier TX1, used on a TCMD, identifies which of the following material categories?
- hazardous - amuunition - general cargo - explosive |
general cargo
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MOM
|
military official mail
|
|
|
Navy Official Mail Management Instruction
|
OPNAVINST 5218.7
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Transportation Control and Movement Document
|
DD Form 1384
|
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|
For accounting purposes, naval activities are divided into what 2 categories?
|
shore and operating forces
|
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|
What type of work is supported by a continuing appropriation?
- maintenance of buildings - repair of office equipment - preventive maintenance on vehicles - construction of a supply building |
construction of a supply building
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|
Appropriations are placed in what order as to their status?
- current, lapsed, expired - current, expired lapsed - lapsed, current, expired - expired, lapsed, current |
current, expired lapsed
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At the end of their availability period, the unliquidated obligations of annual and/or multiple year appropriations are transferred to which of the following government agencies?
- treasury - DOD - DON - Civil defense |
treasury
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The 3rd digit in the appropriation symbol on an accounting document covering charges and credits to funds provides which of the following items of info?
- type of fund - fiscal year - particular fund - department administering the fund |
fiscal year
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|
|
The 1st two digits of symblow 17X4911 indicate that the appropriation is administered by which of the following agencies?
- DOD - comptroller of the US - bureau of Naval personnel - DON |
DON
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The letter "X" in the appropriation symbol 17X1832 provides what specific info?
- bureau or office to which the appropriation is assigned - government department administering the appropriation - no fiscal year limitations - specific purpose of appropriation within a bureau or office |
no fiscal year limitations
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The systems command that administers a Navy appropriation is indicated in the accounting code by which of the following sets of digits?
- the 1st 6 digits - 1st two digits of the appropriation number subhead - last 3 digits of the fund symbol - 1st two digits of the appropriation number |
1st two digits of the appropriation number subhead
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What type of fund is reimbursed in an amount equal to each expenditure?
- trust - general - special - revolving |
revolving
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|
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What fund is used to procure stocks of common supply items carried in the Navy Stock Account (NSA)?
- navy industrial fund - naval working fund - defense working capital fund - navy management fund |
defense working capital fund
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Within the Navy, control of the DWCF is the responsibility of which of the following individuals?
- CNO - Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command - SECNAV - SECDEF |
Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
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|
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Who assigns UIC's within the DON?
|
Comptroller of the Navy
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|
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In which publication are all UIC's listed?
|
NAVCOMPT Manual Vol II
|
|
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Which of the following symbols represents the Defense Business Operations Fund?
- 17X4912 - 17X4888 - 17X4911 - 1711804 |
17X4911
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What is the inventory account title for material purchased by the DBOF and held until needed by a Navy customer?
- Navy Stores Account - Navy Stock Account - Appropriation Purchase Account - Stores Inventory Account |
Navy Stock Account
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Which of the following funds is a revolving fund used to finance commercial-type activities, such as naval shipyard?
- Naval Working Fund - Navy Industrial Fund - Navy Management Fund - Navy Capital Fund |
Navy Industrial Fund
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The Navy is involved in improving a runway of a british airfield. The cost will be charged to which of the following funds?
- Defense Business Operations - Navy Industrial - Naval Working - Navy Management |
Naval Working
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A special short time program financed by several bureau appropriations should be financed by which of the following funds?
- Naval Working Fund - Navy Management Fund - Navy Stock Fund - Special Project Fund |
Navy Management Fund
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What funds are credited for money spent by the Navy memebrs procuring items from the ship's store of a naval vessel?
- General Fund of the Treasury & Navy Management Fund - DBOF & Ships Store Profits, Navy - Ship's Store Profits Fund & Naval Working Fund - Navy Management Fund & Navy Capital Fund |
DBOF & Ships Store Profits, Navy
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|
|
The Navy Ship's Store Profit's Fund is what type of fund?
- trust - deposit - revolving - management |
trust
|
|
|
Object class codes are used in what type of transactions?
- all OPTAR transactions - all transactions that do not affect the international balance of payments - only OPTAR transactions which affect the international balance of payments - only transactions other than OPTAR transactions |
only OPTAR transactions which affect the international balance of payments
|
|
|
What previously assigned code is always used as the operating budget number?
- UIC - budget suffix code - operating budget grant code - service designator code |
UIC
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|
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AAA
|
Authorized Accounting Activity
|
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|
In connection with operating force OPTAR accounting, the authorized accountign activity (AAA) is the UIC of the appropriate DFAS
T/F? |
True
|
|
|
Responsibility for assigning accurate unit identification code on requisitions rests with which of the following organizations?
- Navy Finance Center - Naval Supply Center - preparing activity - shipping activity |
preparing activity
|
|
|
Appropriated funds are made available at the operating level in what forms?
- appropriations or warrants - apportionments or allotments - operating budgets - allotments or suballotments |
operating budgets
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|
Which of the following operating budget numbers will be shown on an invoice for fuel transferred from a fleet oiler to a destroyer in the pacific?
- 00004 - 57070F - 00070F - 00070 |
00070F
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|
|
CINCPACFLT's operating budgets for ship repair and for fuel are identified by budget suffix codes R & F?
T/F? |
False
|
|
|
In which of the following OPTAR transactions should an object class code be indicated on each document?
- when material is transferred between type commands - whe the transaction affected the international balance of payments - when an issue for end use is made - when material is transferred within the same type of command |
whe the transaction affected the international balance of payments
|
|
|
CINCPACFLT receives two operating bidgets. Which of the following codes is used to identify each budget?
- a budget suffix code assigned by the CNO - a budget suffix code assigned by CINCPACFLT - Either 1 or 2 - A budget suffix code assigned by COMNAVSURFPAC |
A budget suffix code assigned by COMNAVSURFPAC
|
|
|
The cost code shown on a requisition consists of which of the following elements?
- two zeros, uic, and appropriation - two zeros, julian date, uic, and fund code - two zeros, fund code, and appropriator - two zeros, julian date, serial number, and fund code |
two zeros, julian date, serial number, and fund code
|
|
|
The position of a resource manager can only be held by a military person
T/F? |
False
|
|
|
For aviation funds accounting purposes, squadrons are referred to as:
- field activities - major claimants - avaition operating forces - accounting and disbursing centers |
avaition operating forces
|
|
|
The budgeted amount within an operating budget approved in a fixed amount for incurring obligations or unfilled orders is called a/an?
- obligation authority - exspense limitation - unfilled order - work unit |
obligation authority
|
|
|
Which of the following commands or activities are not included in ship operating forces?
- active fleet ships - all shore activities - amphibious battalions - staff & commands |
all shore activities
|
|
|
Unfilled order chargeable documents are assembled and forwarded to what official or activity by the OPTAR holder?
- TYCOM - NAVAIR - DFAS - CNo |
DFAS
|
|
|
Of the four subsystems that make up the Resource Management System (RMS), an LS would be most concerned with which one?
- programming and budgeting - management of resources for operating units - management of inventory and similar assets - management of aquisition, use, and disposition of capital assets |
management of resources for operating units
|
|
|
Under the RMS management procedures, which of the following steps should you do first?
- budgeting - reporting - planning - accounting |
planning
|
|
|
The development of resource requirements, administration of available funds, and continuous analysis of the status of OPTAR's issued is the responsibility of what command?
- TYCOM - DFAS - CNO - NAVICP |
TYCOM
|
|
|
What pub governs the OPTAR?
|
NAVSO P-3013-2
|
|
|
The NWCF is reimbursed when material is requisitioned for use by charging the customer's...
- imprest fund - expense element - DBOF - OPTAR |
OPTAR
|
|
|
When SUADPS-RT activities requisition material for stock or direct turnover they use NSF money by citing what fund code?
- 26 - Y6 - SAC 203 - SAC 207 |
SAC 207
|
|
|
The responsibility for formal accounting by the Navy Operating Forces is to be ashore?
T/F? |
True
|
|
|
All but which of the following SUADPS-RT activities receive supplies and equippage (S&E) OPTAR grants to cover the operation and maintenance of the activity?
- aircraft carriers - amphibious assault ships - repair tenders - marine air groups (MAG) |
MAG
|
|
|
Under OPTAR accounting procedures, what dollar value currently is considered the threshold amount?
- $25 - $50 - $100 - $150 |
$100
|
|
|
What type of OPTAR, if any, is exempt from the threshold concept?
- AOM - reimbursable - nonreimbursable - none |
reimbursable
|
|
|
Whihc of the following codes is not considered as one of the nine data fields of a complete line or accounting data?
- uic - country - subhead - object class |
country
|
|
|
Fund codes and accounting classifications for use by Operating Forces are contained in what appendix of NAVSO P-3013
- I - II - III - IV |
II
|
|
|
What form is used to record OPTAR grants?
- NAVCOMPT 2155 - NAVCOMPT 2156 - NAVCOMPT 2157 - NAVCOMPT 2206 |
NAVCOMPT 2155
|
|
|
Underway replenishments requisitions should be maintained in what OPTAR holding file?
- file 1 - file 2 - file 3 - file 4 |
file 1
|
|
|
OPTAR holders operating under SUADPS procedures should submit an OPTAR Document Transmittal Report to the DFAS for current fiscal year OPTAR's on what day?
- 1st of each month only - 1st & 15th of each month - last day of each month only - 15th & last day of each month |
last day of each month only
|
|
|
A message Budget/OPTAR Report, NAVCOMPT Form 2157, is submitted to the DFAS no later than what day of the month following the end of the month being reported?
- 1st - 2nd - 15th - Last |
1st
|
|
|
What process results in the production of listings that provide a report of transactions
affecting the OPTAR holders' funds? - transmittal - summary - reconciliation - requisition |
reconciliation
|
|
|
The Unmatched Expenditure Listings are received how often
- as required - weekly - monthly - quarterly |
quarterly
|
|
|
What listing is retained by the DFAS for backup purposes only?
- unmatched expenditures - detail filled order/expenditure - summary filled order/expenditure - aged unfilled order |
detail filled order/expenditure
|
|
|
File 2 of the OPTAR holding files consists of what?
|
Unfilled Order Cancellation Documents/ Lists for Transmittal
|
|
|
NAVCOMPT Form 2157
|
Budget OPTAR Report
|
|
|
NAVCOMPT Form 2156
|
Document Transmittal Report
|
|
|
Differences of what minimum dollar amount are manually researched by the DFAS before being reported to the OPTAR holder?
- $500 - $1,000 - $2,000 - $3,000 |
3K
|
|
|
Unfilled orders that have not matched with related expenditure documents will appear on the Unfilled Order Listing after what minimum number of days?
- 30 - 60 - 120 - 180 |
120
|
|
|
The Unmatched Expenditure Listing itemizes every expenditure document regardless of amount
T/F? |
True
|
|
|
Through positive control and reporting procedures, maintenance and supply personnel can improve what aspect of repairable management?
- documentation time - turnaround time - allowance procedures - requisition procedures |
turnaround time
|
|
|
A material control cente is NOT responsible for which of the following actions?
- delivering retrograde material to the SSC - establishing delivery & pick up points - preparing surveys - performing OPTAR accounting |
delivering retrograde material to the SSC
|
|
|
The material control LS is responsible for ensuring that material receipts are processed in what manner?
- held until billing has cleared - expeditiously routed to the ordering workcenter - accuulated for processing the day - held until needed by the ordering workcenter |
expeditiously routed to the ordering workcenter
|
|
|
In an aviation community, wha activity is responsible for establishing the pickup and delivery points for materials?
- the maintenance activity only - supply activity only - the maintenance & supply activities - the commanding officer of the supporting activity |
the maintenance & supply activities
|
|
|
What record provide continuous chain of accountability of specific aircraft equipment and material?
- AIR - ICRL - IMRL - CRIPL |
AIR
|
|
|
The AIR is prepared and delivered with the aircraft by what source?
- TYCOM - Air Wing Commander - supply department head - aircraft manufacturer |
aircraft manufacturer
|
|
|
Shortages n the AIR are listd on what form?
- OPNAV Form 4790/104 - OPNAV Form 4790/112 - OPNAV Form 4790/111 - OPNAV Form 4790/109 |
OPNAV Form 4790/112
|
|
|
The transferring activity retains what copy of the shortage form?
- original - 2nd - 3rd - 4th |
original
|
|
|
The receiving activity should submit a list of shortages that do not appear on the AIR within what number of working days?
- 5 - 10 - 20 - 30 |
10
|
|
|
Authority for transferring aircraft with shortages must be obtained from what activity of individual?
- NAVICP - NAMO - NAVAIR - ACC/TYCOM |
ACC/TYCOM
|
|
|
To requisition repair parts for in-plane servicing at a Navy activity, a pilot uses what form?
- SF 44 - DD Form 1348-6 - DD Form 1348(6pt) - SF 1155 |
DD Form 1348(6pt)
|
|
|
Which of the following items is NOT contained in a flight packet?
- insructions for safeguarding - SF 95 - SF 94 - SF 93 |
SF 93
|
|
|
A pilot using a DD Form 1348(6pt) should ge instructions from his/her CO is the purchase at a non-Navy activity exceeds what threshold amount?
- 2,500 - 3,000 - 10,000 - 25,000 |
2,500
|
|
|
What copies of the 1348(6pt) should the pilot turn into MATCON if he purchases material on his flight?
- yellow & white - white & hardback - pink & yellow - green & hardback |
green & hardback
|
|
|
Upon receiving the completed 1348(6pt) from the pilot MATCON places what copy into the OPTAR holding file 1?
- hardback copy - yellow copy - green copy - white copy |
green copy
|
|
|
What form is the AVFUELS INTO-PLANE CONTRACT SALES SLIP?
- DD Form 1994 - DD Form 1898 - DD Form 1897 - DD Form 1896 |
DD Form 1898
|
|
|
A pilot returning from flight is responsible for submitting the completed refueling slip into what officer?
- OPSO - ADMIN O - MATCON O - Maintenance O |
OPSO
|
|
|
MESM
|
Mission Essential Subsystem Matrix
|
|
|
Which of the following functions is performed by "I" level MATCON?
- verifying work stoppage requisitions - flight operations OPTAR accounting - verifying AWP status - verifying AWP req's |
verifying work stoppage requisitions
|
|
|
The AIMD MATCON workcenter returns items t CCS that are in what condition?
- locally repairable RFI items only - Non-RFI components certified BCM - locally repairable RFI items & non-RFI components certified BCM - properly preserved items |
locally repairable RFI items & non-RFI components certified BCM
|
|
|
Whether RFI or NON-RFI, all components received by AIMD material control are processed through what element of maintenance department?
- production control division - repairable management screening unit - aeronautical material screening unit - component control section |
aeronautical material screening unit
(AMSU) |
|
|
What copy of the VIDS/MAF is signed by AMSU personnel to signify that a component was received?
- copy 1 - copy 2 - copy 3 - copy 4 |
copy 2
|
|
|
What tool is used by AMSU to ensure that a component is within repair capablities of AIMD?
- CRIPL - IMRL - AMMRL - ICRL |
ICRL
|
|
|
Routing of components for check, test, or repair to the appropriate work center is the responsibility of?
- AMSU - CCS - SSC - RMS |
AMSU
|
|
|
Repair capability data on components processed by AIMD is contained in the ICRL. What is this based on?
- future requirements - past experience - pool requirements - operational support inventories |
past experience
|
|
|
Repair capabilities contained in the master data bank is based soley on information provided by what type of activity?
- operating squadrons - local supply activities - O level activities - I level maintenance activities |
I level maintenance activities
|
|
|
When making changes to the ICRL, it should be done on what form?
- NAVSUP Form 1364 - NAVSUP Form 1365 - OPNAV Form 4790/11 - SF 364 |
NAVSUP Form 1364
|
|
|
NALCOMIS is basically what type of system?
- information system - aviation programs system - personal computer system - automated directive system |
information system
|
|
|
What are the primary input devices for NALCOMIS?
- magnetic tape drives - computer terminals - host computer systems - bar-coded readers |
computer terminals
|
|
|
The user's ability to access, add, modify, or delete info in a specific NALCOMIS transaction is determined by what data?
- PQS - SMQ - NEC - FAQ |
"SMQ"
Special Maintenance Qual |
|
|
Which of the following training manuals describes the organization of the aviation maintenance departments?
- seaman - airman - customer service manual - human behavior & leadership |
airman
|
|
|
Material is required by maintenance to repair a weapons system that is documented on a MAF. This is known is what type of requirement?
- direct support - indirect support - direct delivery - supply support |
direct support
|
|
|
The organizational code, used as part of the JCN, contains what total number of parts?
- 5 - 3 - 2 - 4 |
3
|
|
|
What 4-character code identifies the end item or category of equipment that is being worked on by maintenance?
- advice code - project code - fund code - type equipment code |
TEC
|
|
|
What code identifies the system, subsystem or component?
- work unit code - fund code - project code - purpose code |
WUC
|
|
|
When a need is determined, phase maintenance kits are built based on the material requirements listed in which of the following sources of maintenance information?
- SRC - MRC - EHR - MAF |
MRC
|
|
|
Which of the following items are not authorized in phase maintenance kits?
- consumable items - PEB items - AVDLR items - shelf-life items |
AVDLR items
|
|
|
How long must documents be retained in the requisition completed file?
|
3 years
|
|
|
What OPNAV INST is used to describe the responsibilities and procedures for the CRIPL?
- 4440.25 - 4441.23 - 4440.26 - 4441.24 |
4440.25
|
|
|
What OPTAR holding file contains a list of confirmed casncellations that need to be submitted to DFAS?
- file 1 - file 2 - file 3 - file 4 |
file 2
|
|
|
Aviation squadrons should turn in defective material for EI or QDR to what location?
- ATAC hub - ASD - FISC - NAVICP |
ASD
|
|
|
If EI or QDR disposition insrtuctions for defective material are not received within 30 days, what activity is responsible for submitting a request for the disposition instructions to the CFA?
- air wing - TYCOM - supporting ASD - supporting AIMD |
supporting AIMD
|
|
|
A portion of the OPTAR is issued to an aviation squadron every quarter by whom?
- squadrons TYCOM - air wing commander - supporting supply officer - CO of the supporting activity |
squadrons TYCOM
|
|
|
The flight operations fund(OFC-01) is assigned what OPTAR functional category?
- 01 - 05 - 10 - 50 |
01
|
|
|
What OPTAR functional category is assigned the Aviation Operation Maintenance (AOM) Fund?
- 01 - 05 - 10 - 50 |
50
|
|
|
Which of the following transactions should be charged to the OPTAR (OFC-01) fund?
- issue of PEB items - safety shoes bought for use by personnel in the readiness,launch and recovery of aircraft - aviation fuel used to test and check aircraft engines in the IMA - replacement of loose equipment included in the AIR |
safety shoes bought for use by personnel in the readiness,launch and recovery of aircraft
|
|
|
What fund is used to buy the supplies and services needed in direct support of aviation maintenance?
- OPTAR (OFC-01) - NWCF - AOM - Revolving |
AOM
|
|
|
OPTAR holding file 1 contains all of the following items except...
- the green copy of the dd form 1348(6pt) - the requisitions of APA material - dd form 1149 - sf form 44 |
the requisitions of APA material
|
|
|
Transmittal reports for current fiscal year must be submitted to DFAS at least how often?
- once a month - twice a month - quarterly - annually |
twice a month
|
|
|
The Budget OPTAR Report (BOR) must be submitted to DFAS by what time?
- not later than the end of the month being reported - on the first calendar day of the month following the month to be reported - not later than the second work day of the proceeding month - not later than the first work day of the month to be reported |
on the first calendar day of the month following the month to be reported
|
|
|
The requisition OPTAR log should be balanced before what form is submitted to DFAS?
- DD form 1348 (6pt) - NAVCOMPT Form 2156 - NAVCOMPT Form 2157 - SF 44 |
NAVCOMPT Form 2157
|
|
|
The BOR for the fiscal year before last (prior 2 years) should be submitted at least how often?
- monthly - quarterly - annually - only for months in which there was a change in the gross obligations |
only for months in which there was a change in the gross obligations
|
|
|
All individual OPTAR holders receive the SFOEDL from which of the following sources?
- TYCOM - DFAS - NAMO - CNO |
DFAS
|
|
|
The SFOEDL is distributed on a monthly basis up to what maximum number of report months?
- 21 - 23 - 24 - 30 |
24
|
|
|
For procedures on the SFOEDL you should refer to what manual?
|
NAVSO P-3013-2
|
|
|
A requisition will be listed on the UOL if it remains unfilled for at least how long?
- 1 month - 2 months - 3 months - 4 months |
3 months
|
|
|
TCPL
|
Tool Control PLan
|
|
|
NAVAIR coordinates the development of the TCPL for a new model aircraft that is introduced to the fleet with what activity?
- NAVSUP - Cognizant wing - Naval Supply Center - Defense Accounting Office |
Cognizant wing
|
|
|
What overall program provides the data required for effective management of support equipment?
- NAMP - IMRL - AMMRL - LAP |
AMMRL
|
|
|
AMMRL
|
Aircraft Material Maintenance Readiness List
|
|
|
What list contains the authorized quantities of support equipment items required by an activity to perform its assigned maintenance level functions?
- AMMRL - IMRL - ICRL - CRIPL |
IMRL
|
|
|
SERMIS
|
Support Equipment Resources Management Information System
|
|
|
TO find info about data specifications for SE as it applies to a particular intermediate or organizational maintenance level, you should refer to which of the following lists?
- AMMRL - IMRL - ICRL - SERMIS |
SERMIS
|
|
|
IMRL listings are divided into what total number of sections?
- 2 - 3 - 4 - 5 |
5
|
|
|
If an item is not subject to periodic calibration, what entry, if any, should you make in the CAL CODE column?
- C - P - T - none |
none
|
|
|
What entry, if any, should you make in the P/P column to show that the item is available for subcustody basis from the supporting AIMD/IMA?
- E - P - L - none |
L
|
|
|
What does pre-position code "E" in the P/P column indicate?
- the item is available on a subcustody basis from the AIMD - the item is calibratable at the organizational level - the item is available on a "required basis" - the item is not otherwise pre-positioned |
the item is available on a "required basis"
|
|
|
The IMRL manager is directly responsible to which of the following officers for the management of the IMRL?
- maintenance officer - SUPPO - material control officer - production control officer |
material control officer
|
|
|
At what interval should the IMRL manager conduct a physical inventory?
- monthly - quarterly - semiannually - annualy |
annually
|
|
|
What form should the IMRL activities use for SE transaction reporting?
- OPNAV Form 4790/60 - OPNAV Form 4790/64 - OPNAV Form 4790/62 - OPNAV Form 4790/68 |
OPNAV Form 4790/64
|
|
|
For validations and reference purposes on NALCOMIS input transactions, output reports, and screen displays, what type of data elements are used?
- abbreviated - laminated - dynamic - static |
static
|
|
|
Dynamic data elements are added to NALCOMIS records in which of the following ways?
- by personnel downloading the change notice tapes only - by the supply officer during initial installation of the system only - by the system coordinator on a monthly basis - by all authorized personnel during normal operations and on-line transaction processing |
by all authorized personnel during normal operations and on-line transaction processin
|
|
|
The meetings between supply and maintenance representatives to discuss high priority requisitions should be held at least how often?
- annually - quarterly - monthly - weekly |
weekly
|
|
|
Which of the following items is not a special material management program?
- AVDLR - ATAC DLR - IRIM - NWCF |
NWCF
|
|
|
Under the fixed allowance concept, additions to the allowance must be authorized by what activity?
- IMA - ICP - FISC - NAVSUP |
ICP
|
|
|
Requisitions for AVDLR items may be passed off station if the NSN of the item is contained in what listing?
- IMRL - CRIPL - NMCS/PMCS - ML-C |
CRIPL
|
|
|
What record type code identifies RFI components received from AIMD?
- 60 - 61 - 62 - 63 |
63
|
|
|
WHat record Type code material issues?
- 60 - 61 - 62 - 63 |
60
|
|
|
What record Type code identifies NRFI components received from AIMD?
- 60 - 61 - 62 - 63 |
63
|
|
|
What material report is produced in WUC sequence and contains information on AVDLR items?
- MR-1-1 - MR-1-2 - MR-2-1 - MR-2-2 |
MR-1-1
|
|
|
Which of the following reports is used to review the usage data of consumable items so tht stock levels my be set?
- MR-1-1 - MR-2-1 - MR-1-2 - MR-1-3 |
MR-2-1
|
|
|
Which of the following functions is not the responsibility of an ASD/SSC?
- receiving requisitions for material in support of weapon systems maintenance - delivering material to customers - maintaining LRCA storage areas - Expediting requisitions for wholesale stock replenishment |
Expediting requisitions for wholesale stock replenishment
|
|
|
In reference to response standards, the response time starts when what event occurs?
- when maintenance discovers the need for the material? - when the requirement is placed in the ASD/SSC - when the customer receives the supply status - when the material is delivered to the customer |
when the requirement is placed in the ASD/SSC
|
|
|
In reference to response standards, the response time stops when what events occurs?
- when maintenance completes the installation of the item - when the issue transaction is posted in the stock records - when the material or status is received by the customer - when the material is ready for delivery |
when the material or status is received by the customer
|
|
|
Wht document contains the repair capability data on repairable items previously processed by the IMA?
- CRIPL - R-POOL - SFOEDL - ICRL |
ICRL
|
|
|
In an aviation community, what area serves as the point of contact for the supplies and services needed to support aircraft maintenance?
- servmart - asd/ssc - aimd - nadep |
asd/ssc
|
|
|
The SRS of the ASD/SSC consists of how many units?
- 7 - 6 - 5 - 4 |
5
|
|
|
The programs management unit is directly under what supply department section or unit?
- TRU - SRS - SSU - CCS |
SRS
|
|
|
What section is responsible for managing pre-extended bins?
- CCS - AMSU - SRS - RCU |
SRS
|
|
|
The SRS consists of what sections?
|
RCU, TRU, MDU, PEB, PMU
|
|
|
When MDU delivers an AVDLR item to the squadron, what data in the requisition informs MDU that an immediate turn-in will not be available for pick-up?
- advice code (5G) - ZA9 - AK0 - Y6 |
ZA9
|
|
|
Which of the following forms is used by NALCOMIS activities as an issue document?
- DD Form 1149 - SF 44 - DD Form 1348-1 - DD Form 1348-6 |
DD Form 1348-1
|
|
|
Items subject to pilferage should be stored in the PEB in what manner?
- In open bins for easy access to cutomers - In an enclosure accessible only to authorized personnel - In an enclosure accessible to all customers - In an confidential storeroom |
In an enclosure accessible only to authorized personnel
|
|
|
To be included in the PEB,an item must be maintenance related and have what minimum demand frequency per month?
- 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 |
3
|
|
|
What unit of the SRS is responsible for verification of technical data?
- RCU - TRU - MDU - SLU |
TRU
|
|
|
What copy or copies of the DD Form 1348 should material control sign for repairable?
- yellow only - hardback only - green and hardback only - original, green and hardback |
original, green and hardback
|
|
|
What copy of the DD Form 1348 does the customer receive as proof of turn-in?
- pink - yellow - green - hardback |
pink
|
|
|
Eligible material with unit costs over $150 can be included in the PEB when authorized by which of the following officials?
- SUPPO - CO - TYCOM - CNO |
CO
|
|
|
The quantity of each item pre-extended may not exceed an estimated supply of what number of days?
- 30 days - 60 days - 90 days - 120 days |
30 days
|
|
|
Stock records for PEB items should be reviewed how often?
- daily - weekly - monthly - quarterly |
quarterly
|
|
|
As minimum, a PEB item should be purged if it had no demand for what total number of months?
- 10 months - 12 months - 14 months - 18 months |
12 months
|
|
|
What unit of the supply department provides the daily status for all NMCS/PMCS requirements?
- SRS - TRU - CCS - PMU |
PMU
|
|
|
Continuous reconciliation of outstanding high priority requisitions between supply and maintenance activities is the responsibility of what SRS unit?
- PMU - TRU - SRS - DCU |
PMU
|
|
|
Cancellation requests for issue groups 1 & 2 requisitions that were passed off-station are processed by what ASD/SSC unit?
- SLU - SSU - TRU - PMU |
PMU
|
|
|
What section of the supply department is responsible for performing inventory control over all repairable assets stored in the LCRA storage areas?
- SRS - CCS - PMU - AMSU |
CCS
|
|
|
Which of the following units is not under the CCS?
- supply screening - peb - document control - awaiting parts |
peb
|
|
|
If a component requisition is made, TRU checks which of the following lists to see if it is a remain-in place item?
- ICRL - CRIPL - IMRL - AMMRL |
CRIPL
|
|
|
The DCU is responsible for rotatable pool components?
T/F? |
False
|
|
|
What unit of the CCS is responsible for all repairable assets under the control of the SSC?
- LRCA - AWP - DCU - SSU |
LRCA
|
|
|
The procedures for establishment of retail requirement levels of consumable and repairable items afloat are contained in what instruction?
- OPNAVINST 4790.2 - NAVSUPINST 4440.115 - FASOINST 4440.15 - OPNAVINST 5510.1 |
FASOINST 4440.15
|
|
|
Rotatable pools are part of what unit?
- LRCA - AWP - SSU - RCU |
LRCA
|
|
|
What organization may authorize a redistribution of the OSI/fixed allowance assets of aviation items stocked by an activity?
- NAS - FISC - NAVICP - NAVSUP |
NAVICP
|
|
|
Redistribution of the aviation OSI/fixed allowance assets of an activity can be ordered by an ICP to fill requisitions with what issue priority?
- Pri 1 - Pri 2 - Pri 3 - Pri 4 |
Pri 1
|
|
|
What NAVSUP form is used to request changes in the fixed allowance of NAVICP-P managed items?
- 766 - 801 - 1250 - 1375 |
1375
|
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|
When the constrained TAT is computed for allowances, what maximum time is allowed for AWP?
- 10 days - 15 days - 20 days - 30 days |
20 days
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What ASD/SSC unit is responsible for processing all repairable items returned from the IMA?
- MDU - PEB - SSU - SLU |
SSU
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When computing a fixed allowance, the total average turn-around time is limited to a maximum of how many constrained days?
- 5 - 7 - 10 - 20 |
20
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Where practical, items designated movement priority designator 03 should be retained awaiting shipment by SSU no londer that what period of time?
- 1 workday - 2 workdays - 3 workdays - 1/2 workdays |
1/2 workdays
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FLR's have an SM&R code that limits their restoration to RFI in what level of maintenance?
- organizational - intermediate - depot - contact support |
intermediate
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The ASD/SSC is holding an EI/QDR exhibit awaiting disposition instructions. According to the NAMP, what maximum number of days should ASD/SSC hold the exhibit before performing the next action?
- 7 days - 15 days - 20 days - 30 days |
30 days
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The material for and EI/QDR exhibit is assigned what condition code?
- A - F - L - H |
L
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The shipping documents for material exhibit must be stamped with "EI" or "QDR". What is the prescribed size of the lettering?
- 1 in - 2 in - 3 in - 4 in |
3 in
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What ASD/SSC unit is responsible for receiving, storing, and controlling all components returned from IMA needing repair parts?
- SLU - DCU - SSU - AWP |
AWP
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For effective AWP management, what minimum standard accuracy rate of outstanding req's and requisition inventory records must be maintained through weekly reviews?
- 85% - 95% - 98% - 100% |
98%
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Supply & maintenance personnel must review the AWP when the number of components on hand exceeds what percent of average monthly IMA inductions?
- 25% - 20% - 15% - 10% |
15%
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What of the following statements describes a function of the AWP unit?
- it establishes holding areas for AWP units - it establishes staging areas for AWP components - both 1 & 2 - it maintains liason with SSC |
both 1 & 2
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What form is used to request depot customer service?
- dd form 1348-1 - opnav 4790/36a - dd form 200 - sf 44 |
opnav 4790/36a
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What sections fall with the CCS?
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DCU, LRCA, SSU, AWP
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Which of the following activities are responsible for computing the onboard repair part and equipage requirements?
- TYCOM - Air wings - NEC's - ICP's |
ICP's
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What office or command prepares the AVCAL?
- NAVICP - SPCC - NAMO - NAVAIR |
NAVICP
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Which of the following allowance lists prepared by NAVICP contains repairable items and subassemblies required by shore stations?
- COSAL - COSBAL - AVCAL - SHORCAL |
SHORCAL
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Weapons system support under the OSI/fixed allowance concept is outlined in which of the following instructions?
- FASOINST 4441.5 - FASOINST 4441.16 - SECNAVINST 5212.5 - SECNAVINST 4215.1 |
FASOINST 4441.16
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ACR-F should be submitted on which of the following forms?
- dd form 1348 - dd form 1384 - NAVSUP form 1375 - OPNAV form 4790/60 |
navsup form 1375
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The system developed to meet the need for a more effective means of recording, reporting, and evaluating the maintenance requirement of the fleet was which of the following systems?
- AMS - IMS - 3-M System - MDS |
3-M System
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Cognizant commands can determine where maintenance man-hours and materials are being used and evaluate the performance of equipment by using which of the following systems?
- MDS - IEM - PMS - IMMS |
MDS
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3-M
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Maintenance and Material Management
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The 3-M Systems include which of the following systems designed for maintenance management?
- planned maintenance system - maintenance data system - both 1 & 2 - supply maintenance systems |
both 1 & 2
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What instruction covers the 3-M System?
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OPNAVINST 4790.4
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All maintenance actions on documented on which of the following forms?
- NAVSUP Form 1250-1 - DD Form 1348 - OPNAVINST 4790 - Maintenance Data Form |
Maintenance Data Form
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EIC
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Equipment Identification Code
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A seven-digit alphanumeric code that identifies a specific hardware item from the highest to the lowest level is known by what term?
- NICN - EIC - MDS - CAGE Code |
EIC
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Which of the following documents identify a specific item of equipment?
- allowance parts list only - allowance equipage list only - both allowance parts list & allowance equipage list - table of allowances |
both allowance parts list & allowance equipage list
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What is the purpose of a source code?
- to identify a piece of equipment - to show the price of material - assist in the evaluation of supply storeroom support - to let the LS know where the material should be stored |
assist in the evaluation of supply storeroom support
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The code that identifies each maintenance action to ship on which or for which it was performed is which of the following codes?
- UIC - SSIC - NSN - PMS |
UIC
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Consumption data and machine calculated stocking limits are provided by which of the following documents?
- allowance repair list - cosal - selected item managemnt (SIM) Item Identification Listing -Table of Allowances |
selected item managemnt (SIM) Item Identification Listing
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Which of the following, if any, is an advantage of the use of pre-extended bin material?
- material is cheaper - material is easy to purchase - material permits more realistic reporting - there is no advantage to using the material |
material permits more realistic reporting
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Green copies of either the NAVSUP Form 1250-1 or DD Form 1348 are sent for verification of MDS data to which of the following persons?
- leading LS - SUPPO - Leading CPO - Maintenance Officer |
Maintenance Officer
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The Naval Mobile Construction Battalion (NMCB) constructs advanced base facilities in support of which of the following armed services?
- Navy - Marine Corps - Armed services engaged in military operations - All of the above |
All of the above
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In operations other than war, NMCB's are involved in which of the following operations?
- peacekeeping - humanitarian assistance - civic action - each of the above |
each of the above
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In support of the Area of Force Commander, an NMCB may operate as which of the following, if any, elements?
- single NCF - as part of NCR - both 1 & 2 - it cannot operate as an element by itself |
both 1 & 2
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Naval Construction Forces are under the control of which of the following persons?
- CNO - SECDEF - Commandant of the Marine Corps - SECNAV |
CNO
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Who exercises command or operational and administrative control of the NCF units?
- Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets - CNO - TYCOM - Naval Constructions Brigades |
Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets
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Who falls under the Fleet Commanders, and commands all the ships or units of a certain type?
- Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets - CNO - TYCOM - Naval Constructions Brigades |
TYCOM
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Who ensures that the NMCB deployments and assigned projects follow CNO policies?
- Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets - CNO - TYCOM - Naval Constructions Brigades |
Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets
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Who has both operational and administrative control of Construction Battalion Units?
- Commander-in Chief of the Atlantic & Pacific Fleets - CNO - TYCOM - Naval Constructions Brigades |
Naval Constructions Brigades
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Who assist camp and detail sites in supply and logistic functions?
- Naval Construction Regiments - Naval Construction Battalion Centers - Seabee Logisitics Center - Logisitic Representative |
Logisitic Representative
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Shore stations equipped and staffed to support the Naval Construction Force?
- Naval Construction Regiments - Naval Construction Battalion Centers - Seabee Logisitics Center - Logisitic Representative |
Naval Construction Battalion Centers
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Provides services in the area of planning and analysis, program management, and material and equipment managements?
- Naval Construction Regiments - Naval Construction Battalion Centers - Seabee Logisitics Center - Logisitic Representative |
Seabee Logisitics Center
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Provides command, administrative and operational control of two or more NCB's as assigned?
- Naval Construction Regiments - Naval Construction Battalion Centers - Seabee Logistics Center - Logisitic Representatives |
Naval Construction Regiments
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Which of the following organizations provide command, operational, and administrative control and logisitics guidance to assigned NCF components?
- 2nd Naval Construction Brigade - 3rd Naval Construction Brigade - both 1 & 2 - Naval Facililties Engineering Command |
both 1 & 2
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Which of the following organizations provide training schools for NMCB personnel?
- Seabee Logistics Centers - Naval Construction Training Centers - Civil Engineer Corps Officers School - Naval Facilities Engineering Command |
Naval Construction Training Centers
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LS's assigned to battalions will most likely be assigned to which of the following divisions?
- stores division - operations division - construction division - administrative division |
stores division
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The Automotive/Construction Equipment Repair Parts Storeroom is responsible for which of the following areas?
- receipt storage - issue - inventory control of all CESE repair parts and technical manuals - all of the above |
all of the above
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Electronics, communications, weapons repair parts, office supplies, forms, and consumables material are located in which of the following areas?
- automotive repair parts outlet - centrol toolroom outlet - central storeroom - camouflage utility uniform |
central storeroom
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The responsibility for hardware supplies and replacement parts for camp facilities and equipment is a function of which of the following areas?
- military liason office - camp maintenance storeroom - central storeroom - central toolroom outlet |
camp maintenance storeroom
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The S-4 officer is detailed as the senior officer of the Supply Corps by which of the following persons?
- CNO - SECNAV - Cheif of Naval Personnel - Battalion Commanding Officer |
Cheif of Naval Personnel
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Which of the following are general duties of the S-4 officer?
- obtain, issue and account for all materials contained in the NMCB TOA - manage budget preparations and administer project funds - operate and enlisted dining facility and wardroom - all of the above |
all of the above
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The S-4A officer of the battalion supply corps has which, if any, of the following as his/her primary duty?
- food services & ships service officer - disbursing officer - both 1 & 2 - none of the above |
both 1 & 2
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The supply officers monthly report is submitted to the CO by which of the following days of the month?
- 10th - 15th - 25th - 30th |
10th
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A collateral duty of an officer or senior enlisted member in the supply ratings is which of the following?
- OOD - Admin officer - supply department military division officer - duty officer |
supply department military division officer
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The supply publications are maintained by which of the following offices?
- S-2 - S-3 - S-4A - S-4 |
S-4
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The effectiveness of deployed battalions is directly related to the proper provisioning, completeness and technical adequacy of which of the following documents?
- TOA - repair parts list - NAVSO P-3013-2 - NAVCOMPT 2168 |
TOA
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When battalion is operating at full compliment and not deployed to an established base, who normally serves as Disbursing Officer?
- S-4 - LS's - junior officer, supply corps - PS's |
junior officer, supply corps
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A Temporary Control Number is assigned for which, if any, of the following reasons?
- to permit item entry into the CBC/CESO systems pending the assignment of an NSN - when the item is from a foreign source - at the request of the SUPPO - a temporary control number is never assigned to an item |
to permit item entry into the CBC/CESO systems pending the assignment of an NSN
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The primary authorized document of the Navy Construction Forces is which, if any, of the following?
- COSAL - allowance changes - TOA's - none of the above |
TOA's
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The document prepared for a unit/activity listing the equipment of components required to perform its operational assignment, and material support for the repair and upkeep of that equipment is which of the following?
- COSAL - TOA - allowance changes - repair parts list |
COSAL
(consolidated seabee allowance list) |
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The tool used by the Navy to provide logistic support to the Civil Engineer Support Plans is which of the following?
- COSAL - TOA - advanced base initial outfitting list - advance base functional component system |
(ABFC)
advance base functional component system |
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The minimum acceptable validity level for both number and dollar value of requisitions sampled for any fiscal year is what percent?
- 50 - 25 - 95 - 85 |
95
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Unless otherwise directed, NCF units deployed to Atlantic Camps will submit requisitions for Seabee-peculiar items to which of the following locations?
- Gulfport, MS - Port hueneme, CA - Great Lakes, IL - Little Creek, VA |
Gulfport, MS
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What items are considered peculiar to the Seabee-community?
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CESE repair parts & technical manuals & unique TOA material
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APA, DRM, and other non-chargeable materials will be assigned serial numbers in which of the following ranges?
- 1001-3999 - 7500-7999 - A001-C999 - D001-D999 |
D001-D999
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Before deployment the suppo should prepare a physical inventory schedule for the upcoming deployment no later that which of the following dates?
- 1 month - 2 months - 3 months - 6 months |
1 month
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