• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

How to study your flashcards.

Right/Left arrow keys: Navigate between flashcards.right arrow keyleft arrow key

Up/Down arrow keys: Flip the card between the front and back.down keyup key

H key: Show hint (3rd side).h key

A key: Read text to speech.a key

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/235

Click to flip

235 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which of the following terms is
interchangeable with fundamentals
of leadership?
1. Total quality leadership
2. Motivational theory
3. Basic principles of leadership
4. Principles of supervision
3. Basic principles of leadership
The publications that govern the rules and
regulations of a petty officer's actions are
1. U.S. Navy Regulations and Manual
for Courts-Martial only
2. U.S. Navy Regulations and Standard
Organization and Regulations of the
U.S. Navy only
3. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual
for Courts-Martial, and Standard
Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
4. Military Requirements for Petty
Officer Third Class
3. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual
for Courts-Martial, and Standard
Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
An effective leader should recognize
that people as individuals have different
values and beliefs.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following traits is/are
common to all successful leaders?
1. Initiative
2. Dedication
3. Accountability
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Which of the following statements
explains the relationship between
followership and leadership?
1. The skills used are opposites
2. The skills used are not opposites
3. The skills used are unrelated
4. The roles are performed separately
2. The skills used are not opposites
When you realize you have made a wrong
decision, admit your mistake, accept the
responsibility, and
1. criticize others for the mistake
2. don’t let subordinates know of your
mistake
3. take steps to avoid repeating the error
4. do nothing else
3. take steps to avoid repeating the error
You will be responsible for providing
training to lower-rated personnel for
which of the following reason(s)?
1. They may be inexperienced
2. They may be poorly trained
3. Advancement enhancement
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Not understanding the technical language
of your rate results in which of the following
problems?
1. Poor communication
2. Failure to advance in rate
3. Misinterpretation of official publications
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Human behavior is the result of attempts
to satisfy certain
1. wants
2. ideas
3. whims
4. needs
4. needs
Human behavior is classified into which of
the following number of levels or groups?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Three
4. Four
1. Five
What level of human behavior is the
most important?
1. Esteem
2. Safety-security
3. Survival
4. Self-actualization
3. Survival
When dealing with people, you can NOT
change which of the following human traits?
1. Wants
2. Thought processes
3. Skills
4. Emotional makeup
4. Emotional makeup
An effective leader uses personality and skill
to motivate and influence people to do a job.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When you break a job down into tasks, you
are performing what phase of supervision?
1. Directing
2. Planning and organizing
3. Rewarding and disciplining
4. Setting goals
2. Planning and organizing
What series of OPNAV instructions
provides detailed instructions on a
wide range of safety concerns?
1. 4400
2. 5100
3. 6100
4. 11200
2. 5100
In order to judge the progress of a job,
which of the following basic questions
must you answer before you begin the job?
1. Who and what
2. When and where
3. How
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
When reporting status to a superior there
are four “B’s” to remember: Be on time,
Be accurate, Be brief, and Be
1. gone
2. courteous
3. formal
4. forceful
1. gone
Nominating a subordinate for Sailor of
the month is an example of what type
of feedback?
1. Positive
2. Constructive
3. Good
4. Praise
1. Positive
A good rule of thumb to follow when giving
feedback is to correct
1. openly and directly
2. in public and praise in private
3. in private and praise in public
4. when you and the other person have time
3. in private and praise in public
If 20% of your people are causing 80% of the
problems, how much of your administrative
time can you expect to spend dealing with
this same 20%?
1. 20% to 30%
2. 40% to 50%
3. 60% to 70%
4. 80% to 90%
4. 80% to 90%
When counseling a subordinate, which of the
following is NOT a key point to remember?
1. Be a good listener
2. Keep the individual’s problem
confidential
3. Help the individual grow in selfunderstanding
4. All problems are solvable in one session
4. All problems are solvable in one session
During counseling you allow the subordinate
to determine the direction of the session.
What type of counseling session is this?
1. Self-directed
2. Nondirected
3. Undirected
4. Informal directed
2. Nondirected
The Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS)
is designed to qualify a Sailor for a specific
watch station at what level?
1. Minimum
2. Maximum
3. Intermediate
4. Expert
1. Minimum
Which of the following methods is
used for record keeping in PQS?
1. Chart only
2. Computer only
3. Either 1 or 2 above
4. Sign-off page
3. Either 1 or 2 above
When deciding on a method of teaching,
which of the following factors must you
consider?
1. Nature of the trainee
2. Subject matter
3. Time limitations
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
Detailed information on the duties and
responsibilities of a training petty officer
can be found in what document?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U. S. Navy
2. Personnel Qualification Standards
Management Guide
3. OPNAVINST 3500.34
4. OPNAVINST 5500
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U. S. Navy
During class discussions and directed class
discussions, what method of instruction is
used?
1. Telling
2. Lecturing
3. Facilitating
4. Demonstrating
3. Facilitating
During a class discussion, what questioning
technique should be used?
1. Yes or no
2. Thought provoking
3. Closed ended
4. Intimidating
2. Thought provoking
After instruction, when the trainee is required
physically to repeat the steps in a procedure,
what method of teaching should have been
used by the instructor?
1. Telling
2. Lecturing
3. Demonstrating
4. Discussing
3. Demonstrating
During a lesson summary, which of the
following major aims should be met to
help the trainee?
1. Identification of subject matter
2. Organization of subject matter
3. Understanding of subject matter
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
An instructor by asking well-directed
questions can make the difference between
a dull lecture and a lively discussion.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The technique of asking questions should
NOT be used to review the lesson of
instruction.
1. True
2. False
2. False
A Navy command with 130 assigned
personnel is required to have how many
people appointed to the command training
team?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
3. 3
A petty officer receives general authority
from what document?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Navy Regulations
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice
4. Letter of Appointment
2. U.S. Navy Regulations (Article 1037)
A petty officer receives organizational
authority from what document?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
2. U.S. Navy Regulations
3. Uniform Code of Military Justice
4. Letter of Appointment
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
Any order imposing punishment outside the
framework of the Uniform Code of Military
Justice (UCMJ) is unlawful.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A petty officer can take certain measures to
correct minor infractions under which of the
following articles of the UCMJ?
1. 12
2. 13
3. 14
4. 15
4. 15
Extra military instruction (EMI) is classified
as what type of corrective action?
1. General
2. Punitive
3. Nonpunitive
4. Physical
3. Nonpunitive
EMI can be assigned for what maximum
number of hours per day?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
2. 2
The purpose of EMI is to correct a training
deficiency and deprive normal liberty.
1. True
2. False
2. False
EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted
on the Sabbath.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Authority to assign EMI may be delegated
to which of the following lowest levels?
1. E-6
2. E-7
3. Junior officer
4. Department head
2. E-7
A privilege is a benefit provided for
the convenience or enjoyment of an
individual.
1. True
2. False
1. True
From the list below which is NOT
an example of a privilege?
1. Base parking
2. Base or ship library
3. Normal liberty
4. Exchange of duty
3. Normal liberty
Withholding of a privilege rests with which
of the following authorities?
1. The person in charge of the work center
2. The person that grants the privilege
3. The chief master-at-arms
4. The officer of the deck
2. The person that grants the privilege
Your responsibilities as a petty officer
end when you are on liberty.
1. True
2. False
2. False
When an enlisted person violates a regulation
in the presence of both an officer and a petty
officer, who is responsible for correcting the
violator?
1. Master-at-arms
2. Officer
3. Petty officer
4. Chief petty officer
3. Petty officer
Except for a major offense, a person should
be put on report only as a last resort.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When placing a person on report, you
may orally notify the chain of command
(COC).
1. True
2. False
1. True
The results of a preliminary inquiry of an
alleged offense are given to which person?
1. Accuser
2. Executive officer
3. Master-at-arms
4. Command master chief
2. Executive officer
Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution
is cited for which of the following areas?
1. Preservation of the accused’s rights
2. Right to see the results of inquiry
3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser
4. Communication with the accuser
1. Preservation of the accused’s rights
As a member of the armed forces, you
believe you have been wronged by your
commanding officer. After due application
to the commanding officer, you are refused
redress. Under what article of the UCMJ
may you complain to any superior officer?
1. 1
2. 45
3. 115
4. 138
4. 138
Who decides which type of court-martial
to award?
1. Accuser
2. Accused
3. Executive officer
4. Commanding officer
4. Commanding officer
Where can you find a list of offenses that
must be reported?
1. Uniform Code of Military Justice
2. Naval Regulations
3. Ships’ Organizational and Regulation
Manual
4. Code of Conduct
1. Uniform Code of Military Justice
Hair should be tapered from the lower
hairline upward by at least how many
inch(es)?
1. 1/2
2. 3/4
3. 1
4. 1 1/2
2. 3/4
Pens or pencils used for work may
be worn exposed on the uniform.
1. True
2. False
2. False
While in uniform women may wear
both a necklace and a choker.
1. True
2. False
2. False
When are sea-bag inspections required
for all E-3 and below personnel?
1. Annually
2. Biannually
3. Upon transfer
4. Upon check in at a new command
3. Upon transfer
Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea
coat of both male and female Sailors measure
3 1/4 inches wide.
1. True
2. False
1. True
How far from the front and lower edge
of the collar is the collar device placed?
1. 1/2 inch
2. 3/4 inch
3. 1 inch
4. 1 1/2 inches
3. 1 inch
The hat device is centered on the front of the
ball cap how many inch(es) above the visor?
1. 1/2
2. 3/4
3. 1
4. 1 1/4
4. 1 1/4
What article of the Constitution provides
that the executive power shall be vested in
a President of the United States?
1. V
2. II
3. III
4. IV
2. II (Article II Section 1)
The President is the administrative head
of what branch of the government?
1. Executive
2. Legislative
3. Judicial
4. Congressional
1. Executive
The President may order the armed forces
into military action before Congress declares
war.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Who heads the military chain of command
within the Department of Defense?
1. President
2. Joint Chiefs of Staff
3. Secretary of Defense
4. Department of the Army
3. Secretary of Defense
Who is the principal advisor to the President
on defense policy?
1. Joint Chiefs of Staff
2. Secretary of Defense
3. Commandant of the Marine Corps
4. Secretary of the Navy
1. Joint Chiefs of Staff
The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
outranks all other officers in the armed
forces.
1. True
2. False
1. True
There are a total of how many unified
combatant commands?
1. Nine
2. Six
3. Five
4. Four
1. Nine
In what year was the Department
of the Air Force established?
1. 1947
2. 1949
3. 1950
4. 1951
1. 1947
As part of our military team, the Army
focuses on what type of operations?
1. Land
2. Special
3. Air
4. Joint
1. Land
On what date was the United States
Navy founded?
1. August 7, 1798
2. April 30, 1789
3. July 1, 1776
4. October 13, 1775
4. October 13, 1775
What office monitors and evaluates
congressional proceedings and actions
that effect the Department of the Navy?
1. Office of Information
2. Office of the General Counsel
of the Navy
3. Office of Program Appraisal
4. Office of Legislative Affairs
4. Office of Legislative Affairs
What office provides legal services within
the Department of the Navy in all areas
except business and commercial law?
1. Office of Program Appraisal
2. Office of the General Counsel
of the Navy
3. Office of the Judge Advocate General
4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
3. Office of the Judge Advocate General
As an Assistant Secretary of the Navy,
the Comptroller of the Navy is responsible
for
1. financial management
2. shipbuilding and logistics
3. research, engineering, and systems
4. manpower and reserve affairs
1. financial management
The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy
is assigned to what immediate office?
1. Chief of Naval Personnel
2. Chief of Naval Operations
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
2. Chief of Naval Operations
What person advises the Chief of Navy
Personnel on all matters regarding enlisted
members and their dependents?
1. Chief of Naval Operations
2. Master Chief PettyOfficer of the Navy
3. Secretary of the Navy
4. Vice Chief of Naval Operations
2. Master Chief PettyOfficer of the Navy
The operating forces of the Navy are
combat or combat-support oriented.
1. True
2. False
1. True
A task force (TF) is a subdivision of a fleet.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What is the Navy’s primary source of
immediate mobilization manpower?
1. Individual Ready Reserve
2. Standby Reserve
3. Selected Reserve
4. Retired Reserve
3. Selected Reserve
The Military Sealift Command is operated
by the Navy for all armed services.
1. True
2. False
1. True
U.S. Naval Forces Europe consists only
of forces assigned by the CNO or from
the Atlantic Fleet.
1. True
2. False
2. False
The U. S. Naval Forces Central Command’s
area of responsibility includes which of the
following areas?
1. Mediterranean
2. Middle East
3. Continental United States
4. South America
2. Middle East
The Atlantic Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas?
1. Mediterranean
2. Middle East
3. Cuba
4. Antarctica
1. Mediterranean
The Pacific Fleet’s area of responsibility
includes which of the following areas?
1. Southeast Asia
2. Arctic Ocean
3. U. S. west coast
4. Both 2 and 3 above
4. Both 2 and 3 above
Shore commands answer directly to
CNO to carry out their missions.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What command plans the amount of
education and training needed by Navy
personnel to meet manpower requirements?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. CNET
3. DIRSSP
4. COMNAVDOCCOM
1. CHNAVPERS
What command has central authority
for ship and nuclear power safety?
1. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
2. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
What command is responsible for research,
development, test, evaluation, procurement,
and logistic support in aviation-related areas?
1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
2. DIRSSP
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
4. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
What command develops supply
management policies and methods?
1. DIRSSP
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
4. COMNAVDOCCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
What command acquires and disposes of
real estate for the Navy and manages Navy
family housing?
1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
What command researches, develops,
tests, evaluates, and procures airborne
and shipboard electronics?
1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
3. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
4. COMNAVFACENGCOM
1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
What command’s mission is to
organize, train, and equip computer
and telecommunications activities?
1. DIRSSP
2. COMNAVDOCCOM
3. COMNAVCOMTELCOM
4. COMNAVMETOCCOM
3. COMNAVCOMTELCOM
What command’s mission is to develop,
produce, and support fleet ballistic missile
and strategic weapon systems?
1. DIRSSP
2. COMNAVDOCCOM
3. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
1. DIRSSP
What command’s mission is to collect,
interpret, and apply atmospheric and oceanic
data for safety and strategic and tactical
planning?
1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM
2. COMNAVMETOCCOM
3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
4. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
2. COMNAVMETOCCOM
What command provides, operates, and
maintains an adequate naval security group?
1. ONI
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. CNET
4. COMNAVSPACECOM
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
What command is responsible for shorebased
education and training of Navy,
certain Marine Corps, and other personnel?
1. CHNAVPERS
2. BUMED
3. DIRSSP
4. CNET
4. CNET
What command is responsible for the
development of naval concepts and
integrated naval doctrine?
1. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM
2. COMNAVDOCCOM
3. CHNAVPERS
4. BUMED
2. COMNAVDOCCOM
What command oversees DoN's intelligence
and security requirements and
responsibilities?
1. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
2. COMNAVSAFCEN
3. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM
4. ONI
4. ONI
What command administers the legal
service program within the Navy?
1. DIRSSP
2. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM
3. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
4. COMNAVSAFCEN
2. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM
What command provides direct space
systems support to naval forces and helps
prepare the naval service for larger space
systems involvement?
1. COMNAVSAFCEN
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
4. ONI
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
What command enhances the war-fighting
capability of the Navy and Marines by
arming our Sailors, Marines, and civilians
with the knowledge they need to save lives
and preserve resources?
1. COMNAVSAFECEN
2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
3. COMNAVSPACECOM
4. ONI
1. COMNAVSAFECEN
The United States Marine Corps is part
of the Department of the Navy.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What is the largest government agency
in the United States?
1. DoD
2. DoN
3. USN
4. CNO
1. DoD
What organization is presidentially chartered
and mandated by Congress to develop
ballistic and cruise missile defense systems
that are capable of providing a limited
defense of the United States?
1. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
3. Defense Intelligence Organization
4. Defense Information Systems Agency
2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
What organization assists the military
departments in their research and
development efforts?
1. Defense Intelligence Agency
2. Defense Contract Audit Agency
3. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
4. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
4. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
What agency is responsible for providing an
efficient and effective worldwide system for
reselling groceries and household supplies?
1. Defense Contract Audit Agency
2. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
3. Defense Commissary Agency
4. Defense Logistics Agency
3. Defense Commissary Agency
What agency is responsible for making all
payments, including payroll and contracts,
for DoD?
1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
2. Defense Information Systems Agency
3. Defense Legal Service Agency
4. Defense Commissary Agency
1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
The Defense Information Systems Agency
is a combat support agency.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What organization is presidentially chartered
and mandated by Congress to develop
ballistic and cruise missile defense systems
that are capable of providing a limited
defense of the United States?
1. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
3. Defense Intelligence Organization
4. Defense Information Systems Agency
2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
What organization assists the military
departments in their research and
development efforts?
1. Defense Intelligence Agency
2. Defense Contract Audit Agency
3. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
4. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
4. Defense Advanced Research Projects
Agency
What agency is responsible for providing an
efficient and effective worldwide system for
reselling groceries and household supplies?
1. Defense Contract Audit Agency
2. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
3. Defense Commissary Agency
4. Defense Logistics Agency
3. Defense Commissary Agency
What agency is responsible for making all
payments, including payroll and contracts,
for DoD?
1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
2. Defense Information Systems Agency
3. Defense Legal Service Agency
4. Defense Commissary Agency
1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
The Defense Information Systems Agency
is a combat support agency.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What agency provides foreign intelligence
and counterintelligence support to the
SECDEF and the Chairman of the Joint
Chiefs of Staff?
1. Defense Information Systems Agency
2. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
3. Defense Security Service
4. Defense Intelligence Agency
4. Defense Intelligence Agency
Who serves as the director of the Defense
Legal Services Agency?
1. General Counsel of the DoD
2. Joint Chiefs of Staff
3. JAG
4. SECDEF
1. General Counsel of the DoD
The Defense Logistics Agency is NOT
responsible for the acquisition of weapons
for the military services.
1. True
2. False
2. False
What agency is responsible for polygraph
research, education, training, and
examinations?
1. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
2. Defense Security Service
3. Defense Intelligence Agency
4. Defense Legal Services
2. Defense Security Service
What agency is responsible for threat
reduction to the United States and its
allies from nuclear, biological, chemical,
and other special weapons?
1. Defense Security Agency
2. Defense Intelligence Agency
3. Defense Information Systems Agency
4. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
4. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
The division safety petty officer has ultimate
responsibility for safety matters within the
division.
1. True
2. False
2. False (Division Safety Officer)
On the command level the safety council
meets at what intervals?
1. Monthly
2. Bimonthly
3. Annually
4. Biannually
1. Monthly
In which document would you find the basic
guidelines and standardized procedures for
tag-outs?
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
2. Basic Military Requirements
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
1. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
An equipment tag-out bill provides
procedures for which of the following
actions?
1. Prevention of improper operation of
equipment in an abnormal condition
2. Operation of unreliable instrument
3. PMS
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
How many documents does the tag-out
log contain?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
In a tag-out log, the front of the record sheet
contains the
1. record sheets that have been cleared
and completed
2. tag-out index and record of audits
3. copy of the main instruction and other
amplifying directives for administering
the system
4. name of the system or component, serial
number of the tag-out, date/time of tagout
issue, and reason for the tag-out
4. name of the system or component, serial
number of the tag-out, date/time of tagout
issue, and reason for the tag-out
On non-nuclear powered ships, audits
for tag-outs are required at what minimum
interval?
1. Every 2 weeks
2. Every 3 weeks
3. Monthly
4. Quarterly
1. Every 2 weeks
Occupational Safety and Health
Administration (OSHA) passed a regulation
that requires all civilian and military
employees of the federal government to
comply with what regulation?
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
2. Hazard Material and Refuse
Management
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
3. Hazard Communication Standard
To protect your rights and to ensure
personnel comply with OSHA and
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
regulations, the Navy established what
program?
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
2. Hazard Material and Refuse
Management
3. Hazard Communication Standard
4. Hazardous and Toxic Material
Disposal
1. Hazardous Material Control and
Management
The Hazardous Materials Information
System (HMIS) is a computerized
database of which of the following items?
1. Hazardous Material User’s Guide
(HMUG)
2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
3. Ship Hazardous Material List
(SHML)
4. Hazardous Material Afloat Program
(HMAP) Management Guide
2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
HMIS is distributed on CD-ROM every
1. week
2. 2 weeks
3. month
4. quarter
4. quarter
For information on cleaning solvents, refer
to which of the following chapters in the
Naval Ships’ Technical Manual (NSTM)?
1. 670
2. 660
3. 631
4. 630
3. 631
Storage areas for chlorinated-cleaning
solvents should be monitored regularly
by the
1. command duty officer
2. fire marshal
3. engineer officer
4. gas-free engineer
4. gas-free engineer
For enclosed storage spaces that contain
chlorinated solvents, an air change is
recommended every
1. 1 minute
2. 2 minutes
3. 3 minutes
5. 4 minutes
3. 3 minutes
The Hazardous Materials Information
System (HMIS) is a computerized
database of which of the following items?
1. Hazardous Material User’s Guide
(HMUG)
2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
3. Ship Hazardous Material List
(SHML)
4. Hazardous Material Afloat Program
(HMAP) Management Guide
2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
HMIS is distributed on CD-ROM every
1. week
2. 2 weeks
3. month
4. quarter
4. quarter
For information on cleaning solvents, refer
to which of the following chapters in the
Naval Ships’ Technical Manual (NSTM)?
1. 670
2. 660
3. 631
4. 630
3. 631
Storage areas for chlorinated-cleaning
solvents should be monitored regularly
by the
1. command duty officer
2. fire marshal
3. engineer officer
4. gas-free engineer
4. gas-free engineer
For enclosed storage spaces that contain
chlorinated solvents, an air change is
recommended every
1. 1 minute
2. 2 minutes
3. 3 minutes
5. 4 minutes
3. 3 minutes
When handling organic-cleaning solvents,
wear which of the following personal
protective equipment (PPE)?
1. Neoprene gloves
2. Safety splash goggles
3. Protective coveralls
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
In addition to wearing PPE for organiccleaning
solvents, you must wear an
oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) and
notify the gas-free engineer if vapors
accumulate over how many parts per
million?
1. 50
2. 100
3. 150
4. 200
2. 100
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
(MOPP) procedures used to establish
levels of readiness for a chemical agent
attack are flexible.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The risk of a chemical, biological,
and radiological (CBR) threat can be
categorized into how many levels
of probability?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
During what MOPP level is individual
protective equipment issued?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
1. One
During what MOPP level will the
individual protective mask be maintained
in carrier and on person?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
During what MOPP level will individuals
don chemical protective overgarments?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
3. Three
During what MOPP level will individuals
don their protective masks?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
4. Four
Which of the following periods is the
maximum time a closure or fitting may
be logged open?
1. One watch period
2. During normal working hours
3. 12 hours
4. 24 hours
4. 24 hours
Items requiring special management
control because the material is essential
to the protection of life or is relatively
valuable and easily can be converted for
personal use are called
1. expendable items
2. replacement items
3. controlled equipage
4. consumable items
3. controlled equipage
Which system is responsible for naming,
describing, classifying, and numbering all
items carried under centralized inventory
control by DoD and civil agencies of the
federal government?
1. Federal catalog
2. Navy supply
3. Local supply
4. National supply
1. Federal catalog
Stock and control numbers used to identify
and order material in the supply system are
known by which of the following terms?
1. National stock numbers
2. Navy item control numbers
3. Local item control numbers
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
A national stock number (NSN) consists
of a total of how many digits?
1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13
4. 13
The national item identification number
(NIIN) identifies each item of supply used
by which of the following organizations?
1. Department of Defense
2. North Atlantic Treaty Organization
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. United Nations
3. Both 1 and 2 above
A Navy item control number (NICN) has
how many characters?
1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13
4. 13
A cognizance (cog) symbol has how many
alphanumeric characters?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
Let’s assume that you do not have a
stock number for an item and cannot
locate it in the allowance lists. Which
of the following means may be of use
to identify the item?
1. Manufacturer’s part number
2. Nameplate
3. Contractor’s service bulletin
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
The Management List-Navy (ML-N)
and NAVSUP P-485 provide you with
information for submitting accurate and
error-free requisitions.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The ML-N is the basic publication
relating to national stock number (NSN)
management data.
1. True
2. False
1. True
On the ML-N what information is in the
column under ACTION CODE?
1. A one-position alpha code that
designates the type of action required
by the file maintenance computer to
enter/update/delete data in various
cyclic or master files
2. The routing identifier of the
managing activity, which is a
potential source of supply
3. A code indicating how and under
what restrictions an item will be
acquired
4. A code representing the number of
units of issue included in the first tie,
wrap, or container in which the NSN
is prepared for shipment
1. A one-position alpha code that
designates the type of action required
by the file maintenance computer to
enter/update/delete data in various
cyclic or master files
On the ML-N what information is in the
column under REPAIRABILITY CODE?
1. A one-position alpha code that
designates the type of action required
by the file maintenance computer to
enter/update/delete data in various
cyclic or master files
2. The routing identifier of the
managing activity, which is a
potential source of supply
3. A one-position code that indicates
whether or not an item is repairable
4. A code representing the number of
units of issue included in the first tie,
wrap, or container in which the NSN
is prepared for shipment
3. A one-position code that indicates
whether or not an item is repairable
On the ML-N what information is in the
column under COGNIZANCE CODE?
1. A one-position alpha code that
designates the type of action required
by the file maintenance computer to
enter/update/delete data in various
cyclic or master files
2. The routing identifier of the
managing activity, which is a
potential source of supply
3. A one-position code that indicates
whether or not an item is repairable
4. A code designating a segment of
material for management by a
specific inventory manager and the
funding involved
4. A code designating a segment of
material for management by a
specific inventory manager and the
funding involved
For definitions and explanations of
the various codes used in the columns
of the ML-N, refer to FEDLOG,
NAVSUP P-2002.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The Afloat Shopping Guide (ASG),
NAVSUP P-4400, is designed to assist
fleet and Navy supply support personnel
in identifying an NSN for those items of
supply which do not have a part/reference
number.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The ASG consists of how many volumes?
1. Seven
2. Five
3. Three
4. Four
1. Seven
The Coordinated Shipboard Allowance
List (COSAL) is both a technical and a
supply document.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The COSAL is based on equipment
nomenclature data contained in the
computerized Weapons System File
at the Ships Parts Control Center.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Exemptions from using MILSTRIP for
ordering material through the Navy supply
system are listed in Operating Procedures
Manual for MILSTRIP/MILSTRAP,
NAVSUP P-437.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following forms is/are
used to order material?
1. DD Form 1348
2. DD Form 1348-6
3. DD Form 1149
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
NAVSUP Form 1250-1 is used for which
of the following reasons?
1. To improve inventory control
procedures
2. To report consumption under the
maintenance data system (MDS)
3. To procure materials and services
4. All of the above
3. To procure materials and services
For non-NSN requirements, NAVSUP
Form 1250-2 consolidates the information
previously submitted on two forms,
NAVSUP Form 1250-1 and DD Form
1348-6.
1. True
2. False
1. True
The Single Line Item Requisition System
Document (Manual), DD Form 1348,
should not be used to follow up, modify,
cancel, or trace previously submitted
requisitions.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Codes are used extensively in MILSTRIP
requisitioning because there is limited
space on the DD Form 1348 card. What
maximum number of alphanumeric
characters can be placed on the card?
1. 50
2. 60
3. 70
4. 80
4. 80
If the NSN is not available for a
repair part, what form should you
use to requisition the part?
1. NAVSUP Form 1250-1
2. DD Form 1348
3. DD Form 1348-6
4. DD Form 1149
3. DD Form 1348-6
Message requisitions are submitted in
a specified format and must convey
the same data that is required on which
of the following forms?
1. NAVSUP Form 1250-1
2. DD Form 1348 or 1348-6
3. DD Form 1149
4. NAVSUP Form 1250-2
2. DD Form 1348 or 1348-6
An urgency of need designator (UND)
is assigned by which activity?
1. CNO
2. NAVSEA
3. NAVSUP
4. Activity requisitioning the material
4. Activity requisitioning the material
Which of the following letters is used
in the UND to convey that the activity's
ability to perform one or more of its
primary missions will be impaired until
the material is received?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
Under the Uniform Material Movement
and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS),
what is the highest two-digit priority
designator (PD)?
1. 01
2. 11
3. 13
4. 15
1. 01
The casualty reporting (CASREP) system
contains five types of reports: initial,
update, correct, resubmission, and cancel.
1. True
2. False
2. False
What type of CASREP report, if any,
is submitted when equipment is back
in operational condition?
1. Resubmission
2. Correction
3. Cancellation
4. None
2. Correction
In most cases when any of your equipment
fails, you first trace the trouble to a
defective part and then prepare what
document?
1. DD Form 1149
2. CASREP
3. NAVSUP Form 1250-1 or
DD Form 1348
4. Message report
3. NAVSUP Form 1250-1 or
DD Form 1348
When is the petty officer of the watch
(POOW) the primary enlisted assistant
to the officer of the deck (OOD)?
1. At sea
2. In port
3. On watch on the bridge
4. On watch in battle conditions
2. In port
For detailed information on preparing naval
correspondence, you should refer to what
document?
1. Department of the Navy Correspondence
Manual, SECNAVINST 5216.5
2. Preparing, Maintaining and Submitting
the Ship’s Deck Log, OPNAVINST
3100.7B
3. U.S. Navy Regulations
4. Standard Organization and Regulations
of the U.S. Navy
1. Department of the Navy Correspondence
Manual, SECNAVINST 5216.5
The commanding officer, officer in charge,
or the person acting in either position must
personally sign which of the following
documents?
1. Those which establish policy
2. Those which make changes to
the command’s mission
3. Those required by law or regulation
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
If signature authority has been delegated
to the leading petty officer, which of the
following documents is he/she NOT allowed
to sign?
1. Service record pages
2. Special request chits
3. DD 214
4. 3M weekly schedule
1. Service record pages
The basic requirements for maintaining
the ship's deck log are contained in which
of the following documents?
1. U.S. Navy Regulations
2. Standard Organization and
Regulations of the U.S. Navy
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Naval Ships’ Technical Manual
3. Both 1 and 2 above
At times deck logs may be used in
which of the following legal actions?
1. Naval courts
2. Admiralty proceedings
3. Civilian courts
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
If you make a mistake in a deck log,
you must take what corrective action?
1. Use white out
2. Scratch out the error
3. Tear out the page and rewrite the entry
4. Draw a single line through the mistake
4. Draw a single line through the mistake
Deck log entries must be clear, concise,
accurate, and be
1. signed by the commanding officer
2. typewritten
3. preceded by the time of occurrence
4. written in red ink
3. preceded by the time of occurrence
The overall responsibility for the deck
log belongs to the
1. OOD
2. JOOD
3. POOD
4. CDO
1. OOD
To confirm that the ship's casualty alarms are
operating properly, the POOW tests them
during what watch?
1. 0800 - 1200
2. 1200 - 1600
3. 1600 - 2000
4. 2000 - 2400
1. 0800 - 1200
Deck log entries regarding the status of the
ship (moored, anchored, in dry dock, etc.),
location, services being received, ships
present, and senior officer present afloat
(SOPA) are made during what watch?
1. 2000 - 2400
2. 1600 - 2000
3. 1200 - 1600
4. 0000 - 0400
4. 0000 - 0400
What log contains information on policy
changes and routine items, such as liberty
call times?
1. Security log
2. Passdown log
3. Visitor’s log
4. Deck log
2. Passdown log
The level of security of a command is
determined by the
1. OOD when assuming the watch
2. sensitivity of different parts of the
command and/or the state of prevention,
such as attacks by terrorists
3. population on the ship at the time
4. presence of the commanding officer
2. sensitivity of different parts of the
command and/or the state of prevention,
such as attacks by terrorists
What security force is called away by an
alarm when there is an unauthorized entry
by an unknown person?
1. Shore Patrol
2. Base police
3. Security Alert Team
4. Roving patrol
3. Security Alert Team
There is only one reason to surrender
your weapon to an unauthorized person.
1. True
2. False
2. False
The use of deadly force is justified only under
conditions of extreme necessity as a last
resort when all lesser means have failed or
cannot reasonably be employed and only
under one or more explicit circumstances.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which naval authority has defined the term
deadly force?
1. SECNAV
2. NAVSEA
3. OPNAV
4. NAVPERS
3. OPNAV
Normally how many magazines are
issued with a pistol?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
2. Two
When the pistol has a lanyard attached,
what must be done during exchange of
the pistol to the next watch stander?
1. Keep the lanyard around your neck
until your relief has positive control
of the pistol
2. Keep the lanyard at your side so it
won’t get in the way
3. Keep the lanyard in your hand that
doesn’t hold the pistol
4. Detach the lanyard from the weapon
during the exchange
1. Keep the lanyard around your neck
until your relief has positive control
of the pistol
When there are five rounds in a magazine,
you can see the brass casing of a bullet in
what opening from the bottom of the
magazine?
1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth
3. Third
Side boys are NOT paraded on what day?
1. Payday
2. Saturday
3. Sunday
4. Any holiday
3. Sunday
Side boys are NOT paraded during which
of the following times?
1. Between sunset and 0800
2. Meal hours
3. General drills
4. All of the above
1. Between sunset and 0800
An informal visit of courtesy requiring no
special ceremonies is a/an
1. sight visit
2. call
3. look and see
4. informal request
2. call
When a gun salute is prescribed on arrival,
it is fired as the visitor approaches and is
1. at the first step onto the deck
2. still inside transportation
3. still clear of the side
4. on deck
3. still clear of the side
When a gun salute is not prescribed on
arrival and a flag or pennant is to be
displayed during the visit, the flag is broken
at which of the following points of the pipe?
1. End
2. Start
3. Either 1 or 2 above
4. During
2. Start
When a visitor is ready to leave the ship,
the guard presents arms; all persons on the
quarterdeck salute; and ruffles and flourishes,
followed by music, is sounded. What happens
next?
1. “Two” is sounded
2. Anthem is played
3. Flag or pennant is displayed
4. Visitor is piped over the side
4. Visitor is piped over the side
When a gun salute is directed upon
departure, it is fired
1. at the visitor’s first step off the deck
2. when the visitor is getting in/on
transportation
3. when the visitor is clear of the side
4. while the visitor is still on deck
3. when the visitor is clear of the side
The POOW should notify the OOD of a
change during any 1-hour period in the
barometric pressure reading of a minimum
of how many inches?
1. 0.05
2. 0.02
3. 0.03
4. 0.04
4. 0.04
What instrument is designed to measure
barometric pressure?
1. Thermometer
2. Aneroid barometer
3. Wind vane
4. U-tube manometer
2. Aneroid barometer
What is the average atmospheric pressure
at sea level in inches of mercury?
1. 30.30
2. 29.92
3. 28.32
4. 25.92
2. 29.92
What weather condition(s) does an
anemometer measure?
1. Temperature and pressure
2. Wind speed and direction
3. Atmospheric temperature
4. Speed of ocean currents
2. Wind speed and direction
A. Up to 38 miles per hour
B. 39 to 54 miles per hour
C. 55 to 73 miles per hour
D. 74 miles per hour and above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-32 THROUGH
5-35, REFER TO FIGURE 5A. SELECT THE
CORRECT WIND SPEEDS FOR EACH OF THE
FOLLOWING WARNINGS.
Gale warning
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
2. B
A. Up to 38 miles per hour
B. 39 to 54 miles per hour
C. 55 to 73 miles per hour
D. 74 miles per hour and above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-32 THROUGH
5-35, REFER TO FIGURE 5A. SELECT THE
CORRECT WIND SPEEDS FOR EACH OF THE
FOLLOWING WARNINGS.
Hurricane warning
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
4. D
A. Up to 38 miles per hour
B. 39 to 54 miles per hour
C. 55 to 73 miles per hour
D. 74 miles per hour and above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-32 THROUGH
5-35, REFER TO FIGURE 5A. SELECT THE
CORRECT WIND SPEEDS FOR EACH OF THE
FOLLOWING WARNINGS.
Small craft warning
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
1. A
A. Up to 38 miles per hour
B. 39 to 54 miles per hour
C. 55 to 73 miles per hour
D. 74 miles per hour and above
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 5-32 THROUGH
5-35, REFER TO FIGURE 5A. SELECT THE
CORRECT WIND SPEEDS FOR EACH OF THE
FOLLOWING WARNINGS.
Storm warning with tropical winds
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
3. C
As POOW, you will be required to make
sure the anchor lights and the aircraft
warning lights are turned on at sunset
and turned off at sunrise when the ship
is in which of the following conditions?
1. Moored
2. Under tug support
3. At sea
4. Piloted through narrow waterways
1. Moored
How many minutes before sunset should
the ship’s anchor lights be tested?
1. 60
2. 30
3. 20
4. 15
2. 30
The anchor lights must be visible on a clear
night for how many nautical miles?
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
3. 3
The anchor ball, displayed in the forward
part of the ship, is what color(s)?
1. Red
2. Orange
3. Black
4. Black and white
3. Black
Which of the following factors will determine
if a PO3 is assigned as a section leader?
1. Size of the command
2. Number of personnel assigned
to his or her duty section
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Number of the departments
in the command
3. Both 1 and 2 above
As a section leader, you report to what
person after normal working hours?
1. LPO
2. OOD
3. CDO
4. Department duty officer
4. Department duty officer
Which, if any, of the following responsibilities
belong to the police petty officer (AKA BPO)?
1. Apprehending violators
2. Keeping the quarterdeck clear
of unauthorized personnel
3. Serving as court liaison
4. None of the above
4. None of the above
When you are assigned as a temporary
master-at-arms, how long is the usual tour
of duty?
1. 1 month
2. 3 months
3. 6 months
4. 12 months
3. 6 months
Authority to create a shore patrol outside the
continental limits of the United States has
been delegated to naval area representatives
by the
1. President of the United States
2. U.S. Congress
3. SECNAV
4. CNO
3. SECNAV
When serving on shore patrol overseas,
you apprehend an unauthorized absentee
who presents an orderly appearance and
is obviously returning to base. You should
permit the Sailor to proceed.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Shore patrol personnel should never accept
concessions, such as favors or gifts.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When standing shore patrol duties, you
normally have jurisdiction over military
dependants (civilians) and military personnel.
1. True
2. False
2. False
Enlisted shore patrol personnel should
apprehend an officer only when situations
offer no alternative.
1. True
2. False
1. True
When apprehending members of the opposite
sex, it is never permissible to have physical
contact.
1. True
2. False
2. False
A squad at full strength normally consists
of how many personnel?
1. 10
2. 11
3. 12
4. 13
3. 12
A platoon consists of a minimum of how
many squads?
1. One
2. Only two
3. Two or more
4. Only three
3. Two or more
A company consists of how many platoons?
1. One
2. Only two
3. Two or more
4. Only three
3. Two or more
Quick time is cadence at how many steps per
minute?
1. 30
2. 60
3. 120
4. 240
3. 120
Slow time is cadence at how many steps per
minute?
1. 15
2. 30
3. 60
4. 120
3. 60
For quick time, at the command MARCH,
step off smartly with the left foot and
continue the march in steps of what length
in inches?
1. 25
2. 30
3. 35
4. 40
2. 30
For back step, at the command BACKWARD
MARCH, take steps straight to the rear in
what length of step in inches?
1. 15
2. 20
3. 25
4. 30
1. 15
For a column right, on the command column
right, MARCH, what pivot angle is taken to
the right?
1. 45 degrees
2. 50 degrees
3. 65 degrees
4. 90 degrees
4. 90 degrees