Navedtra 14111 Gas Turbine Systems Supervisor

Front 1

The tag-out program must be enforced during which of the following conditions?

1. New Construction
2. Normal operations
3. Maintenance
4. All of the above

Back 1

4. All of the above

Front 2

A detailed description of the tag-out program procedures can be found in which of the following OPNAV instructions?

1. 3120.32
2. 5090.1
3. 5100.1
4. 9094.1

Back 2

1. 3120.32

Front 3

At a minimum, how often must tag-out audits be conducted?

1. every week
2. every 2 weeks
3. every month
4. every quarter

Back 3

2. every 2 weeks

Front 4

If the position of a danger-tagged valve is in question during a tag-out verification, what action, if any, should you take?

1. attempt to operate the valve a small amount in the open direction.
2. attempt to operate the valve a small amount in the closed direction
3. attempt to operate the valves on either side of the valve in question and monitor for pressure changes
4. none

Back 4

attempt to operate the valve a small amount in the closed direction

Front 5

As part of a tag-out audit, which of the following entries is NOT required to be written in the INDEX/AUDIT record section of the tag-out log?

1. date of audit
2. discrepancies noted
3. number of tags checked
4. signature of the person conducting the audit

Back 5

3. number of tags checked

Front 6

a comprehensive look at the navy's environmental pollution control program can be found in which of the following OPNAV instructions?

1. 3120.32
2. 5100.19
3. 5090.1
4. 9094.1

Back 6

3. 5090.1

Front 7

Which of the following individuals
is authorized to inspect a space and
to certify it safe for re-entry
after a hazardous material spill
where no toxic gases or vapors are
present?
1. CDO
2. DCA
3. Fire marshal
4. Each of the above

Back 7

4. Each of the above

Front 8

A hazardous material spill that is
considered detrimental to the
environment requires which of the
following reports?
1. OPREP-1
2. OPREP-2
3, OPREP-3
4. OPREP-4

Back 8

3. OPREP 3

Front 9

Primary casualty control training
concentrates on the control of what
type of casualties?
1. Personnel
2. Battle inflicted
3. Single source
4. Multiple source

Back 9

3. single source

Front 10

The EOSS serves all EXCEPT which of
the following purposes?
1. To train unskilled operators
2. To eliminate the need for
skilled operators
3. To schedule plant operations
4. To control plant operations

Back 10

2. elimintate the need for skilled operators

Front 11

During a scheduled ROH, an EOSS
verification check will be scheduled
approximately how many weeks prior
to the end of the availability?
1. 6
2 8
3. 3
4. 4

Back 11

4. 4

Front 12

The rough copies of the EOSS will be
used for approximately how many
weeks before the new laminated
copies are received?
1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12

Back 12

4. 12

Front 13

An EOSS feedback report should be
submitted for all of the following
reasons EXCEPT which one?
1. To report an EOSS conflict with
another technical reference
2. To order new book holders
3. To correct document errors
4. To order new twisties

Back 13

1. report an EOSS conflict with another technical reference

Front 14

A final pen and ink change to the
EOSS resulting from an urgent
feedback is authorized by what
individual?
1. The type commander
2. The group commander
3. The commanding officer
4. The engineer officer

Back 14

3. the commanding officer

Front 15

A routine EOSS feedback report is
submitted on which of the following
OPNAV forms?
1. 4790/4B
2. 4790/7B
3. 9094/1A
4. 9094/1D

Back 15

2. 4790/7B

Front 16

The 3-M COORDINATOR block on an EOSS
feedback report must be signed by
what individual?
1. The MPA
2. The chief engineer
3. The 3-M coordinator
4. The EOSS coordinator

Back 16

4. The EOSS coordinator

Front 17

All full-power trials will be
conducted with what minimum liquid
load?
1. 65%
2. 75%
3. 85%
4. 95%

Back 17

2. 75%

Front 18

A full-power trial must be conducted
at what minimum periodicity?
1. Every quarter
2. Every 6 months
3. Every year
4. Every 18 months

Back 18

3. every year

Front 19

The OPNAV form 9094/1A is used to
provide what type of information?
1. An overall grade for the
exercise
2. A detailed listing of plant
conditions
3. A general listing of plant
conditions
4. A listing of all safety devices
and their set points

Back 19

1. an overall grade for the exercise

Front 20

In the MGTEL which of the following
entries is/are authorized to be
written in pencil?
1. NINC only
2. NIS only
3. NINC and NIS
4. INC

Back 20

3. NINC or NIS

Front 21

The acronym BIRMIS refers to which
of the following descriptions?
1. Boiler information and
replacement management
inspection system
2. Boiler inspection and
replacement management
information system
3. Boiler inspection and repair
management information system
4. Boiler information and repair
management inspection system

Back 21

3. Boiler inspection and repair management information system

Front 22

A steaming WHB must be sampled
within what maximum number of
minutes prior to securing?
1. 90 minutes
2. 60 minutes
3. 45 minutes
4. 30 minutes

Back 22

1. 90 minutes

Front 23

A WHB placed in a dry lay-up can
remain in that status for what
maximum amount of time?
1. 10 days
2. 30 days
3. 60 days
4. Indefinite

Back 23

4. Indefinate

Front 24

If a salinity indicator is
malfunctioning, the water it
monitors must be tested at what
minimum periodicity?
1. Every 2 hours
2. Every 4 hours
3. Every 8 hours
4. Every 12 hours

Back 24

2. every 4 hours

Front 25

If a deaerated feed tank is
installed, a dissolved oxygen test
must be performed at what minimum
periodicity?
1. Every 24 hours
2. Every 12 hours
3. Every 8 hours
4. Every 4 hours

Back 25

1. every 24 hours

Front 26

Domestic object damage is defined as
damage originating from which of the
following sources?
1. The inlet plenum
2. The uptake spaces
3. The base enclosure
4. The inside of the engine

Back 26

4. the inside of the engine

Front 27

If the FOD screen is clogged by soft
items, which of the following
conditions may result?
1. An increase in power
2. Low duct pressure
3. High duct pressure
4. Elevated turbine inlet
temperatures

Back 27

4. elevated turbine inlet temperatures

Front 28

When working in and around intake
areas, you should take all EXCEPT
which of the following safety
precautions?
1. Ensure the blow-in doors are
clean
2. Inspect the intakes for
cleanliness
3. Account for all tools and
equipment
4. Remove all loose objects from
your person

Back 28

1. ensure blow-in-doors are clean

Front 29

You can find the inspection
requirements and procedures for
borescope inspections in which of
the following sources?
1. The MGTESR
2. The MRC
3. The propulsion plant manual
4. The engineering log

Back 29

2. the MRC

Front 30

When conducting a borescope
inspection, you must be aware of all
EXCEPT which of the following
factors?
1. The internal reference points
2. The inspection areas and ports
3. The engineer officer’s
experience
4. The limitations of your
equipment

Back 30

3. the engineer officer's experience

Front 31

It is a good engineering practice
for you to review the machinery
history of an engine before a
borescope inspection for all EXCEPT
which of the following reasons?
1. To know past inconsistencies
2. To know the components that are
damaged
3. To know the parts that have been
modified
4. To know the parts that have been
changed

Back 31

2. to know the components that are damaged

Front 32

What total number of borescope
inspection ports are located in the
LM2500 compressor?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20

Back 32

3. 15

Front 33

After removing the Pt5.4 pressure
probes, what area(s) can you
inspect?
1. The LP turbine nozzle assembly
2. The HP turbine nozzle assembly
3. The LP turbine exhaust, HP
turbine inlet
4. The LP turbine inlet, HP turbine
exhaust

Back 33

4. the LP turbine inlet, HP turbine exhaust

Front 34

To manually rotate the engine, you
should use which of the following
tools?
1. 18-inch long 3/4-inch drive
extension
2. 18-inch long 3/4-inch drive
socket wrench
3. 18-inch long 1/2-inch drive
extension
4. 18-inch long 1/2-inch drive
socket wrench

Back 34

1. 18 inch long 3/4 in drive extension

Front 35

Zero reference for the LM2500
compressor is established by the use
of which of the following engine
components?
1. Vane shrouds
2. Vane blades
3. Locking lug blades
4. Carboloy blade pads

Back 35

3. locking lug blades

Front 36

To maintain better control over the
rotor speed when jacking the engine,
you should use which of the
following tools?
1. A torque multiplexer
2. A torque multiplier
3. An electric drive motor
4. An air drive motor

Back 36

2. torgue multiplier

Front 37

A fifth stage blade platform that is
tilted or raised may indicate which
of the following failures?
1. Midspan damper
2. Carboloy pad
3. Blade root
4. Tip clang

Back 37

3. blade root failure

Front 38

If you find a “leaner” during a
borescope inspection, you should
take which of the following actions?
1. Remove the engine from service
2. Replace the failed part
3. Operate the engine at low power
4. Make temporary repairs

Back 38

1. remove the engine from service

Front 39

Tip curl is usually caused by which
of the following malfunctions?
1. Blade rub
2. Vane rub
3. Misalignment
4. Object damage

Back 39

1 blade rub

Front 40

Tip clang can usually be attributed
to which of the following operating
conditions?
1. Overloading
2. Compressor stall
3. Continuous low-power operation
4. Continuous high-power operation

Back 40

2. compressor stall

Front 41

When tip clang takes place on a GTE,
the major damage occurs to what area
of the blade?
1. The midspan
2. The chord
3. The root
4. The tip

Back 41

3. the root

Front 42

When you are inspecting the
combustion section of a GTE, what
wattage light source should you use?
1. 1,000
2. 750
3. 500
4. 250

Back 42

1. 1000

Front 43

The dimples of a dome band that has
low operating time will usually have
what kind of damage?
1. Burn through
2. Burn away
3. Bowing
4. Cracks

Back 43

4. cracks

Front 44

Distortion of the liner assemblies
is evident when you observe which of
the following conditions?
1. The inner liner bends down, and
the outer liner lifts up
2. The inner liner lifts up, and
the outer liner bends down
3. Stress line streaks
4. Burn through

Back 44

2. The inner liner lifts up, and
the outer liner bends down

Front 45

What malfunction is the primary
cause of DOD to the HP turbine?
1. Broken combustion liner pieces
2. Loss of film cooling air
3. Blade cracking
4. Vane flaking

Back 45

1. Broken combustion liner pieces

Front 46

Fault logic diagrams use all of the
following block types to aid in
troubleshooting EXCEPT which one?
1. Single-line
2. Double-line
3. Highlighted
4. Shaded

Back 46

3. Highlighted

Front 47

A functional dependency diagram is
used for troubleshooting what
particular GTE system?
1. The fuel control system
2. The VSV actuator control system
3. The electronic power control
system
4. The fire extinguishing control
system

Back 47

3. The electronic power control
system

Front 48

As a supervisor, what is your
primary concern during a GTE
component replacement?
1. Meeting deadlines
2. The safety of personnel
3. Proper replacement parts
4. The availability of tools

Back 48

2. The safety of personnel

Front 49

To plan an engine changeout, who
should be present at the
organizational meeting?
1. Department heads only
2. Security personnel only
3. Supervisors only
4. All involved personnel

Back 49

4. All involved personnel

Front 50

During a changeout, where should the
special support equipment (SSE)
containers be placed?
1. Within reach of the crane
2. Out of the normally traveled
area
3. In the main engine room (MER)
4. On the main deck of the tender

Back 50

1. Within reach of the crane

Front 51

When should the replacement engine
containers be brought to the site?
1. After the old engine has been
removed
2. After supply has inventoried the
containers
3. As the new engine is needed
4. As soon as possible

Back 51

4. As soon as possible

Front 52

The completed MGTE log book should
be shipped to the repair activity in
what manner?
1. Returned with the technical
representative
2. Returned with the container
3. Sent by registered mail
4. Sent by normal mail

Back 52

2. Returned with the container

Front 53

When returning containers, you
should use what inert gas to
pressurize the shipment container?
1. Argon
2. Halon
3. Nitrogen
4. Helium

Back 53

3. Nitrogen

Front 54

During the engine changeout, when
should crane services be used for
other purposes?
1. After placement of the SSE vans
2. Just prior to engine removal
3. During meal hours
4. After completion of the
changeout

Back 54

4. After completion of the
changeout

Front 55

Improperly aligned horizontal rail
flanges may result in damage to
which of the following components?
1. Compressor blading
2. Flexible coupling
3. C-sump air seal
4. Aerodynamic coupling

Back 55

3. C-sump air seal

Front 56

Dry trunnion bearings should be
lubricated with which of the
following lubricants?
1. 2190 VSI
2. 23699
3. WD-40
4. MLG-G-10924

Back 56

4. MLG-G-10924

Front 57

What form of damage is the greatest
threat to gas turbine and support
equipment?
1. DOD
2. FOD
3. Corrosion
4. Overheating

Back 57

3. Corrosion

Front 58

When dissimilar metals come in
contact with a conductor, which of
the following types of metal
deterioration takes place?
1. Rust erosion
2. Etching erosion
3. Chemical corrosion
4. Electrochemical corrosion

Back 58

4. Electrochemical corrosion

Front 59

A reddish-colored oxide usually
forms on which of the following
metals?
1. Steel
2. Aluminum
3. Chromium
4. Magnesium

Back 59

1. Steel

Front 60

A white-gray powdery deposit can
usually be found on which of the
following metals?
1. Steel
2. Aluminum
3. Magnesium
4. Magnetite

Back 60

2. Aluminum

Front 61

Active corrosion on copper alloys is
indicated by which of the following
conditions?
1. A verdigris formation
2. A white-gray powder formation
3. A gray-green patina formation
4. A copper-oxide crust formation

Back 61

1. A verdigris formation

Front 62

Cadmium and zinc coatings provide
which of the following types of
protection for the base metal?
1. Sealant
2. Chemical
3. Electrical
4. Sacrificial

Back 62

4. Sacrificial

Front 63

Before opening a main reduction gear
(MRG) cover, you should take all
EXCEPT which of the following
precautions?
1. Drain the LO sump
2. Post a security watch
3. Clean the areas around the
covers
4. Obtain the chief engineer’s
permission

Back 63

2. Post a security watch

Front 64

Backlash is best described by which
of the following statements?
1. Clearance of the gears that do
not mesh
2. Clearance of the gears operating
in parallel
3. Play between the surfaces of the
teeth in mesh
4. Radial play between the pinion
teeth and bearings

Back 64

3. Play between the surfaces of the
teeth in mesh

Front 65

When pinion and gear teeth have been
slightly indented by foreign
material, what action should you
take?
1. Closely monitor the damage to
see if it spreads
2. Remove both gears for a complete
overhaul
3. Remove the raised metal on the
damaged teeth
4. Remove the raised metal on both
gears

Back 65

4. Remove the raised metal on both
gears

Front 66

When performing a static check to
determine tooth contact, you should
use which of the following compounds
to coat the gear teeth?
1. An indelible marker
2. Copper sulfate
3. Persian blue
4. Prussian blue

Back 66

4. Prussian blue

Front 67

Corrective pitting along the pitch
line may occur during which of the
following periods of service?
1. During full-power operation
2. During prolonged operation
3. During the first few months of
operation
4. During excessive operation at
low power

Back 67

3. During the first few months of
operation

Front 68

When determining offset alignment
readings, manufacturers take into
account all EXCEPT which of the
following factors?
1. Speed of the installation
2. Thermal expansion of the MRG
3. The hydrodynamic oil film effect
4. Thermal expansion of the
foundation

Back 68

1. Speed of the installation

Front 69

The line shaft (spring) bearing
(LSB) used on gas turbine ships is
what type of bearing?
1. Prealigned, self-lubricated
bearing
2. Nonaligned, pressure lubricated
bearing
3. Self-aligning, oil-lubricated
roller bearing
4. Self-aligning, oil-lubricated
journal bearing

Back 69

4. Self-aligning, oil-lubricated
journal bearing

Front 70

On the LSB, where are the original
installation clearance readings
located?
1. On the lower bearing housing
2. On the upper bearing housing
3. On the base support
4. On the side cover

Back 70

2. On the upper bearing housing

Front 71

How are the stern tube and strut
tube bearings cooled?
1. By heat-dissipating fins
2. By air from the masker air
system
3. By fresh water
4. By seawater

Back 71

4. By seawater

Front 72

The temperature-compensated pitch
indicating system depends on the
thermal stability of which of the
following transmitting mediums to
sense pitch position?
1. Seawater
2. Prairie air
3. Masker air
4. CRP oil

Back 72

2. Prairie air ?

Front 73

The electronic pitch position
transducer is located in what area?
1. Inside the CRP electronics
enclosure
2. On the right side of the OD box
3. On the front end of the OD box
4. Inside the propeller hub

Back 73

4. Inside the propeller hub

Front 74

A steady increase in hub
servopressure, without a change in
system demands, is a good indication
that which of the following
components is faulty?
1. Auxiliary relief valve
2. Sequencing valve (closed
position)
3. Reducing valve
4. Electrohydraulic servo valve

Back 74

4. Electrohydraulic servo valve

Front 75

During the mechanical pitch
alignment check, the OD box pitch
position plate can be moved
(adjusted) a maximum of what
distance as long as the distance
change can be explained?
1. 1/32 inch
2. 1/16 inch
3. 1/8 inch
4. 1/4 inch

Back 75

2. 1/16 inch