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72 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The most common causes of UTI are __ (gram neg) and ___ (gram pos)
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Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus
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Gram-negative rods occurring single or in pairs. Facultaively anaerobic. All ferment glucose and are oxidase negative
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Escherichia coli
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All E. Coli are fast growing and appear as ___ on blood agar
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large, gray colonies
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Antigens on E.Coli
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Somatic O antigen carrying LPS, H antigen (flagellum), K antigen (a polysaccharide capsule)
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What is the marker for E. Coli in a urine dipstick test
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Leukocyte esterase
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What fimbriar allows E. Coli to adhere to uroepithelium
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P-Fimbriae and type-1 fimbriae
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The movement of E.coli against urinary flow is facilitated by ___
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flagella
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What does E.Coli have that is associated with the cell surface and resist phagocytosis and killing
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capsular polysaccharide K antigen
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What does E.Coli have that increases the pyogenic inflammatory response
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LPS endotoxin
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What does E.Coli have that promotes struvites kidney stones in the kidney by increasing the alkalinity urine
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Urease
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How does E.Coli take up Iron
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aerobactin, a siderophore
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If ___ are present in urine, the infection likely represents pyelonephritis (complicated UTI)
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white cell casts
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__ and ___ mount an inflammatory response, contributing to high fever, (>39C) shaking chills, and localized flank or low back pain in E.Coli infection
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IL-1 and TNF
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Tx of E.Coli
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B-lactam agent, TMP-SMX, or flouroquinolone
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Pregnant women are at higher risk of colonization with the ___ strain of E.Coli which can cause meningitis
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K1 antigen (encapsulated)
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____ are spirochetes, which are thin-walled, flexible, spiral rods. Has a endoflagella
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Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
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what reactivity with lipoidal antigens is the basis of nontreponemal screening
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nonspecific antibodies that cross react with beef heart cardiolipin
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What detects T. pallidum-specific antibodies
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Fluorescence treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-Abs) and microhemagglutinin-T.Pallidum (MHA-TP)
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What are the principal proinflammatory mediators of syphilis
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lipoproteins
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Tx of Treponema pallidum
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benzathine PCN G, Erythromycin for pregnant women
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___ causes degeneration of dorsal column and dorsal roots, resulting in locomotor ataxia (tabes dorsalis). Argyll Robertson Pupils
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Neurosyphilis
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HSV2 infect host cells reveal the presence of ___ on a ___ smear
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multinucleated gaint cells on Tzanck smear
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HSV2 primary lesions are due to the ___ effect of the virus on ____
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cytopathic (cytolytic), mucocutaneous epithelium
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TX for HSV-2
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acyclovie (ACV)
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Risk factors for HPV infection leading to carcinoma of the cervix include ___, ___, and ___
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sex before 15, multiple sex partners, and smoking
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HPV infects the ___ cells of the basal layer of the skin or mucous membrane
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squamous epithelial cells
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HPV multiplication is confined to the nucleus. Consequently, infected cells exhibit a high degree of ___
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nuclear atypia
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What does PAP smear show for HPV
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koilocytosis, characterized as intracellular changes with perinuclear clearing (halo) and a shrunken nucleus
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Which HPV types lead to anogenital warts
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6 and 11
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Which HPV types leads to dysplasias and cancer
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16,18,31,33,35
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How does HPV 16 and 18 cause problems for the host
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HPV proteins E6 and E7 inactivate the hosts tumor suppressor proteins p53 and retinoblastoma
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___ are nonenveloped viruses of icosahedral symmetry with 72 capometes that surrounds a double-stranded circular DNA
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HPV
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Multiple pairs of bean-shaped, Gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils is diagnostic of ___
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Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)
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What media does N. gonorrhoeae grow on
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Thayer Martin medium
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What are the virulence factors for N. gonorrhoeae
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pili, LOS, OMP. They DO NOT have polysaccharide capsules
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N. gonorrhoeae binds to __ epithelial cells mediated by bacterial __ and __
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columnar, pili, OMP
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How does N. gonorrhoeae hydrolyzes IgA mucosal antibodies and inhibits opsonization needed for phagocytic killing
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IgA protease
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Gonococcal ___ also protect against phagocytosis, and interferes with neutrophil degranulation
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OMP (protein I)
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Tx of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
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single injection of Ceftriaxone
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Which C. trachomatis serotypes are considered the world's most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogens
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D to K
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Chlamydia organisms begin infection through minute abrasion on the mucosal surface as metabolically inert ___
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elementary bodies
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Chlamydia EB target receptors on ___
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columnar epithelial cells
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What are the metabolically active verison of Ebs in chlamydia
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Reticulate bodies which multiply by binary fission
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Primary genital lesion of chlamydial disease occur when CEC destruction during acute disease process causes release of ____
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proinflammatory cytokines
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Tx of Chlamydia trachomatis
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doxycycline
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Trachoma caused by chlamydial serotypes _, _, _. Endemic in __. Causes ___
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A, B, C. North Africa, blindness in the world
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___ is a motile (with visible flagela), peared shaped (10um by 7um) protozoan organism
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Trichomonas vaginalis
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T/F T. vaginalis has a cyst form
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FALSE
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T. Vaginalis causes an inflammatory reaction (vaginitis) therefore ___ usually are present
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numerous PMNs
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Tx for Trichomonas vaginalis
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metronidazole
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Candida species are ___ and appear as elongated structures with ___ after Gram stain
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YEAST, pseudohyphae or even true hyphae
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C. albicans can be rapidly differentiated form other species by it production of ___ after 2 hours of cultivation in human serum
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germ tubes (short hyphal filaments)
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C. Albicans also characteristically produce ___, the reproductive, thick walled structures of the fungus
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chlamydospores
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Tx of Candida albicans
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topical antifungal agents such as clotrimazole, micronazole, or nystatin. Fluconazole for bloodstream infections
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3 genes in HIV that contain information needed to make structural proteins for new virus particules
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gag, pol, and env
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How does HIV bind to Cd4 Tcells
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gp120, then coreceptors CxCR4 and CCR5
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Tx for HIV
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1. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (RTIs) which nucleoside analogs AZT, ddC, ddI, d4T, 3TC 2.non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) Nevirapine, delavirdine, and efavirenz. 3protase inhibitors (-navir)
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___ a member of the herpesvirus group (double-stranded DNA, protein capsid, and a lipoprotein envelope). B-herpesvirus that is lymphotropic.
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CMV
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CMV replicates in the nucleus of target cells, and the infected cells develop into ___
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cytomegalic (gaint cells)
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CMV can be cultures from ___
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urine
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Transmission of CMV
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person to person and requires close contact with a person excreting the virus in saliva, urine or other body fluids
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___ is the most common cause of post-transplant infections
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CMV
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Characteristic microscopic changes in CMV infection include _____ which contain viral particles, in the target organ
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enlarged cells, with intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions
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CMV pneumonitis may reveal pneumocytes containing characteristic ___
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cytomegalic inclusions with a surrounding halo (owls eye)
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Tx for CMV
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Ganciclovir. Foscarnet in resistant strains
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____ obligate intracellular parasite that exist in two forms. Proliferative form (banana-shaped tachyzoites), resting cyst form (slow-growing bradyzoites)
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Toxoplasma gondii (Toxoplasma encephalitis)
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Transmission of Toxoplasma gondii
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ingestin pseudocysts in undercooked meat (mutton, beef, pork) accidental ingestion of material contaminated with cat feces containing oocyst
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In patients with AIDS, ___ is the most common cause of intracerebral mass lesions
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T. gondii
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When does toxoplasma gondii become activate in patients with AIDS?
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Cd4 count of less than 200, bradyzoites reactive and transform into tachyzoites.
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How does Toxoplasma gondii damage brain cells
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replicating tachyzoites ruptue the brain cells, resulting in focal necrosis
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what is diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii
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high level (1:256) of IgG for T. gondii
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Tx of Toxoplasma gondii
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Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
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