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72 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
The most common causes of UTI are __ (gram neg) and ___ (gram pos)
Escherichia coli, Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Gram-negative rods occurring single or in pairs. Facultaively anaerobic. All ferment glucose and are oxidase negative
Escherichia coli
All E. Coli are fast growing and appear as ___ on blood agar
large, gray colonies
Antigens on E.Coli
Somatic O antigen carrying LPS, H antigen (flagellum), K antigen (a polysaccharide capsule)
What is the marker for E. Coli in a urine dipstick test
Leukocyte esterase
What fimbriar allows E. Coli to adhere to uroepithelium
P-Fimbriae and type-1 fimbriae
The movement of E.coli against urinary flow is facilitated by ___
flagella
What does E.Coli have that is associated with the cell surface and resist phagocytosis and killing
capsular polysaccharide K antigen
What does E.Coli have that increases the pyogenic inflammatory response
LPS endotoxin
What does E.Coli have that promotes struvites kidney stones in the kidney by increasing the alkalinity urine
Urease
How does E.Coli take up Iron
aerobactin, a siderophore
If ___ are present in urine, the infection likely represents pyelonephritis (complicated UTI)
white cell casts
__ and ___ mount an inflammatory response, contributing to high fever, (>39C) shaking chills, and localized flank or low back pain in E.Coli infection
IL-1 and TNF
Tx of E.Coli
B-lactam agent, TMP-SMX, or flouroquinolone
Pregnant women are at higher risk of colonization with the ___ strain of E.Coli which can cause meningitis
K1 antigen (encapsulated)
____ are spirochetes, which are thin-walled, flexible, spiral rods. Has a endoflagella
Treponema pallidum (syphilis)
what reactivity with lipoidal antigens is the basis of nontreponemal screening
nonspecific antibodies that cross react with beef heart cardiolipin
What detects T. pallidum-specific antibodies
Fluorescence treponemal antibody-absorption (FTA-Abs) and microhemagglutinin-T.Pallidum (MHA-TP)
What are the principal proinflammatory mediators of syphilis
lipoproteins
Tx of Treponema pallidum
benzathine PCN G, Erythromycin for pregnant women
___ causes degeneration of dorsal column and dorsal roots, resulting in locomotor ataxia (tabes dorsalis). Argyll Robertson Pupils
Neurosyphilis
HSV2 infect host cells reveal the presence of ___ on a ___ smear
multinucleated gaint cells on Tzanck smear
HSV2 primary lesions are due to the ___ effect of the virus on ____
cytopathic (cytolytic), mucocutaneous epithelium
TX for HSV-2
acyclovie (ACV)
Risk factors for HPV infection leading to carcinoma of the cervix include ___, ___, and ___
sex before 15, multiple sex partners, and smoking
HPV infects the ___ cells of the basal layer of the skin or mucous membrane
squamous epithelial cells
HPV multiplication is confined to the nucleus. Consequently, infected cells exhibit a high degree of ___
nuclear atypia
What does PAP smear show for HPV
koilocytosis, characterized as intracellular changes with perinuclear clearing (halo) and a shrunken nucleus
Which HPV types lead to anogenital warts
6 and 11
Which HPV types leads to dysplasias and cancer
16,18,31,33,35
How does HPV 16 and 18 cause problems for the host
HPV proteins E6 and E7 inactivate the hosts tumor suppressor proteins p53 and retinoblastoma
___ are nonenveloped viruses of icosahedral symmetry with 72 capometes that surrounds a double-stranded circular DNA
HPV
Multiple pairs of bean-shaped, Gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils is diagnostic of ___
Neisseria gonorrhoeae (gonorrhea)
What media does N. gonorrhoeae grow on
Thayer Martin medium
What are the virulence factors for N. gonorrhoeae
pili, LOS, OMP. They DO NOT have polysaccharide capsules
N. gonorrhoeae binds to __ epithelial cells mediated by bacterial __ and __
columnar, pili, OMP
How does N. gonorrhoeae hydrolyzes IgA mucosal antibodies and inhibits opsonization needed for phagocytic killing
IgA protease
Gonococcal ___ also protect against phagocytosis, and interferes with neutrophil degranulation
OMP (protein I)
Tx of Neisseria gonorrhoeae
single injection of Ceftriaxone
Which C. trachomatis serotypes are considered the world's most common sexually transmitted bacterial pathogens
D to K
Chlamydia organisms begin infection through minute abrasion on the mucosal surface as metabolically inert ___
elementary bodies
Chlamydia EB target receptors on ___
columnar epithelial cells
What are the metabolically active verison of Ebs in chlamydia
Reticulate bodies which multiply by binary fission
Primary genital lesion of chlamydial disease occur when CEC destruction during acute disease process causes release of ____
proinflammatory cytokines
Tx of Chlamydia trachomatis
doxycycline
Trachoma caused by chlamydial serotypes _, _, _. Endemic in __. Causes ___
A, B, C. North Africa, blindness in the world
___ is a motile (with visible flagela), peared shaped (10um by 7um) protozoan organism
Trichomonas vaginalis
T/F T. vaginalis has a cyst form
FALSE
T. Vaginalis causes an inflammatory reaction (vaginitis) therefore ___ usually are present
numerous PMNs
Tx for Trichomonas vaginalis
metronidazole
Candida species are ___ and appear as elongated structures with ___ after Gram stain
YEAST, pseudohyphae or even true hyphae
C. albicans can be rapidly differentiated form other species by it production of ___ after 2 hours of cultivation in human serum
germ tubes (short hyphal filaments)
C. Albicans also characteristically produce ___, the reproductive, thick walled structures of the fungus
chlamydospores
Tx of Candida albicans
topical antifungal agents such as clotrimazole, micronazole, or nystatin. Fluconazole for bloodstream infections
3 genes in HIV that contain information needed to make structural proteins for new virus particules
gag, pol, and env
How does HIV bind to Cd4 Tcells
gp120, then coreceptors CxCR4 and CCR5
Tx for HIV
1. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (RTIs) which nucleoside analogs AZT, ddC, ddI, d4T, 3TC 2.non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs) Nevirapine, delavirdine, and efavirenz. 3protase inhibitors (-navir)
___ a member of the herpesvirus group (double-stranded DNA, protein capsid, and a lipoprotein envelope). B-herpesvirus that is lymphotropic.
CMV
CMV replicates in the nucleus of target cells, and the infected cells develop into ___
cytomegalic (gaint cells)
CMV can be cultures from ___
urine
Transmission of CMV
person to person and requires close contact with a person excreting the virus in saliva, urine or other body fluids
___ is the most common cause of post-transplant infections
CMV
Characteristic microscopic changes in CMV infection include _____ which contain viral particles, in the target organ
enlarged cells, with intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusions
CMV pneumonitis may reveal pneumocytes containing characteristic ___
cytomegalic inclusions with a surrounding halo (owls eye)
Tx for CMV
Ganciclovir. Foscarnet in resistant strains
____ obligate intracellular parasite that exist in two forms. Proliferative form (banana-shaped tachyzoites), resting cyst form (slow-growing bradyzoites)
Toxoplasma gondii (Toxoplasma encephalitis)
Transmission of Toxoplasma gondii
ingestin pseudocysts in undercooked meat (mutton, beef, pork) accidental ingestion of material contaminated with cat feces containing oocyst
In patients with AIDS, ___ is the most common cause of intracerebral mass lesions
T. gondii
When does toxoplasma gondii become activate in patients with AIDS?
Cd4 count of less than 200, bradyzoites reactive and transform into tachyzoites.
How does Toxoplasma gondii damage brain cells
replicating tachyzoites ruptue the brain cells, resulting in focal necrosis
what is diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii
high level (1:256) of IgG for T. gondii
Tx of Toxoplasma gondii
Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine