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157 Cards in this Set

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What are the symptoms of an HIV infection?
Infection by HIV virus and development of HIV-specific antibodies (seroconversion) accompanied by flu-like symptoms of fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat,headache, malaise, nausea, muscle and joint pain, diarrhea and a diffuse rash
What is seroconversion?
Development of HIV-specific antibodies
What is the effect of an HIV infection on the CD4 count?
CD4 counts remain above 500
What is the interval from an HIV infection to a diagnosis of AIDS?
Median interval between untreated HIV infection and a diagnosis of AIDS is about 10 years
What is AIDS?
1. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome = an acquired dysfunction of the immune system caused by a retrovirus (HIV-1 or HIV-2) that infects and destroys CD4 lymphocytes

2. End stage of chronic HIV infection
What is the difference between HIV and AIDS?
1. AIDS is not the same as HIV infection

2. HIV is a virus that causes AIDS, however, not everyone infected with HIV has AIDS
What is the estimated incidence of HIV?
56,300 new HIV infections yearly

(retro-calculated as of 2006)
What is the estimated percentage of HIV by gender?
73% Male
27% Female
What is the estimated percentage of HIV by race/ethnicity?
45% African Americans
35% Caucasians
17% Hispanic/Latino
2% Asian/Pacific Islander
1% American Indian/Alaskan Native
What is the estimated percentage of HIV infections by transmission category?
53% Male-to-male sexual contact
31% Heterosexual contact
12% Injection drug use
4% Male-to-male sexual contact & injection drug use
What is the estimated percentage of HIV infections by age?
34% 13-29 yrs
31% 30-39 yrs
25% 40-49 yrs
10% > or = 50 yrs
What is the decline in pediatric AIDS incidence associated with?
1. More HIV testing of pregnant women

2. The use of zidovudine (AZT) by HIV-infected pregnant women and their newborn infants
What is the "down low" phenomenon?
Situation in which black men, while not identifying themselves gay or bisexual, have sex with other men, often behind the backs of their wives and girlfriends
What is the prevalence of a black woman having an HIV infection?
A black woman is 23 times more likely to be infected with HIV than a white woman
What is the main cause of HIV of black women?
In 2001, 67% of black women with AIDS contracted HIV through heterosexual sex
What are the new research findings regarding HIV/AIDS?
1. Recent studies suggest that 30% of all black bisexual men may be infected with HIV, and up to 90% of those men do not know

2. Researchers have referred to these men as a “bridge” to infection from gay men to heterosexual women
Which group is referred to as the "bridge" of HIV infections?
Bisexual men
What are the global trends of HIV/AIDS?
1. The number of people living with HIV has risen from around 8 million in 1990 to 33 million today, and is still growing

2. Around 67% of people living with HIV are in sub-Saharan Africa

3. The overwhelming majority of people with HIV, some 95% of the global total, live in the developing world

4. The proportion is set to grow even further as infection rates continue to rise in countries where poverty, poor health care systems and limited resources for prevention and care fuel the spread of the virus
What is the regional distribution of HIV/AIDS?
64.4% Africa
21.4% Asia
5.4% High income countries
5.0% Latin America & the Caribbean
3.9% Eastern Europe & Central Asia
What is the life expectancy of Americans with AIDS today?
24.2 years

(compared to 6.8 yrs in 1993)
What is the lifetime cost of AIDS treatment?
At least $385,000
What do AIDS patients eventually die from?
Heart disease, stroke and other diseases of aging, rather than infections that prey upon weakened immune systems
What are the criteria for AIDS diagnosis?
1. CD4+ T cell count drops below 200 cells

2. Development of one of the following opportunistic infections

3. Development of one of the following opportunistic cancers

4. Wasting syndrome occurs (loss of 10% or more of ideal body mass)

5. Dementia develops
What are the opportunistic infections?
1. Fungal: Candidiasis of bronchi, trachea, lungs or esophagus; disseminated or extrapulmonary histoplasmosis

2. Viral: CMV disease/ retinitis, herpes simplex with chronic ulcers, pneumonitis, esophagitis

3. Protozoal: Coccidiomycosis, toxoplasmosis, chronic intestinal cryptosporiodosis, PCP

4. Bacterial: Mycobacterium TB, extrapulmonary TB, MAC; recurrent pneumonia
What are the opportunistic cancers?
Invasive cervical cancer, Kaposi’s sarcoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, or primary lymphoma of the brain
What is wasting syndrome?
Loss of 10% or more of ideal body mass
What is Clinical Category A?
1. HIV positive

2. Either asymptomatic, has persistent lymphadenopathy, or has acute HIV infection with accompanying illness or history of illness
What are the types of Clinical Category A?
1. Category A1
2. Category A2
3. Category A3
What is category A1?
HIV positive with CD4>500
What is category A2?
HIV positive with CD4 between 200-499
What is category A3?
HIV positive with CD4 <200
What is clinical category B?
If one or more of the following conditions are present and are (1) attributed to HIV infection; or are indicative of a deficiency in cell mediated immunity, or (2) are complicated by HIV infection:
Bacterial endocarditis
Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Severe cervical dysplasia or carcinoma
Pulmonary Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
PID, Peripheral neuropathy, HerpesZoster, Fever, diarrhea lasting > 1 month
What is clinical category C?
AIDS with any one of these conditions present:

*Bronchial, tracheal, pulmonary or esophageal candidiasis
*Invasive cervical cancer
*CMV disease of other than the liver, spleen or lymph nodes
*CMV retinitis with vision loss
*HIV-related encephalopathy
*Chronic intestinal cryptosporidiosis
*Kaposi’s sarcoma
When can HIV be transmitted?
A person with HIV infection can transmit the virus to others at all stages of disease
What is the etiology of HIV?
1. HIV belongs to a special class of viruses known as retroviruses. (They replicate in a “backward” manner—going from RNA to DNA)

2. Like all viruses, HIV cannot replicate unless it is inside a living cell

3. Retroviruses have only RNA as their genetic material—no DNA

4. Retroviruses have special enzymes called Reverse Transcriptase (RT) and Integrase

5. Through the use of RT, the viral RNA is converted to DNA and inserted into the infected human cell’s genetic material, where it acts as a template for viral reproduction
What is the pathogenesis of HIV?
1. HIV infects human cells that have CD4 receptors on their surfaces—lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes

2. HIV then spreads quickly throughout the lymphoid system, hiding in macrophages and in the centers of lymph nodes (they act as reservoirs for the HIV)

3. Throughout the course of infection, HIV is actively replicated by the infected T-lymphocytes, synthesizing up to 2 billion viral particles daily, eventually exhausting the immune system

4. Immune dysfunction in HIV is caused predominantly by damage to and destruction of CD4+ T cells (they have more CD4 receptors on their surfaces than other CD4 receptor-bearing cells)

5. Viral activity destroys about 1B CD4+T cells daily

6. HIV can replicate at an estimated rate of 10B copies per day
How is HIV transmitted?
1. Sexual
2. Parenteral
3. Perinatal
How is HIV sexually transmitted?
Through genital, anal, or oral sexual contact with exposure of mucous membranes to infected semen or vaginal secretions
How is HIV parenterally transmitted?
Through the sharing needles or equipment, contaminated blood or receiving contaminated blood products
How is HIV perinatally transmitted?
From the placenta, contact with maternal blood and body fluids during birth, or from breast milk
What bodily secretions have been isolated to carry HIV?
1. Blood
2. Semen
3. Vaginal secretions
4. Breast milk
5. Amniotic fluid
6. Urine
7. Saliva
8. Feces
9. Tears
10. CSF
What bodily tissues have been isolated to carry HIV?
1. Lymph nodes
2. Cervical cells
3. Langerhans’ cells
4. Corneal tissue
5. Breast tissue
Which bodily fluids do not show evidence of ability to transmit HIV?
There is no evidence that the virus is spread by contact with saliva, sweat, tears, urine, or feces (the # of virus is not high enough)
How can HIV-positive pregnant women reduce the incidence of transmitting HIV to their baby?
If mother takes AZT during pregnancy and deliver the baby by C-section, the chances of the baby being infected can be reduced to a rate of 1%
What laboratory assessments are used for HIV?
1. CBC with lymphocyte count

2. CD4 and CD8 count

3. Antibody Tests: Enzyme-Linked Immunoabsorbent Assay (ELISA)Western Blot
What is the result of the CBC with lymphocyte count for HIV?
WBC and lymphocytes usually decreased
What is the result of the CD4 and CD8 count for HIV?
CD4 decreased; normal CD8; therefore the CD4/CD8 ratio is decreased
What is the normal CD4/CD8 ratio?
2:1
What is Enzyme-Linked Immunoabsorbent Assay (ELISA)?
Measures the presence of HIV antibodies in the blood
What is the incidence of false positive ELISA?
False positive results occur in approximately 0.1% of those tested
What are the interpretations of a positive ELISA?
1. ELISA positive does not predict if the donor will develop AIDS

2. ELISA positive is not conclusive of current infection by HIV
What is the interpretation of a negative ELISA?
ELISA negative does not predict donor immunity to HIV because the infected person may not produced the antibodies yet
What is a Western blot?
Also detects presence of HIV antibodies
When is a Western blot conducted?
Done if ELISA is positive to confirm results
What is the interpretation of the Western blot?
A positive Western Blot test indicates presence of antibodies and confirms diagnosis of HIV infection
What problem is associated with the Western blot?
There is a median delay of 2 months after infection before antibodies can be detected (window period). The infected individual will not test HIV antibody positive.
What is the window period of the Western blot?
2 months
What is the rapid HIV test?
1. Approved by FDA 3/04, OraQuick rapid HIV test for oral fluid

2. Procedure: gently swab completely around outer gums, both upper and lower, one time around

3. Placed in a vial containing developer solution

4. Takes as little as 30-40 mins
What is a positive rapid HIV test result?
Positive test displays two reddish-purple lines in a small window in the device
What are the advantages of the rapid HIV test?
1. Takes as little as 30-40 mins

2. Has a 99.3% accuracy rate
What are the disadvantages of the rapid HIV test?
A reactive HIV test result on oral fluid is preliminary positive and needs to be confirmed with either Western Blot or immunofluorescent assay
What is the viral load testing (plasma HIV RNA)?
1. Also called viral burden testing

2. Measures the amount of HIV RNA (genetic material) in plasma
What is the purpose of the viral load testing?
1. A more direct measure of disease progression

2. Measures effectiveness of therapy
How are the results of the viral load testing expressed?
Expressed as copies/ml
(i.e. 10,000 copies/ml)
What are other tests to measure viral load?
1. Quantitative RNA Assays:
(a) RT Polymerase Chain Reaction (RT-PCR)
(b) Branched –DNA method (bDNA)
(c) Nucleic Acid Sequence-based assay (NASBA)

2. P24 Antigen Assay—measures viral core protein
How often should the viral load and CD4 cell count be done?
Typically, viral load and CD4 cell count are measured at baseline and every three months thereafter, unless otherwise indicated by a clinical event (such as opportunistic infection), non-adherence, or a suspected treatment failure
What is the interpretation of an undetectable viral load?
1. An undetectable viral load means that the amount of virus is extremely low and viruses cannot be found in the blood using the current technology

2. It does NOT mean that the virus is gone because much of the virus will be in lymph nodes (reservoir) and organs that the tests cannot detect

3. It also does NOT mean that the individual is no longer able to transmit HIV to others
Does an undetectable viral load indicate that the HIV is gone?
NO
Does an undetectable viral load mean that the individual is no longer able to transmit HIV to others?
NO
What are the drug therapies available for HIV?
1. Antiretroviral therapy

2. Multiple drugs (3 or more) are used together in regimens called “cocktails” or “highly active antiretroviral therapy” or HAART

3. Combination therapy
What is the purpose of antiretroviral therapy?
Inhibits viral replication only

(does not kill the virus)
What is the purpose of combination drug therapy?
Attack the virus at various points of the HIV replication cycle and decrease drug resistance
What are the advantages of combination drug therapy?
1. Promotes a more sustained antiviral effect

2. Delays drug resistance

3. Has a greater effect on a wider range of cellular and tissue reservoirs of HIV
Which drug or combination of drugs can cure HIV?
NO drug or combination of drugs can cure HIV (yet) --- but can decrease viral replication and delay progression of disease
What are the indications for deferred treatment of antiretroviral therapy in HIV-infected persons?
Asymptomatic, CD4 >350, <30,000 bDNA
What are the indications for initiation of antiretroviral therapy in HIV-infected persons by some clinicians but not others?
Asymptomatic, CD4 >350, >30,000 bDNA
What is the risk of developing AIDS in untreated person?
A 3-year risk of developing AIDS of >30% in untreated persons
What are the indications for offering antiretroviral therapy in HIV-infected persons?
Asymptomatic, CD4 >200 but <350, any value bDNA
What are the indications for definite initiation of antiretroviral therapy in HIV-infected persons?
Symptomatic, any value CD4 and any value bDNA
What are the goals of antiretroviral therapy?
1. Maximal and durable suppression of viral load (< 50 copies/ml- undetectable level)

2. Restoration and /or preservation of immunologic function (Maintain or raise CD4+T cell count to >200 cell/ul)

3. Delay the development of HIV-related symptoms and opportunistic diseases

4. Improvement of quality of life

5. Reduction of HIV-related morbidity and mortality
What is an undetectable level of viral load?
< 50 copies/ml
How is immunologic function restored or preserved?
By maintaining or raising CD4+T cell count to >200 cell/ul
What tools are used to achieve the goals of antiretroviral therapy?
1. Maximize adherence to the antiretroviral regimen

2. Rational sequencing of drugs

3. Preservation of future treatment options

4. Use of resistance testing in selected clinical settings
What assessments are required prior to antiretroviral therapy?
1. Nutritional status

2. Renal and hepatic functions

3. Hydration status—electrolyte balance

5. Pregnancy and lactation status

6. History of seizure disorder (adverse drug reaction)

7. Motivation and ability to comply with treatment
What are the antiretroviral drug classes?
1. Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)

2. Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)

3. Protease Inhibitors (PIs)

4. Fusion or Entry Inhibitors

5. Integrase Inhibitors
What are the actions of Nucleoside/Nucleotide Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)?
1. Interfere with the action of an HIV protein called reverse transcriptase, which the virus needs to make new copies of itself

2. Suppress production of reverse transcriptase and inhibit viral DNA synthesis and genetic replication
What are the actions of Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)?
1. Stop HIV from replicating within cells by inhibiting the synthesis of the enzyme reverse transcriptase (RT)

2. Suppresses viral replication but does not kill the virus
What are the actions of Protease Inhibitors (PIs)?
1. Inhibit the protease enzyme, which is another protein involved in the HIV replication process

2. Prevent viral replication and release of viral particles
What are the actions of Fusion or Entry Inhibitors?
Fusion or entry inhibitors prevent HIV from binding to or entering human immune cells
What are the actions of Integrase Inhibitors?
Integrase inhibitors interfere with the integrase enzyme, which HIV needs to insert its genetic material into human cells
What proteins are involved in the HIV replication process?
1. Transcriptase

2. Protease
What are the examples of Nucleoside Analog Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NRTIs)?
1. Zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT)
2. Didanosine (ddI)
3. Zalcitabine (ddC)
4. Lamivudine (Epivir)
5. Stavudine (Zerit)
What are the examples of Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors (NNRTIs)?
1. Neviraline (Viramune)
2. Delavirdine (Rescriptor)
3. Efavirenz (Sustiva)
What are the examples of Protease Inhibitors (PIs)?
1. Ritonavir (Norvir)
2. Indinavir (Crixivan)
3. Nelfinavir (Viracept)
4. Saquinavir (Invirase)
What are the advantages of protease inhibitors (PIs)?
Fewer side effects
What are the disadvantages of protease inhibitors (PIs)?
Shown rapid resistance
What have researchers from Stanford and Harvard found to be the best combination of drugs?
1. Efavirenz (Sustiva- NNRTI)

2. Combination drug Zidovudine (AZT-NRTI ) and Lamivudine (Epivir- NRTI) sold under the brand name Combivir
What is the preferred treatment for HIV/AIDS according to WHO?
AZT or TDF
What are the WHO's recommended drug combinations for treatment of HIV/AIDS?
1. AZT is also called zidovudine or ZDV

2. TDF is also called tenofovir

3. d4T is also called stavudine

4. ABC is also called abacavir

5. 3TC is also called lamivudine

6. FTC is also called emtricitabine

7. EFV is also called efavirenz

8. NVP is also called nevirapine
What is HIV drug resistance?
The failure of one or more antiretroviral drugs to keep viral replication suppressed in a treated individual because of breakthrough replication of drug-resistant viral strains
When is HIV drug resistance suspected?
Resistance is suspected when the viral load begins to rise, CD4 count begins to decrease, or symptoms increase or worsen
What is HIV drug resistance indicative of?
Resistance indicates treatment failure
What are the reasons for treatment failure?
1. Lack of access to costly drugs (“failure of medical economics”)

2. Lack of access to clinicians experienced in treating HIV and AIDS (“failure of informatics”)

3. Inappropriate pharmacokinetics including insufficient potency of the drug regimen, poor GI absorption of the drug, and adverse drug-to-drug or drug-food interactions

4. Failure of patient to adhere to the drug regimen
What are the significances of adherence to HIV/AIDS therapy?
1. Critical component of ART

2. Missing a dose can lead to viral mutations that allow HIV to become resistant to the drugs

3. Adherence rates of better than 95% are required to prevent disease progression, opportunistic diseases, and viral drug resistance

4. Subtherapeutic levels of the drug can promote resistance and cross-resistance
What is an opportunistic infection?
1. Infections caused by pathogens that usually do not cause disease in a person with a healthy immune system, but can affect people with a poorly functioning or suppressed immune system

2. These pathogens take this "opportunity" to cause an infection
What causes an opportunistic infection?
1. Those caused by microorganisms that are continually present as part of the normal flora and are kept in check by normal immune function

2. When immune function is depressed or compromised, these microoganisms cause infection
What viral load correlates with the onset of an opportunistic infection?
Increased viral load (>100,000 copies) correlates with opportunistic infection onset
What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV persons?
Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)
What is Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
Protozoal infection caused by Pneumocystis Carinii
What is the incidence range of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
Incidence ranges from 75-80%.
What are the clinical manifestations of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
Pneumonia
What are the treatments of Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia (PCP)?
1. Trimethoprim Sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim. Septra)

2. Pentamidine

3. Dapsone

4. Mepro

5. Prednisone
What is Toxoplasmosis Encephalitis?
Protozoal infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii
How is Toxoplasmosis Encephalitis acquired?
Through contact with contaminated cat feces or by ingesting infected, undercooked meat
What are the clinical manifestations of Toxoplasmosis Encephalitis?
Disseminated retinitis
What are the pharmacological treatments of Toxoplasmosis Encephalitis?
1. Pyrimethamine
2. Sulfadiazine
3. Clindamycin
4. Leukovorin
What is Cryptosporiodosis?
Protozoal infection caused by Cryptosporidium
What are the clinical manifestations of Cryptosporiodosis?
Gastroenteritis — ranges from mild diarrhea to cholera-like syndrome
What are the treatments for Cryptosporiodosis?
Investigational only, symptomatic treatments
What is Candidiasis?
Fungal infection caused by the Candida species
What are the clinical manifestations of Candidiasis?
1. Stomatitis
2. Sophagitis
3. Vaginal candidiasis
What is stomatitis?
Thrush
What is sophagitis?
Cottage cheese-like, yellow-white plaques and inflammation
What is vaginal candidiasis?
Severe pruritus (itchiness), thick white vaginal discharge
What are the treatments for Candidiasis?
1. Nystatin
2. Clotrimazole
3. Ketoconazole
4. Fluconazole
5. Amphotericin B
What is Cryptococcosis?
Fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus Neoformans
What are the clinical manifestations of Cryptococcosis?
1. Severe, debilitating meningitis
2. Encephalitis
3. Pneumonia
4. Disseminated disease
What are the treatments for Cryptococcosis?
1. Amphotericin B
2. Fluconazole
What is Histoplasmosis?
Fungal infection caused by Histoplasma Capsulatum
What are the clinical manifestations of Histoplasmosis?
1. Begins as respiratory infection (Pneumonia)

2. Progresses to widespread infection

3. Hepatomegaly

4. Splenomegaly

5. Lymphadenopathy
What are the treatments for Histoplasmosis?
1. Amphotericin B
2. Fluconazolet
What are the risk factors for Histoplasmosis?
Exposure to bird or bat droppings
What is Mycobacterium Avium-Intracellulare Complex (MAC)?
Bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium Avium of Mycobacterium Intracellulare
What are the clinical manifestations of Mycobacterium Avium-Intracellulare Complex (MAC)?
1. Pneumonia

2. GI tract infection (diarrhea)

3. Systemic infection—fever, weight loss, anorexia

4. Positive cultures from blood, lymph nodes, bone marrow
What are the treatments for Mycobacterium Avium-Intracellulare Complex MAC)?
1. Clarithromycin + Ethambutol + possibly Rifabutin

2. May use Azithromycin
What is Tuberculosis?
Bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
What % of patients with AIDS and TB have extrapulmonary disease sites?
More than 50% of patients with AIDS and TB have extrapulmonary disease sites
What are the extrapulmonary disease sites of patients with AIDS and TB?
1. CNS
2. Bones
3. Liver
4. Spleen
5. Skin
6. GI tract
What is the PPD test result of patients with AIDS and TB?
The person with TB and CD4 <200 mm3 may NOT have a positive PPD because of an inability to mount an immune response to the antigen
What is anergy?
A false negative PPD test in patients with AIDS and TB
What causes anergy?
An inability to mount an immune response to the antigen
What are the treatments for Tuberculosis?
Isoniazid (INH) + Rifampin + Ethambutol +/- Pyrazinamide
What defines an AIDS case?
Two or more episodes of pneumonia in a 12-month period is an AIDS case definition
What are the opportunistic viral infections of persons with HIV/AIDS?
1. Cytomegalovirus
2. Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
3. Varicella Zoster Virus (VSV)
What are the clinical manifestations of Cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
1. CMV Retinitis
2. CMV Pneumonia
3. CMV colitis
4. CMV esophagitis
5. CMV hepatitis
What are the treatments for Cytomegalovirus (CMV)?
1. Ganciclovir
2. Foscarnet
3. Cidifovir
What are the clinical manifestations of Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
1. Mucocutaneous (mouth, genital, rectal) blisters and/or ulcers

2. Pneumonia

3. Proctitis

4. Esophagitis

5. Encephalitis
What are the treatments for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
1. Acyclovir
2. Valacyclovir
3. Famcyclovir
What is the 1st line treatment for Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)?
Acyclovir
What are the clinical manifestations of Varicella Zoster Virus (VSV)?
1. Dermatomal skin lesions (shingles)

2. Encephalitis
What are the treatments for Varicella Zoster Virus (VSV)?
1. Acyclovir
2. Foscarnet
What is the most common malignancy occurring in 1-21% of clients with AIDS?
Kaposi’s Sarcoma
What is Kaposi’s Sarcoma?
A malignancy caused by the Human Herpes Virus-8
Which group has the highest incidence of Kaposi’s Sarcoma?
Men infected through homosexual contact (MSM)
What are the clinical manifestations of Kaposi’s Sarcoma?
1. Disseminated mucocutaneous lesions often involving skin, lymph nodes, visceral organs (lungs, GI)

2. Purplish-brown, raised lesions that are not usually painful or pruritic
What are the treatments for Kaposi’s Sarcoma?
1. Surgical excision or radiation to small, localized lesions

2. Chemotherapy with Vincristine and Bleomycin, Interferon, Etoposide (VP-16), Pactitaxel (Taxol)
What are the nursing diagnoses for persons with HIV/AIDS?
1. Impaired gas exchange

2. Pain

3. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements

4. Diarrhea

5. Impaired skin integrity

6. Disturbed thought process

7. Situational low self esteem

8. Social isolation