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65 Cards in this Set

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#56. At a missile site, The Rapid Execution and Combat Targeting is used in place of what AN/FLR-97 subassembly?

a. The teleprinter
b. The HA VDU assembly
c. The north/south antenna loop
d. The electrical surge arrestor assembly
A. The teleprinter
#43. Which of the following statements concerning SCOPE Command RF loop back testing is not true?

a. The same conditions (frequency, time of day, antenna) should exist each time the test is conducted
b. The test indicates how well the station communicates with a distant station
c. The test is conducted utilizing only local equipment
d. The test is actually conducted three times
B. The test indicates how well the station communicates with a distant station
#62. Which public address system component is capable of taking one input and providing several equal outputs?

a. Mixer
b. Distribution Amplifier
c. Power multi-amplifier
d. Dual diversity amplifier
B. Distribution Amplifier
#63. Which statement concerning public address system speaker ratings is true?

a. All speakers are rated in volume, which is expressed in dBi
b. All speakers are rated in volume, which is expressed in dBm
c. Peak power denotes the wattage a speaker can handle on a continuous basis
d. RMS power denotes the wattage a speaker can handle on a continuous basis
D. RMS power denotes the wattage a speaker can handle on a continuous basis
#64. When is it best to use a public address system amplifier's 70-volt output speaker connection?

a. When loud volume is a primary consideration
b. When loud volume is not a primary consideration
c. When the AC source voltage is lower than normal
d. When the AC source voltage is higher than normal
B. When loud volume is not a primary consideration
#65. Why is it important to choose the correct speaker configuration (series, parallel, series-parallel), when setting up a PA system?

a. The configuration chosen affects the amount of feedback heard
b. The configuration chosen determines which connectors to use
c. The configuration affects the impedance seen at the amplifier
d. The configuration chosen determine cable diameter requirements
C. The configuration affects the impedance seen at the amplifier
#46. Refer to figure 5-2, which module contains all of the voice/data interfaces to external equipment?

a. RF/IF module
b. COMSEC module
c. Controller module
d. Transmitter module
B. COMSEC module
#47. Refer to figure 5-2, which module of the AN/PSC-5 provides the primary operator interface for RT status control?

a. RF/IF module
b. Modem module
c. Controller module
d. Transmitter module
C. Controller module
#48. Which AN/PSC-5 module performs most of the unit's receive functions?

a. RF/IF module
b. Receiver module
c. Controller module
d. Synthesizer module
A. RF/IF module
#49. What is the primary purpose of a missile site's ultra high frequency communications?

a. To provide contact with the airborne command post and other aircraft in range
b. To provide contact with local ground-based command post and aircraft in range
c. Point-to-point contact with field units operating under the COMAFFOR
d. Point-to-point contact with security forces providing perimeter ground defense
A. To provide contact with the airborne command post and other aircraft in range
#50. What is the transmit output power of the survivable low frequency communications system (SLFCS)?

a. 10 Watts
b. 100 Watts
c. 1000 Watts
d. It does not transmit
D. It does not transmit
#51. When the survivable low frequency communication system at a missile site receives a message, how is that message displayed?

a. On the teleprinter
b. On the receiver front-panel
c. On the operator control unit
d. On the higher authority visual display unit
D. On the higher authority visual display unit
#52. Which missile site component enables monitor and control of SLFCS, AFSATCOM, and SACDIN directly from the console?

a. The control-indicator
b. The remote menu processing controller
c. The intermediate satellite system terminal
d. The remote message processing subsystem
D. The remote message processing subsystem
#53. What is the minimum output power of the UHF radio system?

a. 25 Watts
b. 50 Watts
c. 100 Watts
d. 150 Watts
C. 100 Watts
#54. Which statement concerning electromagnetic pulses is true?

a. Older circuitry is more susceptible to damage
b. Newer circuitry is more susceptible to damage
c. Vulnerability to EMP decreases as complexity increases
d. It takes more EMP energy to damage a transistor than to damage an electron tube
B. Newer circuitry is more susceptible to damage
#55. What requirement must be met to enable the survivable low frequency communications system's demodulator to decipher encrypted signals?

a. Receiver and distant transmitter have time synchronization only
b. Receiver and distant transmitter have same cipher key only
c. Receiver and distant transmitter be time synchronize and have identical antenna
d. Receiver and distant transmitter be time synchronized and have identical cipher key
D. Receiver and distant transmitter be time synchronized and have identical cipher key
#57. What does the term "ICOM" indicate when we speak of the RT-1523 SINCGARS radios?

a. Internal call-out module
b. Intelligent communication
c. Integrated communications
d. Integrated communications security
D. Integrated communications security
#58. Which RT-1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency-hopping information that is embedded in a receiver signal?

a. The interleaver
b. The modulator
c. The demodulator
d. The exciter/power amplifier module
A. The interleaver
#59. The SIDETONE DISABLE line of the RT-1523 SINCGARS can be set to logic 1 if

a. the temperature of the radio set rises above 105 degrees Centigrade
b. the temperature of the radio set falls below 5 degrees Centigrade
c. the frequency of the system goes above 200 Megahertz
d. the frequency of the system falls below 10 Megahertz
A. the temperature of the radio set rises above 105 degrees Centigrade
#60 From what source does the RT-1523 SINCGARS radio's control module obtain instructions during remote and local operation respectively?

a. Keyboard interface and front panel
b. Remote I/O module and front panel
c. Keyboard interface and local I/O module
d. Remote I/O module and keyboard assembly
B. Remote I/O module and front panel
#61. In the RT-1523 SINCGARS, what happens if the VSWR goes above 5:1 and you are transmitting with a man pack antenna?

a. output power is reduced
b. output power is increased
c. output frequency is reduced
d. output frequency is increased
A. output power is reduced
#29. Which signals are recorded on the Digital Voice Recording System digital recording unit hard drive?

a. Only signals containing audio
b. Radio communications signals only
c. Telephone communications signals only
d. Only signal approved by the tower supervisor position
A. Only signals containing audio
#30. When does the Digital Voice Recording System digital recording unit copy hard-drive information to a digital audiotape?

a. Continuously
b. Every 15 minutes
c. Every 30 minutes
d. Only when prompted by an operator
B. Every 15 minutes
#31. Which statement best describes the function of a high frequency system enhanced with automatic link establishment capability?

a. The ALE circuitry ensures only the most-critical data is transmitted
b. The ALE circuitry ensures all data is transmitted, but sends the most-critical first
c. The ALE circuitry stores transmitted intelligence in its memory and sends it when the channel is clear
d. The ALE circuitry automatically tests several channels and selects the clearest for communications
D. The ALE circuitry automatically tests several channels and selects the clearest for communications
#32. Which term identifies the process of transmitting an address code to establish a communication link via SCOPE Command?

a. Call
b. Request
c. Sounding
d. Acknowledgement
A. Call
#33. Link Quality Analysis we define as

a. reviewing a network station listing and determining which is assigned a clear channel
b. reviewing a network station listing and assigning a channel to each
c. the process of sounding and determining channel clarity
d. the process of calling and determining channel clarity
C. the process of sounding and determining channel clarity
#34. If your SCOPE Command station links with a station that is not preprogrammed into your other-station address listing, this other station's address is

a. saved in non-volatile memory until LQA can be accomplished
b. deleted due to non-accomplishment of LQA
c. referred to as a temporary address
d. referred to as a floating address
D. referred to as a floating address
#35. Each SCOPE Command station consists of three sites,

a. transceiver, monitor, and analysis
b. transceiver, monitor, and control
c. transmit, receive, and monitor
d. transmit, receive, and control
D. transmit, receive, and control
#36. Where is the SCOPE Command's centralized network control station located?

a. Andrews AFB, MD
b. At Keesler AFB, MS
c. The Pentagon, Washington D.C.
d. At each SCOPE Command station
A. Andrews AFB, MD
#37. Which SCOPE Command mission provides high frequency communications for the President, Vice President, and Cabinet members?

a. DCS HF Entry
b. USAF Global
c. Mystic Star
d. SITFAA
C. Mystic Star
#38. What is one advantage of using SCOPE Command's high frequency signal as opposed to satellite for sending and receiving E-mail?

a. Better security
b. HF is most likely to be available during crisis
c. HF allows attachment of larger test documents
d. Satellite E-mail is often overrun with Spam
B. HF is most likely to be available during crisis
#39. Each SCOPE Command's station's three sites are interconnected by

a. a Wide area network
b. a Local area network
c. a wireless telecommunications link
d. a tunnel, which houses all intersite communications cabling
A. a Wide area network
#40. What method of keying is used by SCOPE Command's digital electronic switch when a circuit is a phone patch?

a. Half-duplex ground
b. Full-duplex ground
c. Foot-switch PTT
d. VOX
D. VOX
#41. What is the primary difference between the receive/transmit units used at the transmitter sites and the RT units used at the receiver site at a SCOPE Command station?

a. There is no difference, they are the same unit
b. One has a detector, the other a power amplifier
c. Internally driven software that is loaded from the CNCS
d. One has a detector, the other has a signal discriminator
A. There is no difference, they are the same unit
#42 What is the output power of the SCOPE Command power amplifier?

a. 500 Watts
b. 2000 Watts
c. 4000 Watts
d. 5000 Watts
C. 4000 Watts
#44. In a Demand Assigned Multiple Access system, which functions as the network control station?

a. Only a network management system outside of the satellite's footprint
b. The central network control station at Andrews AFB, MD
c. Any remote unit possessing the appropriate hardware and software
d. The nodal control element at Andrews AFB, MD
C. Any remote unit possessing the appropriate hardware and software
#45. How many subscribers can a single transponder support by using a Demand Assigned Multiple Access system?

a. A maximum of 10
b. A maximum of 100
c. Several thousand
d. Several hundred
C. Several thousand
#08. What is the maximum power output of the AN/GRC-206 in high frequency single sideband (HF SSB) mode?

a. 75 watts
b. 100 watts
c. 150 watts
d. 500 watts
C. 150 watts
#09. In the AN/GRC-206 HF SSB subsystem, what is the purpose of the power supply overload latch circuit?

a. It produces an alarm in the event of a tune fault
b. It shut down voltage output in the event of a tune fault
c. It produces an alarm if an abnormally large load appears
d. It shuts down voltage output if an abnormally large load appears
D. It shuts down voltage output if an abnormally large load appears
#10. Which AN/FLR-9 subassembly combines radio frequency inputs in such a way as to produce a highly directional beam antenna?

a. VCATS
b. RFSM
c. Beam forming equipment
d. RF summation equipment
C. Beam forming equipment
#11. For up to how many receivers does each AN/FLR-9 RFSM operator control unit provide operators the capability of selecting the radio frequency beam.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
D. 16
#12. How many rings of antenna elements and how many elements are there in the AN/FLR-9 array?

a. 2, 192
b. 3, 192
c. 2, 96
d. 3, 96
B. 3, 192
#13. Which is a function of the AN/FLR-9 reflecting screens?

a. Physical support of A and B band elements
b. Increase the power gain of individual elements
c. Shield the antenna elements away from the elements
B. Increase the power gain of individual elements
#14. Which function is performed by the AN/FLR-9 ground screens?

a. Ensure uniform impedance from element to element regardless of soil properties
b. Ensure uniform impedance within the feed cables regardless of soil properties
c. Impedance matching between antenna elements and receivers
d. Impedance matching between antenna elements and soil
A. Ensure uniform impedance from element to element regardless of soil properties
#15. What is the purpose of the AN/FLR-9 Central Building line tuners?

a. Compensation for feed cable electrical length variations
b. Provide automatic tuning of individual element couplers
c. Compensation for feed cable physical length variations
d. Provide manual tuning of individual element couples
A. Compensation for feed cable electrical length variations
#16. What indication does the AN/FLR-9 RFSM provide to the operator to indicate a successful connection has been made?

a. Audible alarm from the OCU
b. Audible alarm from the receiver
c. Visible verification on the OCU display
d. Visible verification on the receiver's display
C. Visible verification on the OCU display
#17. Which AN/FLR-9 RFSM assembly provides an interface between the operator control units and the control subsystem?

a. IDMUX
b. Goniometer
c. RFSM switch matrix
d. Built in Test Equipment
A. IDMUX
#18. From what source does the AN/FLR-9 RFSM operator control unit receive power?

a. From an associated receiver
b. From the IDMUX
c. Lithium battery
d. NICAD battery
B. From the IDMUX
#19. Where is the Enhanced Terminal Voice System maintenance position located?

a. In the bottom floor of the ATC tower
b. In the central equipment racks
c. At the transmit/receiver site
d. In the ATC tower cab
B. In the central equipment racks
#20. What capabilities can be provided at the Enhance Terminal Voice System maintenance position?


a. system monitor capabilty only
b. the same as the operator position
c. all functions accept operator position monitor
d. all functions accept active-to-tower aircraft channels
B. the same as the operator position
#21. Which term identifies a display of Enhanced Terminal Voice System position programming?

a. TED
b. Map
c. Grid
d. Page
B. Map
#22. Which Enhanced Terminal Voice System assembly is capable of changing system passwords and displaying system fault location?

a. Local position
b. Flight data position
c. Supervisory configuration terminal
d. Configuration and control subsystem
C. Supervisory configuration terminal
#23. Which Enhanced Terminal Voice System assembly is responsible for interfacing between the demarcation panel and radio processor cards?

a. Radio distribution panel
b. Radio conferencer panel
c. Supervisory configuration terminal
d. Radio subsystem configuration panel
A. Radio distribution panel
#24. How many telephone lines are provided by each telephone processor?

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
D. 1
#25. In the digital Voice Recording System, what controls operation of the digital recording unit?

a. The TED
b. The SCT
c. The computer workstation
d. The Gateway Control Interface
C. The computer workstation
#26. The uninterruptible power supply for the Digital Voice Recording System is designed to provide power for

a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 5 minutes
D. 5 minutes
#27. In the Digital Voice Recording System, what is the recording capacity of each digital audiotape?

a. 100 linear hours
b. 500 linear hours
c. 750 linear hours
d. 1000 linear hours
B. 500 linear hours
#28. In the Digital Voice Recording System, how many satellites need to be acquired by the Global Positioning System receiver for an accurate time stamp?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
C. 3
#02. Which set of operation modes identifies the communications capabilities of the AN/GRC-206

a. HF SSB; VHF FM; VHF AM; UHF AM; UHF PM
b. HF SSB; VHF FM; VHF AM; UHF AM
c. HF SSB; UHF AM; UHF FM
d. HF SSB; UHF FM; VHF AM
B. HF SSB; VHF FM; VHF AM; UHF AM
#03. Which function does the AN/GRC-206 signal distribution unit provide?

a. Provides interface with the RSC for uninterruptible power to the system
b. Provides interface with the RSC for remote or local operation
c. Ensures equal power distribution to each subassembly
d. Connects subassemblies to one common antenna
B. Provides interface with the RSC for remote or local operation
#04. What is the maximum output power of the AN/VRC-83 that is installed in the AN/GRC-206?

a. 2 Watts
b. 10 Watts
c. 25 Watts
d. 30 Watts
D. 30 Watts
#05. Refer to figure 1-3, how is tuning of the main receiver accomplished in the RT-1319?

a. By the data converter assembly in response to a TRANSMIT KEY signal
b. By the data converter assembly in response to keyboard input
c. By the reflectometer signal in the transmitter assembly
d. By the reflectometer signal in the modulator assembly
B. By the data converter assembly in response to keyboard input
#06. What does the AN/VRC-83 guard receiver use to produce its intermediate frequency?

a. Internal oscillators
b. It has no IF because it can't be retuned
c. The kHz and MHz digits on the display blink
d. The decimal separating kHz and MHz on the display blinks.
A. Internal oscillators
#07. How is the operator alerted when AN/VRC-83 source voltage drops below 20 VDC?

a. The RT unit shuts down
b. An audible alarm is heard
c. The kHz and MHz digits on the display blink
d. The decimal separating kHz and MHz on the display blinks
D. The decimal separating kHz and MHz on the display blinks
#01. What is the purpose of the reference frequency oscillator in the AN/GRC-206?

a. To produce multiple RF signals used for frequency hopping
b. To produce all RF signals used for transmit in the AN/GRC-206
c. To eliminate the upper and lower sidebands during SSB ECCM operation
d. To generate a frequency that is used to control time keeping of internal clocks
D. To generate a frequency that is used to control time keeping of internal clocks