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208 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Colonization: |
the growth of microbes at any anatomical site |
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Mucous membranes: |
the outer layer of epithelial cells that are on the surface on many tissues |
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Epithelial cells: |
outer layer of tissues |
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Sebaceous glands: |
sweat glands with a hair follicle |
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Gingival crevice: |
space/gap between the gingiva (gums) and tooth |
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Dextran: |
a glucose polymer that aids in the attachment of biofilms |
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Dextransucrase: |
bacterial enzyme that adds glucose to dextran |
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Carriers: |
individuals of which have pathogenic bacteria but no disease; can shed pathogens to others |
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Lactobacillus acidophilus: |
beneficial bacteria of the vagina that ferments glycogen and produces acid; inhibits bad bacteria and pathogens |
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pathogenicity: |
ability of a microorganism to cause disease |
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opportunistic pathogen: |
can cause disease because the normal resistance mechanisms are weakened (takes advantage of opportunities such as weakened immune system) |
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adherence factors: |
aid in the attachment of microorganisms to host tissues |
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tissue tropism: |
specificity of host tissues to recognize and bind only certain pathogens |
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Understand the three stages of colonization of mucus membrane epithelial cells. |
loose association: in near proximity adhesion: binded to epithelial cells colonization: groups of microbes |
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What are the factors that affect microbial populations on the skin? |
age, personal hygiene, and moisture |
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How do enzymes in saliva protect against bacteria? |
Lactoperoxidase makes reactive oxygen that kills bacteria; Lysozymes cleave peptidoglycan |
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What are the steps leading to formation of plaque and tartar? |
begins as layer of glycoprotein on surface of clean tooth; attachment and colonization by several bacteria; continued growth results in thicker layer (plaque); plaque calcifies (tartar) |
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What are dental caries and gingivitis and how are microbes involved? |
Dental caries: cavities; the products of the microbes in the biofilm degrade tooth enamel
Gingivitis: infection of gingival crevice; infection leads to tissue inflammation and bone loss |
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Review the anatomy of the human gastrointestinal tract (stomach, small intestine, large intestine) and how pH and oxygen affect microbial populations; how does the stomach act as a barrier to entry of microbes? |
Esophagus-------->Anus Low pH-------------->High pH Aerobic-------------->Anaerobic few bacteria-------->lots of bacteria
Stomach has pH~2, kills many microbes |
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What are some examples of the beneficial effects of intestinal microbes? |
aid the nutrition of the host, breakdown substances, etc
vitamin synthesis, digestion of food, steroid metabolism and metabolism of bile acids, stimulate immune system |
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How do microbes play a protective role in the respiratory and urogenital tracts? |
normal microflora antagonize pathogens from growing |
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Know the steps of pathogenesis leading from exposure to disease. |
Exposure: cell is exposed to pathogens Adherence: pathogens stick to skin/mucosa Invasion: pathogens invade cell via epithelium Infection: growth/production of toxins/vir fact Toxicity/invasiveness: local and distant sites Tissue Damage/Disease: DX |
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What is virulence and how can it be quantified? |
virulence is a measure of pathogenicity; determined using the ID50 and LD50 (infective and lethal doses); Less cells introduced=more virulent |
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How do adherence factors aid pathogenesis? |
they attach microorganisms to host tissues, usually specific (tissue tropism), via fimbrae and pili, so they can enter and infect a cell |
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Virulence factors: |
pathogen-produced substance (protein, enzyme, toxin, etc) that promotes the establishment and pathogenesis of an infectious disease |
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Hyaluronidase: |
enzyme that breaks down hyaluronic acid polymer that glues hose cells together |
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collagenase: |
enzyme that breaks down collagen in connective tissue |
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streptokinase: |
enzyme that destroys fibrin of blood clots |
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coagulase: |
creates a fibrin layer around the cell that prevents immune system from detecting the virus (clotting) |
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enterotoxins: |
subset of exotoxins that affect the small intestine |
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diarrhea: |
results in large loss of fluid due to osmosis |
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compromised: |
host of which mechanisms of resisting pathogens is weakened |
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immunocompromised: |
host mechanisms of resisting pathogen weakened due to weakened immune system |
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Understand the differences between tissue specific infections and systemic infections; what are bacteremia and septicemia? |
tissue specific: systemic:
bacteremia: bacteria circulating in the blood septicemia: inflammatory response to infection of the blood |
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What are the three common types of exotoxins? |
cytotoxins: cause damage to host cell membranes; lysis and death AtoxinsB : two subunits; B binds to surface of host cell, A enters host cell and acts a enzyme to cause damage Superantigens: proteins that cause an immune response resulting in inflammation and damage |
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How do the three types of cytolytic exotoxins discussed in class cause host cell damage; how can hemolysin production by a bacterium be tested in a laboratory? |
hemolysins: lyses red blood cells phospholipases: cut phopholipids and destroy host cell membranes Staphylococcal a-toxin: holes in membrane and causes lysis |
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What is the mode of action of diphtheria toxin; know the pathogen; how does the A fragment inhibit ribosomes? |
blocks protein translation; Corynebacterium dephtheriae; blocks tRNA from entering the ribosome |
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Review the mode of action of AB toxins of tetanus, botulism, cholera, and Shiga toxin; why is there a large fluid loss in cholera; what are spastic paralysis and flaccid paralysis; what is Type A botulism toxin used for? |
........................................ increase of cyclic AMP production creates increase in ion concentration in small intestine, osmosis results in fluid loss (diarrhea) spastic paralysis: .............. flaccid paralysis: .................... type A has medical uses (Botox; back spasms) |
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What are endotoxins and how can they be detected? |
lipopolysaccharides of Gram-negative bacteria that are release into surrounding tissues after lysis of the cell;
Limulus amoebocyte assay (LAL): generates color or fluorescence |
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Understand what innate resistance is and what factors can reduce resistance and increase risk of infections? |
protection from pathogens that does not rely on previous exposure to the pathogen; age, stress, overall health, immunocompromised host |
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innate immunity: |
preexisting ability to recognize pathogens or their toxins and destroy or inactivate them |
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adaptive immunity: |
relies on previous exposure to a pathogen |
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antigen: |
any molecule or portion of a molecule that stimulates an immune response |
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phagocyte: |
specialized blood cells that engulf and kill most pathogens |
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leukocyte: |
type of phagocyte |
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neutrophil: |
type of phagocyte |
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macrophage: |
first line of defense against pathogens |
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pathogen associated molecular patterns: |
structures of the cell of many common pathogens; recognized by phagocytes |
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plasma cells: |
differentiated Bcells that produce antibodies to target pathogens for destruction |
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memory B cells: |
Bcells that remain in the blood stream to provide secondary antibody response to subsequent re-exposure to the same pathogen |
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pattern recognition receptors: |
on surface of phagocytes so that they can recognize pathogens |
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Tcell receptors: |
receptor of Tcells that recognized and binds a single, specific antigen |
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antiserum: |
serum containing antibodies against the specific pathogen or toxin |
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humoral immunity: |
(OR antibody-mediated immunity) |
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toxoid: |
exotoxins that have been chemically inactivated but are still antigenic |
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What are the differences between adaptive and innate immunity? |
adaptive (acquired) immunity: prior exposure of specific pathogens innate immunity: does not rely on previous exposure, ALL potential pathogens |
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What aspect of foreign cells is recognized by phagocytes; what happens when the foreign cells are detected; how are pathogens destroyed inside phagocytes? |
pathogen-associated molecular patterns; phagocyte comes in contact with PAMP, activates to ingest and destroy pathogen, presents pathogen; enzymes excrete toxins that degrade bacteria |
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Describe the 3 types of Tcells; what does each do; how are antigens presented? |
Cytotoxic Tcell: kills host cells that have been infected by a virus Helper Tcell 1: releases cytokines that induce inflammation Helper Tcell 2: stimulate antigen-reactive Bcells to proliferate and produce antibodies |
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What are B cells responsible for? |
antibody-mediated immunity
recognizing and degrading antigens, presenting to Tcells, produce antibodies and provide memory for secondary immune response |
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What component of the immunoglobin binds the antigen; describe the structure of IgG; what are epitopes? |
the variable region; variable and constant regions, light and heavy chains |
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WHat are superantigens and what do they do? |
bacterial exotoxins that interact indirectly with host Helper Tcells and antigen-presenting cells |
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Understand the types of artificial immunity. |
Active: vaccines and boosters to produce response Passive: injection of antibodies |
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Know the basic facts about the 4 types of immunogenic materials used for preparation of vaccines. |
Toxoid: exotoxins that have been chemically inactivated but are still antigenic Inactivated pathogen: pathogens killed by chemical or heat Live attenuated vaccine: mutated variant of a pathogen Synthetic vaccine: genetically engineered proteins or peptides |
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Describe the methods used to produce the seasonal flu vaccine. |
CDC surveys globe for emerging strains, trivalent or quadrivalent influenza killed vaccine or attenuated influenza vaccine, each seasonal vaccine has 3 viruses (A- H3N2, regular seasonal A- H1N1, B) |
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Bacteriuria: |
presence of abnormal pathogens in urine; most often detected using urinalysis dip stick or growth-dependent methods |
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Selective medium: |
contains substances that inhibit growth of certain types of bacteria |
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Differential medium: |
includes compounds that allows visualization of certain biochemical pathways and products |
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BSL: |
Biosafety Level: 4 classifications based on levels of risk; higher numbers are for more dangerous pathogens |
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Mantoux skin test: |
common test for previous exposure of current infection with TB |
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antibody titer: |
concentration of antibodies |
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protein A: |
proteins on the surface of S. aureus cells, can use latex beads coated with antibodies to protein A to utilize indirect (passive) agglutination |
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Review the laboratory BSL biosafety levels. |
BSL 1: few safety controls; open lab bench; non-pathogenic organisms; limited access BSL 2: open bench but gloves, coat, eye protection, moderate pathogens BSL 3: pathogens; slight negative pressure, extensive filtration of air BSL 4: life threatening pathogens transmitted by aerosols; pressurized suits for workers; Ebola
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What are MIC, disk diffusion assay, and Etest used for- how are they performed? |
sensitivity to antibiotics; MIC: uses tube dilution assay Disk Diffusion Assay: pure culture on plate, then antibiotics on plate, zones of inhibition Etest: MIC is read from edge of clear zone using the scale on the strips; tear drop shapes |
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Understand how antibodies are useful for detecting antigens of pathogens in clinical samples. |
immunofluorescence: direct (purified antibodies can be labeled with fluorescent molecule) indirect (antibodies made that recognize antibodies from another host, then those are purified and labeled with fluorescent molecule-- increases the sensitivity of detection) |
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What is serology and what is it used for? |
the use of antigen-antibody reactions to detect antigens in a clinical specimen or antibodies in the patient's blood |
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What are agglutination reactions; understand the difference between direct and indirect agglutination. |
reactions that use antigens attached to large particles or whole cells to produce visible clumping and aggregation; Direct: soluble antibodies cause clumping of antigens that are on the surface of a cell Indirect: antigens or antibodies are chemically coupled to particles such as latex beads |
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How are purified specific antibodies used for immunofluorescence; what is the difference between direct and indirect immunofluorescence? |
chemically linked to fluorescent molecules; Direct: purified antibodies can be labeled with a fluorescent molecule Indirect: antibodies can also be made that recognize antibodies from another host (anti-rabbit antibodies) |
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What do the direct and indirect ELISA measure; understand briefly how each is performed; which antibody or antigen is provided in their respective assay kit; what are the enzymes linked to? |
Direct ELISA: immobilizes antibody to TEST FOR ANTIGEN; ........................................ Indirect ELISA: immobilizes antigen to TEST FOR ANTIBODY; .................................... |
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What are the sandwich and combination enzyme immunoassays useful for? |
testing for antibodies from a patient |
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Understand the basics of how qPCR measures amount of pathogen DNA in a clinical sample. |
measures the fluorescence of each reaction based upon the amount of double-stranded DNA product; RNA can also be measured via RT-PCR (more DNA=more pathogen) |
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Therapeutic index: |
Therapeutic Dose (ED50) / Toxic Dose (LD50)
lower index=better chemotherapeutic agent |
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LD50: |
the lethal dose that kills 50% |
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ED50: |
the effective dose that heals 50% |
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toxic dose: |
level at which drug becomes toxic to the host |
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selective toxicity: |
kills pathogenic microbes without significant damage to host cells and beneficial microbes |
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therapeutic dose: |
required for effective clinical treatment |
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semisynthetic: |
k |
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growth factor analog: |
k |
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transpeptidase: |
k |
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ionophore antibiotics: |
antibiotic that makes a hole in the membrane for ions to pass |
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DNA gyrase: |
k |
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selective pressure: |
k |
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VRE: |
Vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus;
pathogen that is resistant to vancomycin and other antibiotics; usually occurs in hospital patients; inhabits the intestinal and female genital tract, but also other sites |
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MRSA: |
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureous;
skin pathogen that can become invasive, resistant to almost all antibiotics, problem in healthcare settings |
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Review the modes of action of antimicrobial chemotherapeutic agents. |
k |
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What is the meaning of broad spectrum and narrow spectrum antibiotics? |
those that target a wide range of bacteria versus only specific bacteria |
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Know the modes of action for each antibiotic mentioned on the lecture slides. |
Sulfanilamide: blocks Nucleic acid synthesis Isoniazid: blocks mycolic acid synthesis Quinolones: inhibits DNA gyrase Penicillin: (B-lactam) inhibit peptidoglycan syn. Cephalosporins: B lactam w/ diff structure Aminoglycoside: bind to 30s subunit of ribos. Macrolide: 50s subunit Tetracyclines: 30s, 4 cyclines Daptomycin: hole, proton force gone, cell die |
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What are 5 general mechanisms of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? |
1. Reduced permeability of the antibiotic 2. Inactivation of the antibiotic by a bacterial enzyme 3. Mutation in the antibiotic target 4. Development of a metabolic bypass in a pathway 5. Efflux pump. |
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Understand how selective pressure and antibiotic overuse results in increased prevalence of antibiotic resistant pathogens. |
k |
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What are examples of current antibiotic resistant pathogen threats? |
MRSA VRE |
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Review the strategies that can be used to combat antibiotic resistance. |
Reduce use of antibiotics, Increase development of new antibiotics |
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Prevalence: |
the total number of cases within a population during a specified time period (disease burden) |
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outbreak: |
appearance of a large number of cases in a short time period |
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incidence: |
the number of new cases within a population that occur during a specified time period |
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endemic: |
disease that is constantly present at low levels |
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epidemic: |
increase in an infectious disease within a population above normal levels |
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pandemic: |
disease that is spread across continents |
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subclinical: |
mild to no symptoms |
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mortality: |
Deaths due to disease / Total population
number dead |
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morbidity: |
Incidence of disease (fatal or non) / total pop
number sick/affected |
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reservoirs: |
places or populations that contain infectious agents capable of infecting susceptible individuals |
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zoonoses: |
diseases that primarily infect animals but can also infect humans (zoonotic diseases) |
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vectors: |
live agents that can transmit pathogens |
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fomites: |
inanimate objects that can harbor pathogens |
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vehicles: |
common sources of diseases such as food or water |
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index case: |
first occurrence of a disease in a population |
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How are mortality and morbidity calculated? |
Mortality= number dead / total population
Morbidity= incidence of disease / total pop |
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Understand the difference between acute and chronic infections; what are carriers? |
acute infections: rapid onset of symptoms in a short time period until disease resolves chronic infections: persistent, long term disease that can last months or years with potential subclinical symptoms carriers: individuals with chronic infections |
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Understand the difference between seasonal and sporadic disease occurrence. |
seasonal: observed in diseases present in populations only in specific times of the year
sporadic: |
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Review the stages of disease process: infection, incubation, acute, decline. |
Infection:................................... Incubation: Acute: Decline: |
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What are differences in disease occurrence patterns between common source and host-to-host epidemics; why is there a difference? |
Common source:...................................... Host-to-host: |
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Review what direct and indirect modes of infectious disease transmission are. |
Direct:..................................................... Indirect: |
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What is herd immunity and how does it work? |
some members of a population are immune to a disease; prevents other non-immune individuals from getting the disease |
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Understand what the basic reproduction number is and what it means. |
the number of infected individuals that one infected individual creates; predicts the risk of disease spread in a population |
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Review vector control, reservoir control, and quarantine as strategies used to control the spread of infectious diseases. |
vector control: reducing contact of vectors with susceptible populations (mosquito spray/nets, etc) reservoir control: eliminating (rare) or vaccination of reservoir populations (immunization, etc) quarantine: isolation of possible disease carriers until a disease-free state can be assured |
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How has international travel between developed and undeveloped countries affected the spread of some infectious diseases? |
travelers take vaccines or preventative medications to prevent unknowingly bringing back pathogens into unexposed populations |
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biological weapons: |
k |
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pustules: |
in the case of smallpox, when the infection develops into a skin rash that progresses to these pustules |
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eradication: |
eliminated |
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pneumonia: |
k |
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bacteremia: |
infections within the blood |
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fecal microbiota transplantation: |
treatment for Clostridium difficile that replaces some of the removed microbes to the gut |
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methicillin: |
k |
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invasive infections: |
k |
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What is an emerging infectious disease? |
disease that is newly appearing in a population or re-appearing after many years of absence |
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Understand the reasons why there are emerging infectious diseases. |
ecological changes/economic development (ag, dams, deforestation), human demographics (pop growth, migration, wars, IV drug use), increased international travel, technology and industry (centralized food processing), microbial adaptation (antibiotic resistance), shortcomings of health measures (cutbacks in mosquito control, ineffective AIDS treatment) |
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What are the 3 forms of anthrax- what organs are affected; what is the pathogen; how is it transmitted? |
Cutaneous (skin), Inhalation (respiratory), Gastrointestinal; Bacillus anthracis; transmitted via spores |
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How has smallpox been eliminated from the human population; what is the pathogen? |
only a human reservoir and no asymptomatic carriers with a short period of infectivity, so an effective vaccine could be developed and utilized;
Variola major |
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What are nosocomial infections; how are they transmitted; what are the major sites for these infections? |
occur in individuals as a result of visiting some type of healthcare setting; transmitted via contact (human to human by workers and patients, procedures), airborne (exposed tissues from burns, abrasions), or devices (ventilators, catheters, syringes) |
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Know the type of facility where nosocomial infections most commonly occur. |
acute care hospitals and other healthcare settings |
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Where in the body does Clostridium difficile cause infections; what are major symptoms; what is an effective treatment? |
intestine; watery diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain; discontinue antibiotics, treat with other antibiotics, Fecal microbiota transplantation |
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What are the major CRE organisms; what are examples of antibiotic resistance enzymes they can have? |
E. coli and Klebsiella pneumoniae; New Delhi Metallo Beta Lactamase (NDM) or Klebsiella pneumoniae carbapenemase (KPC) |
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Know what MRSA is; what is the pathogen; what severe infections can it cause? |
........................ Staphylococcus aureus; ........................................................ |
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group A strep: |
Streptococcus pyogenes, cause of strep throat, often start as respiratory infections |
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pharyngitis: |
inflammation of the pharynx (strep throat) |
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necrotizing fasciitis: |
incorrectly described as "flesh eating bacteria" caused by diseases such as anthrax |
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Lancefield groups: |
smaller subsections of B-hemolytic Streptococcal pathogens; Group A: most common, asymptomatic carriers, strep throat, necrotizing fasciitis, Strep. pyogenes Group B: newborns, pregnant women, elderly, immunocompromised, Strep. agalactiae, vagina of women also C, D, F, G, and H |
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pseudomembrane: |
lesion in throat from inflammatory infection that can block airway |
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post-exposure prophylaxis: |
via antibiotics? recommended to those who have had contact with an active pertussis individual |
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Know what diseases are commonly associated with Streptococcus pyogenes; what are the 3 streptococcal syndromes discussed in class? |
Group A strep: pharyngitis (strep throat), scarlet fever, Rheumatic fever, necrotizing fasciitis
................................................ |
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Understand the two diseases caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. |
Pneumonia: invasive lung infection
Bacterial meningitis: infection in the fluid around spinal cord and brain |
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Where do infections occur in diphtheria; what is the pathogen? |
upper respiratory tract; Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
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What pathogen causes pertussis; what are important virulence factors; where do infections occur? |
Bordatella pertussis; filamentous hemagglutinin on surface of bacteria attaches to upper respiratory tract |
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What pathogen causes tuberculosis in humans and animals; what host cells does the bacterium live in? |
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (humans) and M. bovis (animals); macrophages |
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Understand the basic facts about tuberculosis disease progression from exposure to tubercule formation. |
inhaled bacterium settles in lungs and grows; bacteria are phagocytized by macrophages; grow or become dormant; latent TB; hypersensitivity response creates tubercules; tubercules calcify and can be seen via xray |
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meninges: |
consists of 3 layers of brain membrane (pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater) |
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rhinitis: |
inflammation of the nasal mucosal membranes |
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neuraminidase: |
antigen on Influenza A involved in viral release from host cells |
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hemagglutinin: |
antigen on Influenza A involved in viral attachment into host cells |
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avian influenza: |
H5N1, transmitted from bird to human but not human to human, humans are a "dead end host" |
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reassortant virus: |
k |
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know the basics about disease progression in leprosy. |
bacteria invade macrophages associated with peripheral nerves and respiratory tract; bacteria produce lesions on skin; damage and secondary infections lead to disfigurement; very slow progress, 2-10 years |
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what is bacterial meningitis?; what is a common pathogen; what is meningococcemia; what body sites are infected? |
an infection of the lining of the brain and spinal cord, airborne microbes attach to upper respiratory tract and invade bloodstream; Neisseria meningitidis; meningococcal septicemia; spinal cord and membranes of brain |
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Know the major symptoms and transmission modes for measles, mumps, and rubella? |
Measles: infects respiratory tract producing cough, fever, nasal discharge, rash Mumps: inflammation of salivary glands and swelling of neck, virus spreads throughout body, can causes sterility Rubella: milder symptoms, infection of fetus can result in stillbirth, heart, eye and brain damage |
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What diseases are caused by varicella-zoster virus; where does the virus reside after the initial infection; what is shingles? |
chicken pox and shingles; remain in nuclei of nerve cells; reactivation of viruses later in life to cause skin lesions |
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How is the common cold transmitted; what are the most common viruses; how can rhinoviruses evade human immune defenses? |
aerosol transmission and contact by hands; rhinovirus and coronavirus; surface contains 4 capsid proteins with many variants |
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Know the 3 influenza virus groups; what are the antigens used to classify Influenza A subtypes; how are influenza subtypes named? |
A, B, and C; Neuraminidase and Hemagglutinin; according to location, year, and subtypes |
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What are antigenic drift and antigenic shift? |
antigenic drift: mutations in the amino acid sequence of antigens antigenic shift: shuffling and mutations of antigens that are on the surface of the virus envelope |
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Why was highly pathogenic H5N1 a concern and what was done to prevent a possible pandemic in human populations? |
high rate of mutations, ability to acquire genes from other viruses, highly virulent in some humans (but not easily transmitted), also virulent in some other animals;
entire poultry population was eliminated in 3 days |
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abscess: |
k |
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pyogenic: |
k |
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leukocidin: |
virulence factor produced by Staph aureus that is toxic to leukocytes of immune system |
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cirrhosis: |
k |
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parenterally: |
mode of transmission such as blood transfusions, shared needles, tattooing and piercings, sexually |
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What are some common diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus; briefly review virulence factors associated with some types of S. aureus; what type of toxin is toxic shock syndrome toxin? |
acne, impetigo, blood infections, ear infections; hemolysins (lyse red blood cells), coagulase (causes blood to clot), leukocidin (toxic to leukocytes), etc; ........................................... |
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Understand how urease is used by Helicobacter pylori to survive in an acidic environment. |
makes a mucous layer surrounding the infection more alkaline |
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Review how hepatitis A, B, and C are transmitted; do not memorize numbers, but appreciate the disease burden of hepatitis B and C; know the definition of hepatitis. |
A: contaminated food B: parenterally (transfusion, needles, sex) C: blood/body fluids Hepatitis: inflammation of the liver |
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What pathogen causes gonorrhea; why are reinfections a problem; why is CDC concerned about resistance? |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae; multiple strains and mutations of major antigens; the number of isolates with reduced susceptibility is greatly increasing |
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Know the 3 stages of syphilis infection; what is the pathogen? |
1: primary (chancre at infection site) 2: secondary or disseminated (spread to other tissues causing skin rash) 3: tertiary or latent lesions on skin, bone, and nervous system that can last years (blindness, disfigurement)
Treponema pallidum |
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Review the intracellular life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis; what is an obligate intracellular parasite? |
extracellular elementary body enters by endocytosis; differentiates and multiplies; differentiate again into elementary bodies and exit by exocytosis;
only can live/grow inside cell?................................ |
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What sites are infected by HSV-1 and HSV-2; how are each transmitted? |
HSV-1: face; direct contact HSV-2: genitalia; sexual contact |
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What diseases can human papillomavirus cause; how is it transmitted? |
cervical cancers, anal and vaginal cancers, etc;
sexually transmitted |
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Review the steps in viral recognition, binding, and fusion when HIV infects a human host cell; where are CD4 cells found; why are opportunistic pathogens and cancers common in patients with AIDS? |
......................................... |
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zoonosis: |
disease found primarily in animals but transmissible to humans |
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enzootic: |
infectious diseases found only in animal populations |
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epizootic: |
significant increases in infectious disease prevalence within animal populations (equivalent of epidemics in humans) |
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Negri bodies: |
microscopic findings in nerve/brain cells via PCR antibody tests determining rabies |
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dead end host: |
host that can not transmit a disease/pathogen to others |
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How is rabies virus transmitted; how is possible exposure treated? |
by direct animal to animal or animal to human contact, usually from a bite;
post-exposure vaccination (prophylactic vaccine) |
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What are two diseases caused by Hantavirus; how is it transmitted; what animal populations carry the virus? |
Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome and Hemorrhagic fever with renal Syndrome; via respiratory route or direct contact with urine, droppings, or saliva of an infected animal; rodents |
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What is the animal reservoir for West Nile virus; how is it transmitted? |
birds; mosquito |
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Review the mode and vector of transmission for the four Rickettsial diseases; what pathogens cause Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever and Typhus? |
Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever: tick; Rickettsia rickettsii Ehrlichiosis & Anaplasmosis: tick Typhus: head lice Q-Fever: tick and contact; Coxiella burnetii |
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What are the 3 stages of Lyme disease; what is the pathogen and what is the vector? |
1. (First 7-10 days) expanding red ring around bite lesion, flulike symptoms 2. Dissemination of organism; several weeks to months; neurological problems, heart inflammation, arthritis 3. (Years later) demyelination of neurons with symptoms resembling Alzheiner's disease
Borrelia burgdorferi, tick |
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Review the differences between the 3 forms of plague; what is the pathogen and the vector; how is the pathogen transmitted from diseased wild rodents to humans? |
Bubonic plague: lymph nodes Pneumonic plague: lungs Septicemic plague: bloodstream
Yersinia pestis, rodents; infected fleas (bites) |
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Review the pathogen, toxin and prevention of tetanus. |
Clostridium tetani; ...........................................; toxoid vaccine with booster |
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How does the disease known as gas gangrene develop; what is the reservoir for the pathogen? |
the anaerobe colonizes deep wounds and releases extracellular protease enzymes that destroy tissue, fermentation of AA that produce gases and acids;
soil
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Serotype: |
k |
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Enterocolitis: |
k |
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O antigen: |
k |
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H antigen: |
k |
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Perishable foods: |
k |
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Non-perishable foods: |
k |
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Understand the disease burden of foodborne illnesses; what does FoodNet do? |
k |
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What are some examples of the sources of microbes that can contaminate food? |
k |
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Review the food preservation methods discussed in class. |
k |
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Understand the difference between food infection and food poisoning. |
k |
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What properties makes some S. aureus strains food pathogens? |
k |
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What causes salmonellosis; how are different subtypes named; what disease is caused? |
k |
