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246 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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Bacteriostatic

antimicrobials that inhibit microbial growth without killing them

Bacteriocidal

antimicrobials that kill microbes

Bacteriolytic

antimicrobials that kill microbes by lysing them

antiseptic

nontoxic antimicrobial compounds used on living tissues (topical agents)

germicide

kills germs

HEPA filter

High Efficiency Particulate Air-- depth filters tested and certified to remove 0.3 micrometer particles at above 99.97% efficiency

facemask

personal filters that are loose fitting and surround the mouth and nose

N95 respirator

personal filters that are tight-fitting devices that form a seal with the face

Kirby-Bauer test

agar plate test with cultures to see which antibiotics they are sensitive to by "zones of inhibition"

What is pasteurization and how can it be done?

short term heating used on heat-sensitive liquids;


reduce but not eliminate microorganisms;


increases self-life;



batch method or continuous flow

What types of damage are caused by ionizing radiation and UV light; what is a decimal reduction time for radiation exposure?

Damages DNA; the time it takes for the survival fraction of microbes to reduce by 10 fold

What types of filters are commonly used to remove microbes?

Depth Filters: sheets or mats of paper, cellulose or glass


Membrane Filters: used for sterilization; uniform pore size


Personal Protection Masks: Facemasks or N95 respirators; filters both ways, prevents exchange


Know the 4 BSL categories and what type of pathogens they are used for.

BSL 1: least secure; non-pathogenic organisms


BSL 2: moderate pathogens


BSL 3: pathogens


BSL 4: most secure; life-threatening pathogens transmitted by air/aerosols

Understand the types of chemical antimicrobial agents based on their effect on microbial growth.

"-static:" inhibits growth


"-cidal:" kills microbes


"-lytic:" kills microbes by lysing them

What are sterilizers, disinfectants, antiseptics, and sanitizers each used for?

Sterilizers: kill all living organisms; lab equipment


Disinfectants: microbes/pathogens on inanimate surfaces; homes


Antiseptics: nontoxic compound used on living tissue; wound or surgical site


Sanitizers: reduce but not eliminate microbes; food prep

Review factors that influence effectiveness of antimicrobial agents; what forms of microbes are most or least resistant?

Concentration


Duration


Temperature


Presence of other organic material


Level of microbial resistance



Most Resistant: Bacterial Spores


Least Resistant: Enveloped Viruses

What is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) and how is it determined?

the minimal concentration of an antimicrobial agent that will inhibit growth of a given bacterium;



tube dilution assay: given amt of bacterium in each tube, dilution of antimicrobial agent, measure of turbidity (growth)

How is the disc agar diffusion test performed; how are the results interpreted?

organism spread on culture, antibiotic disks applied, growth of organism on plate other than "zones of inhibition"



if it leaves a "zone of inhibition" it is sensitive to that antibiotic



"Kirby-Bauer test"

alignment:

When data is fed into a computer to be overlapped and sequenced.

overlap:

two fragments that have regions of identical sequences that are stacked on each other

contigs:

longer, continuous sequences of data after alignment and overlap

scaffolds:

how contids are linked together

gene prediction:

when you analyze a sequence for an ORF to obtain a protein sequence

annotation:

when you compare protein sequences with regions of known proteins to assign function

open reading frame (ORF):

regions of DNA that code for genes;


usually separated by short regulatory regions

bioinformatics:

branch of biology dealing with computational approaches to storage, analysis, and comparison of genomes

RNA-seq:

isolation and sequencing of all RNA in a cell

hybridize:

when you stick DNA onto a chip to analyze

transcriptome:

k

metagenomics:

analyzing microbial communities by genome and/or RNA sequencing

comparative genomics:

comparison of genome sequences

pathogenicity islands:

clusters of genes that a pathogenic strain of a gene has

Understand the basic method of Sanger dideoxy sequencing.

k

What is involved in shotgun sequencing (without too much detail)?

fragmenting genomic DNA and cloning the fragments into plasmids

What technical improvements allowed pyrosequencing to increase sequence throughput; what is detected in the pryrosequencing reactions?

k

Understand what sequence alignment is and how is this used to build long contiguous sequences?

when a DNA sequence is aligned, overlapped, and formed into contigs

Review the steps of a genome sequencing project from small fragment sequences to annotation.

k

What can a genome sequence reveal about uncultured organisms?

k

Understand the basics of what a DNA microarray is and what they are used for; how do the microarrays quantitate mRNA levels?

contains a gridded chip that has oligonucleotides that can base pair with mRNA from a sequenced genome

Know the two general strategies for performing environmental genomics.

k

Understand the difference between vertical and horizontal gene transfer.

vertical: inherited genes passed through cell division



horizontal: non-inherited transfer of genes from one cell to another

Transcription:

first step in gene expression where DNA is transcribed into RNA

Translation:

MRNA is translated from AA as codons into proteins

Dimer:

a molecule containing two identical subunits

Inverted repeats:

regions of DNA that the dimers bind to

diauxic growth:

k

signal transduction:

process of transmitting external chemical signals to relevant regulatory targets

feedback inhibition:

when the end product of a reaction inhibits the activity of the first enzyme in the pathway

effector molecule:

molecule that binds to an enzyme, changing the shape of it so that the substrate molecule can no longer bind and react to the active site

Understand what is meant by "gene expression."

the conversion of DNA genetic information into a functional protein

Be able to state the difference between an operon and a regulon.

operon: the region of DNA that controls transcription



regulon: genes or operons throughout the genome under the same control as operons

What is the basic structure of a repressor protein, what is an inverted repeat?

k

Review regulation of transcription by negative control with a repressor protein: arg operon (repression by arginine), lac operon (induction by lactose).

Arg operon: when arginine is present, repressor binds and transcription is blocked (co-repressor)



Lac operon: when lactose is present, repressor is blocked and transcription proceeds (inducer)

Review positive control regulation with an activator protein: mal operon (induction by maltose).

Mal operon: maltose binds to the activator binding site and transcription proceeds

How is catabolite repression involved in diauxic growth using both glucose and lactose as carbon sources; how is cyclic AMP and the cyclic AMP receptor protein involved?

catabolite repression is the strategy for controlling which carbon source is to be used at a given time; cyclic AMP is involved in controlling that switch

Describe quorum sensing and the role of "autoinducers."

quorum sensing is a method of cells to measure chemical signals to detect population density;


autoinducers are signals that nearby cells pick up

What are the roles of a sensor kinase and response regulator protein in signal transduction?

sensor kinase binds the extracellular signal molecule and phophorylates itself;


response regulator protein picks up the phosphate and binds to the operator of DNA

How can small RNA molecules control translation?

sRNA binds to the mRNA and can stimulate or prevent translations-- sometimes needs a Hfq protein, in which case it prevents transcription

How do riboswitches control translation?

they bind small regulatory molecules that changes base-pairing, making the binding site unavailable (no translation)

What is allosteric regulation of enzyme activity?

regulation found in enzymes catalyzing the first step of a pathway (i.e, feedback inhibition)

Capsid:

a protein coat surrounding a virus

Nucleocapsid:

protein coat surrounding the Nucleic Acid of of virus

Virion:

the entire virus in its extracellular form

Bacteriophage:

viruses of bacteria

Capsomers:

the individual proteins or subunits that make up capsids

Filamentous viruses:

structure of virus (long? straight? with filiament down middle)

Icosahedral viruses:

structure of virus that coils (ie, Tobacco Mosaic Virus)

Plaque:

a single virus cell?

Lawn:

a continual covering of cells on a surface

Lytic:

life cycle of viruses in which the virus replicates and then lyses the host cell

Lysogenic:

life cycle of viruses in which the virus DNA gets incorporated into the host cell's genome

Prophage:

the incorporated virus genome in a host cell

Lysogen:

cells containing a viral genome (prophage)

Overlapping Genes:

a region of DNA that can encode for 2 or 3 proteins using different reading frames

Latent infection:

k

Persistent infection:

k

Reverse transcriptase:

enzyme used by viruses to convert RNA to DNA, to be expressed in the genome of a host cell

Provirus:

viral DNA that has entered into a host cells genome

Review the components of viruses; what are capsids composed of; what are the two major structures of viruses; what is an envelope and where does it originate?

capsids are composed of capsomeres;


two major structures of viruses are the filiamentous and the icosahedral;


envelope surrounds the virus as a whole and originates from the host cell's membrane

Understand the steps in the life cycle of a virus that causes lysis of its host cell.

virus attaches to host cell and injects viral DNA;


phage components are synthesized and virions assembled;


host cell lyses and virions expelled

What is a virus "titer" and how is it determined; how is a plaque formed on an agar plate?

titer is the concentration of a virus, determined through _______________;


plaque formed by pouring mix into a petri dish and collecting from agar

Review the life cycle of the T4 bacterial virus; how are viral components made when they are needed; what is "packaging"?

T4 bacteriophages are lytic;


viral components made by diff genes at diff times so they are available, packaging is the process of which DNA is guided into the phage head

What are the two paths that an E. coli cell can take after it is infected with lambda; what is induction?

lytic or lysogenic;


induction is the process of which the prophage excises from the genome (leaving lysogenic for lytic)

How do viruses make maximal use of the limited genome size?

k

Know the possible outcomes of infection by certain animal viruses; what is transformation?

latent infection and persistent infection;


transformation is the process by which an animal virus converts a normal cell into a tumor cell

What replication enzyme is a distinguishing feature of retroviruses; what are the three major gene regions in retroviruses; what are oncogenes?

reverse transcriptase;



gag (core and capsid proteins), pol (rev. trans. integrase), env (envelope proteins);



oncogenes are __________________________

Review retrovirus life cycle, what type of genome, dsDNA intermediate, why are protease, reverse transcriptase, and fusion inhibitors helpful in treatment of HIV; how is the virus released by budding?

retrovirus enters cell, releases nucleocapsid and RNA genome, rev. trans. converts RNA-->DNA, viral DNA enters genome (provirus now), transcription of viral DNA, translation into viral proteins;



inhibit reverse transcriptase



budding is like _______

wild-type:

a strain of an organism as isolated from nature (presumably without mutation)

spontaneous mutations:

mutations that occur naturally without human intervention

induced mutations:

mutations resulting from intentional exposure to chemical agents of radiation

truncated protein:

a shortened protein produced by the stop codon UAG

mutagen:

anything that causes an increase in mutation rates above normal levels

nucleotide base analogs:

resemble DNA bases and leads to higher frequency of base subsitutions

intercalating agents:

bind between DNA bases and increase mutation rates

SOS system:

a regulon of about 40 genes involved in repair of DNA damage and damage tolerance

repressor:

slows or inhibits a process or an enzyme that controls a process

single-strand binding protein:

protein that helps detach a nicked strand from a whole strand

Holliday junction:

"crossover" pattern of a structure

resolution:

cutting of DNA strand to yield new DNA with heteroduplex regions (segments originating from different DNA molecules)

heteroduplex:

segments originating from different DNA molecules

competence:

ability to take up external DNA

Understand the difference between genotype and phenotype.

genotype: the nucleotide sequence of a genome



phenotype: observable manifestation of the genotype, physical attributes

Review the 4 types of base pair substitutions.

Point mutations: changes to a single base pair, or insertion/deletion of a base pair


Frameshift mutations: causes changes in all AA codons downstream of the mutation site


Reversions:


Second-site mutations: can restore a phenotype

What is a frame shift mutation and what can happen to the resulting protein?

causes changes in all AA codons downstream of the mutation site; changes the codons/proteins made

Understand what reversion are; how can a second site mutation restore a correct reading frame; how can a suppressor tRNA produce a normal protein from a mutated DNA?

reversions can restore a phenotype;


can restore the reading frame with a second frameshift;


inserts a correct AA at the UAG codon

What is the Ames test; how is it performed; why is a liver enzyme extract used; what phenotype is observed; how is it interpreted?

a test to measure mutation rates;


to mimic what happens in the body;


only revertants grow;


if high colonies near the disk, positive Ames test, chemical is a possible mutagen

Understand mutagenesis, the types of DNA repair mechanisms and the enzymes involved; how is damaged DNA detected; what are the roles of RecA and LexA in DNA repair?

k

Review the sequence of steps involved in homologous recombination; what 2 proteins promote strand invasion?

nick in a strand, single-strand protein separates strands, nicked strand displaces homologous region, crossed-stranded exchange, new DNA from both molecules

Know the differences between transformation and transduction; what are generalized and specialized transduction?

transformation: horizontal genetic transfer process where external free DNA is taken up into a cell


transduction: horizontal gene transfer where viruses transfer DNA from a donor cell into a recipient cell


generalized transduction: when a random piece of chromosomal DNA is packaged into a phage


specialized transduction: DNA that is adjacent to the prophage can be transferred into the recipient cell

plasmid:

an extrachromosomal genetic element of double-stranded DNA;


can exist in one to many copies in a single cell

sex pilus:

aids in the transferring of genes

F+ cells:

cells containing the F plasmid, which can transfer a copy of itself into a cell

insertion sequences:

sequences on the F plasmid that are homologous to regions on the chromosome

OriT:

first DNA to copy and move into the recipient cell

cloning:

putting DNA into a larger molecule that can be replicated and manipulated

sticky ends:

when the DNA is cut with a hanging edge to be paired/matched

blunt ends:

when the DNA is cut with no single-stranded end

amplification:

the replication of specific small regions of DNA

DNA ligase:

an enzyme that joins DNA ends

recombinant DNA:

DNA in which a plasmid has been incorporated

What is a conjugative plasmid; how is sex pilus involved?

plasmid that inserts a copy of itself into another cell;


transfers via the sex pilus

Understand how the F plasmid of E. coli works- either when a separate plasmid or intergrated into a host chromosome; know what an Hfr strain is and how the F plasmid gets inserted into the chromosome.

k

Know what restriction enzymes are and how they can be used for genetic engineering and cloning.

restriction enzymes are proteins that cut DNA at specific sequences;


they can cut at specific sites to insert plasmids and alter genes

How can PCR be used for generating specific DNA fragments?

by targeting and amplifying a given DNA sequence

How can DNA fragments be connected with a cloning vector to produce recombinant DNA?

the sticky ends match and are sealed/glued via DNA ligase

In what ways are plasmids designed to simplify molecular cloning of DNA fragments?

contain multiple RE sites;


exist in many copies per cell;


possess one or more antibiotic resistance genes to allow for selection in host cells

What are expression vectors and shuttle vectors used for?

expression vectors: control expression of cloned genes



shuttle vectors: can be used in many organisms

alignment program:

program that finds overlaps in sequences of 16s rRNA genes

distance matrix:

how differences in the sequence overlaps of an alignment program are viewed/analyzed

branches:

how individual organisms are connected on a distance matrix

nodes:

where branches intersect on a distance matrix

core genome:

contains all genes shared by a group of organisms

pan genome:

all the genes unique to one particular genome

understand the major evolutionary events since the cooling of earth's crust; how did oxygen levels rise in the atmosphere?

cooling of earth's crust and formation of water;


conversion of prebiotic reactions into cellular life;


cellular common ancestor diverges into bacteria and archaea branches of life;


rise of photosynthetic bacteria in the anoxic earth;


the oxidation event;


multicellular life

What are microbial mats and stromalites?

microbial mats: layers of lawns of photosynthetic organisms



stromalites: fossilized microbial mats

Why are molecular sequences best for determining phylogenetic relationships; what sequence is most commonly used?


16s rRNA sequence from ribosomes

What are the steps in isolating 16s rRNA genes by PCR and building a phylogenetic tree?

DNA isolated from pure cultures of microbes or microbial communities;


16s rRNA genes amplified by PCR using specially designed primers;


PCR reaction products are checked by gel electrophoresis

What is fitness; what are major processes driving evolution; what is an example of evolution and fitness that has been observed in recent years?

fitness: the ability of an organism, with a given genotype or phenotype, to grow and reproduce, and to contribute its gentetic information to future generations;


mutations and recombination drive evolution;


antibiotic resistance

What is genetic drift and how has it been studied in E. coli populations; what studies have been done at MSU?

genetic drift: some members of a population reproduce slightly faster than others;


_____;


modern rapid genome sequencing methods

How can comparative genomics reveal genes important for causing disease?

by comparing pathogenic and nonpathogenic strains of bacteria

What are multilocus sequence typing and ribotyping and what are they used for?

multilocus sequence typing: analyzing DNA sequences of several essential genes


ribotyping: 16s rRNA classification by analyzing restriction enzyme fragments rather than DNA sequencing;


alternatives to DNA sequencing

Understand in a general way how FAME analysis works.

Fatty Acid Methyl Ester analysis:


derivatizes bacterial FA and examines profiles of them via gas chromatography

extremophile:

microbes that grow in extreme conditions (heat, salt, etc)

compatible solutes:

internal solutes that equalize the water activity between the inside and outside of the cell

bacteriorhodopsin:

protein contained in the membrane of some halophilic archaea

retinal:

molecule that moved protons from inside of a cell to the outside

phytanyl:

composed of a bilayer in membranes

biphytanyl:

composed in a monolayer in membranes

lipoglycan:

a membrane found in archaea with no wall

pleomorphic:

cells with no specific shape

sulfataras:

hot, acidic terrestrial sulfur springs; habitat of some extremophiles

hydrophobic cores:

stabilizes protein secondary structure; exclusion of water n internal regions of proteins by hydrophobic amino acids increases thermal stability (like two suction cups together)

salt bridges:

ionic bonds that create strong contacts between different parts of the polypeptide chain

chaperonins:

proteins that assist in the correct folding of proteins

reverse DNA gyrase:

enzyme that is more stable to heat denaturation

DNA-binding proteins

similar to histones; compact the DNA and help maintain double-strand structure at high temperatures

How do halophilic Archaea maintain water balance in high salt conditions?

with physiological adaptations such as compatible solutes

How do some Archaea generate ATP energy from light?

the bacteriorhodopsin protein contain retinal, which transports protons outside the cell; these protons fall back down their concentration gradient into the cell, producing ATP

What are methanogens and understand what the methanogenesis pathway does.

anaerobes that convert CO2 to methane;


they utilize cofactors that make CH4 from CO2 and H2

Review the different ether lipids of Archaea; what are the major types of lipids?

phytanyl:


biphytanyl:


lyopglycan:

How is Thaumarchaeota important for the global nitrogen cycle; what adaptation is important for its survival?

they participate in nitrification, which oxidizes ammonia to nitrite;


its adapted to very low nutrient levels, allowing it to live in hot springs and sea ice habitats

How does Nanoarchaeum live; what does it derive from its host?

lives as a parasite;


derives genes from its host cell

What habitats is Sulfolobus found in; how does it get energy?

deep ocean hydrothermal vents;


chemolithotrophically or chemoheterotrophically

What are challenges to organisms living at high temperatures and what adaptations to proteins and DNA do they have in order to survive?

stability of small molecules (ATP) is reduced, proteins and enzymes unfold at higher temperatures, DNA and RNA can denature and degrade, ability of membrane lipids to function is lower;


hydrophobic cores, salt bridges, chaperonins, reverse DNA gyrase, DNA-binding proteins

hydrogenosomes

similar to mitochondria but lack TCA cycle enzymes

michondrion:

organelle responsible for respiration and oxidative phosphorylation;


surrounded by two membranes;


folded internal membrane called cistae

chloroplast:

chlorophyll-containing organelle found in phototrophic eukaryotes (plant cells);


flattened membranes called thylakoids;


lumen called stroma which contains RubisCO (key in Calvin cycle)

thylakoids:

flattened membrane disks inside chlorplasts

christae

folded, internal membrane of mitochondria

Rubisco:

contained in the stroma of chloroplasts;


key enzyme in the Calvin cycle

Calvin cycle:

conducted in the chloroplast;


Giardiasis:

disease resulting in abnormal cramps, diarrhea, nausea;


pathogen transmitted through fecal-contaminated water

African sleeping sickness:

Trypanosoma brucei;


transmitted by a live vector, the tsetse fly;


nagana:

disease caused by Trypanosoma brucei in cattle

vector:

organism that transmits disease;


intermediate host

pseudoplasmodium slug:

unified organisms created by aggregated slime molds that move together

chitin:

type of fungi?

achlorophyllous:

type of chemoorganotrophs

basidiocarp:

macroscopic sexual spore-bearing structures

mycoses:

infections on or in the body, 3 types:


superficial, subcutaneous/invasive,

superficial:

infection only on the surface layer; skin, hair, etc;


Ex: athlete's foot, ringworm, etc

subcutaneous:

infection under the skin?

systemic:

infection that affects internal organs


Ex: histoplasmosis, thrush, etc

primary producer:

main producer?

endolithic:

"inside rocks"

Briefly review key features of a eukaryotic cell but do not memorize all the details.

dual membrane nucleus, ribosomes, nucleolus, organelles, etc

What is the endosymbiosis theory and what evidence supports it?

that the organelles of eukaryotes orginated from prokaryotes;


some organelles have

review the three major energy production organelles of eukaryotes.

mitochondria:


hydrogenosome:


chloroplast:

What type of diseases are caused by Protists such as Giardia and Trichomonas?

k

What are pathogenic and non-pathogenic examples of Euglenozoans?

Pathogenic: Trypanosoma brucei (African sleeping sickness, nagana) and cruzi (chagas)


Non-pathogenic: Euglena

Briefly review Plasmodium falciparum life cycle and the different stages during the cycle.

production of gametes, transmission to mosquito, maturation of gametes in mosquito, fertilization, growth, development of sporozoites, release of sporozoites, transmission from mosquito, infection of RBC -->

Why are some dinoflagellates toxic; what habitat are they found in?

k

What are two types of slime molds; how do cellular slime molds differentiate?

cellular: individual cells with amoeboid motility


plasmodial (acellular): produce masses of multinucleated protoplasm called plasmodia;


Know the key features of fungi; roles in nature, major impacts to humans.

contain cell walls of chitin, commonly filamentous;


contributors to decomposition and mineralization of organic carbon, dominate microbial biomass in soils, symbiotic with plant roots;


mushrooms and unicellular yeast

What disease can Candida albican cause; what is histoplasmosis?

thrush;



?

In what habitats are algae commonly found; what types of cell walls can they have?

rocks?



cellulose/pectin, silica, calcium carbonate

phylotypes:

method of expressing richness of a species

allochthonous:

enters the ecosystem from the outside;


Ex: allochthonous carbon enters from outside the ecosystem in ways such as leaves falling from trees into a river

viability stains:

stains that discriminate live cells from dead cells

DAPI:

becomes fluorescent blue only when bound to DNA

Acridine orange:

fluoresces orange when bound to DNA

metagenomics:

analysis of community diversity by looking at genes

Review populations, guilds, communities, habitats, ecosystem; how is a freshwater lake and example of a microbial ecosystem, what are the energy inputs?

populations: individual cells of the same type


guilds: populations of organisms doing similar metabolism


communities: interaction of different guilds that conduct complementary processes


habitats: communities living together in parts of a larger environment


ecosystems: communities that interact with communities of macroorganisms


different categories;


sunlight, organic carbon, inorganic compounds

Understand the difference between species richness and species abundance.

species richness: reference to the number of different species present (diversity)


species abundance: reference to the fraction or proportion of each species

Review the methods used to determine microbial community composition; what staining methods are used for microscopic analysis; what is a live/dead stain?

culture-independent methods (microscopic analysis, genetic analysis, PCR analysis);


live/dead staining with DAPI or Acridine orange;


differentiates between live and dead cells by fluorescence

Understand the basic method of Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization; what is it used for?

it can "tag" a certain molecule or sequence with a neon "marker";


recognizing specific organsims within populations

Review what culture-independent methods are and the examples shown in class; what are the two types of analysis that can be done using culture-independent methods?

do not require growth of an organism;


medical diagnostics and ;


microscopic analyses and genetic analyses

How can PCR products be analyzed by terminal restriction fragment length polymorphism, 1st generation sequencing, or next generation sequencing?

RFLP: label fragments with fluorescent dye, cut with RE, gel electrophoreis


1st generation: PCR amplification and then clone plasmids into bacterial hosts to be sequenced


next generation: PCR products sequenced directly

What are phylochips and what are they used for; what is hybridization of DNA?

tool to measure the different phylotypes in a community without sequencing;


base pairing

How have these methods been applied in analyzing microbial communities in the Sargasso Sea and the human microbiome?

Sargasso Sea: DNA extracted and sequenced to get idea of marine microbe diversity


Human Microbiome: to determine what microbes live in a healthy human and how that changes in response to factors like nutrition, disease, etc.

microenvironments:

local habitats of microbial cells

antagonism:

(ammensalism) one organism inhibits gorwth of another organism (ie, antiibiotics)

competition:

demand for food exceeds the supply (limited resources)

predation:

microbes can be food for other organisms

parasitism:

parasite (such as a virus) harms its host microorganism

cystic fibrosis:

k

benthic:

organisms that grow on the sides or bottom surfaces of aquatic systems

Be able to describe what a niche is.

a set of resources and conditions that are utilized by microorganisms

What are the benefits of living in biofilms; what happens in each stage of biofilm development?

protection from predators, better nutrient availability, physical protection from environment conditions;


attachment: adhesion of a few cells to solid surface


colonization: intercellular communication, growth and formation


development: more growth


active dispersal: triggered by environmental factor such as nutrient availability

Understand the effects of biofilms on humans; what specific problems does Pseudomonas aeruginosa cause some patients; what human disease is this bacterium associated with; why are some bacteria in biofilms resistant to antibiotics?

used with inanimate prosthetic devices and organ tissues to protect from antibiotic and autoimmune, but can cause other bodily infections-- can also cause plaque and gingivitis;


pneumonia in human patients with cystic fibrosis;


biofilm protects them, and they have low metabolism and growth rates (antibiotics work best against growing bacteria)

Describe seasonal turnover in lakes; how does thermal stratification result in anoxic conditions in the hypolimnion; why are lake nutrient content and dissolved O2 inversely proportional?

in winter, colder near top, in summer, colder near bottom;


it has low levels of dissolved O2;


?

Review the characteristics of O2, bacteria (+ organic carbon and BOD), algae, as they change downstream of a population entry point in a river; why is BOD proportional to the amount of dissolved organic pollution in a water sample?

?


less O2, higher BOD??

What are the bacterial and eukaryotic primary producers in open ocean waters?

bacterial: Prochlorococcus and Trichodesmium


eukaryotic: Ostreococcus

soil separates:

sand, silt, and clay

epiphytes:

microbes that colonize plant surface

endophytes:

microbes that colonize plant interior

phyllosphere:

aerial leaf surface of plants

rhizosphere:

region adjacent to the root

rhizoplane:

the root surface

legumes:

pod-bearing angiosperms that can fix nitrogen

bacteroid:

k

membrane:

k

nodule:

the product of root hair after curling

Nod factors:

lipochitin polysaccharides that are recognized by root hair

infection thread:

line of infection as it expands into root cells

leghemoglobin:

hemoglobin in a legume; protein that delivers oxygen to electric transport chain

inter-domain:

transfer of DNA from a bacterium to a plant

flavinoid:

compound excreted by roots that are taken up by bacteria to express nodulation genes

Name the 3 phases found in soils; review the four vertical horizons found in mature soils; what are soil aggregates?

solids, liquids, and gasses;


O, A, B and C horizons;


fill space in soil?

How does water affect oxygen levels in the microenvironments within soil aggregates?

k

What is rhizodeposition and what is its effect on nearby soil microbes?

process of which 25% of plant photosynthates are exuded from roots into surrounding soil;


increases nutrient enrichment near roots, promoting colonization of bacteria and fungal organisms

What are the 3 main locations for microbes associated with plants?

phyllosphere, rhizosphere, rhizoplane

Why is N2-fixing symbiosis important to agriculture; describe the steps of plant-rhizobia symbiosis; what chemicals are used for plant-microbe communication?

can develop N2-fixing root nodules, N2 is the most common limiting nutrient

Review nitrogen-fixation; what is the overall reaction for nitrogen fixation; how much energy is expended for each N2?

N2 + 8H + 8e- +16 ATP +16H20


-->


2NH3 + H2 + 16 ADP + 16 Pi


16 ATP

How does Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause Crown Gall disease; what plasmid mediates this process; what is T-DNA; what are the basic roles of VirA and VirG?

via a Ti plasmid;


carried genes for tumor formation on the plant;


VirA: sensor kinase


VirG: response regulator

What are the two types of associations of fungi with plant roots; how to plants and mycorrhizal fungi benefit from each other?

ecto- and endomycorrhizae;


fungi can take nutrients from the soil and make them more readily usable by plants