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225 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What muscle insert at the anterior superior iliac spine?
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Sartorius
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What muscle inserts at the anterior inferior iliac spine?
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Rectus Femoris
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What muscles insert at the greater trochanter? (7)
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Obturator externus, obturator internus, gluteus medius, gluteus minimum, piriformis, superior and inferior gemellus
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What muscle inserts at the lesser trochanter?
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Iliopsoas
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What muscles insert at the greater tubercle of the humerus? (3)
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Supraspinatus, Infrapinatus, teres minor
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What muscle inserts at the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
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Subscapularis
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Most common malignant tumors between ages 1-30? (2)
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Ewing sarcoma, Osteosarcoma
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Most common malignant tumor over age 40?
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Mets, Myeloma, Chondrosarcoma
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V-shape (Chevron) high signal or divided peroneus brevis tendon is referred to as ______.
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Split tear of peroneus brevis.
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Multiple small sclerotic bone densities (islands) at the ends of long bones and pelvis in asymptomatic individuals.
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Osteopoikilosis
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Narrowing of caudal interpedicular distances suggests what?
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Achondroplasia.
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What is a Monteggia fracture?
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Fracture of the ulna with dislocation of proximal radius.
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Marginal, symmetric syndesmophytes seen in which two conditions?
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Ankylosing spondylitis, IBD
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Marginal asymmetric syndesmophytes seen in which two conditions?
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Psoriasis, Reiter's syndrome
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Reiter syndrome is very similar to psoriasis except in which way?
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Reiter's tends to affect the feet, psoriasis the hands.
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What is the superior retinaculum?
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Thin fibrous structure that binds peroneus longus and brevis tendons to posterior fibula.
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Volar lunate dislocation can lead to ______
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Median nerve impairment.
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What is the classic radiographic appearance of hemochromatosis in the skeleton? With what is it associated?
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DJD involving 2-4 MCP joints. 50% association with CPPD.
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Can tenosynovitis occur in the Achilles tendon?
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No... it lacks a tendon sheath.
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What is the differential of diffuse bony sclerosis (dense bones)? RSMOPMMPAF
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Renal osteodystrophy, Sickle cell disease, Myelofibrosis, Osteopetrosis, Pyknodysostosis, Metastatic carcinoma, Mastocystosis, Paget disease, Athletes, Fluorosis.
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What two entities lead to bilateral symmetric sacroiliitis?
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Ankylosing spondylitits, IBD (but also mention Psoriasis, Reiters in most cases per Clyde Helms)
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What three entities lead to asymmetric sacroiliitis?
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Infection, psoriasis, Reiter's
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What is tenosynovitis?
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Fluid in tendon sheath with normal underlying tendon.
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With rheumatoid arthritis, the femoral head tends to migrate ____. Osteoarthritis?
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Axially for RA, Superolaterally for OA
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What are the most common causes of AVN? (5)
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STARS- Steroids, Trauma, Alcohol abuse, Radiation osteonecrosis, Sickle cell disease
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Three classic findings in JRA and Hemophilia?
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Epiphyseal enlargement, Gracile diaphyses, Widening of the intercondylar notch of the knee.
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Description of Hangman's fracture?
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Unstable fracture of the posterior elements of C2 with usual resultant anterolisthesis of C2 on C3.
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What are the classic "Don't Touch" lesion? (7)
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1. Myositis ossificans
2. Avulsion injury. 3. Cortical desmoid. 4. Trauma. 5. Discogenic vertebral sclerosis. 6. Fracture. 7. Pseudodislocation of humerus. |
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Classic skeletal finding of sarcoidosis?
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Lacelike patter of cortical bone destruction.
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When assessing the sacral ala for fracture, pay attention to the _____.
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Arcuate lines.
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What is tendonitis/tendinosis?
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Increased/intermediate T2 signal in tendons without definite visualized tear. Often impossible to tell from partial tear.
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What are the two most common tarsal coalitions and their imaging signs?
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Calcaneonavicular (Anteater)
Talocalcaneal (at the middle facet, C sign) |
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Most common features of primary osteoarthritis?
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Affects women. Often the same findings as DJD. Tend to affect PIP, DIP, 1st CMC joints.
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Three common skeletal findings in sickle cell disease?
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Osteosclerosis, H-shaped vertebral bodies, Bone infarcts.
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What is the significance of the shoulder crescent sign?
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Lack of it raises possibility of posterior shoulder dislocation.
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Class of diseases that cause anterior inferior vertebral body beaking?
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Mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler, Morquio, etc.)
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Best imaging test for sinus tarsi syndrome and findings?
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MRI, will see fluid or scar tissue in the sinus tarsi where normal T1 bright fat should be.
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Osteophyte formation without associated sclerosis or joint space narrowing?
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DISH
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Where is the spring ligament located and in what scenarios is it under increased stress?
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Located deep to tibialis posterior tendon, runs underneath talar neck. Receives extra stress in setting of pes planus with tibialis posterior tendon tear.
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Where does the meniscofemoral ligament run? What are it's two components?
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Obliquely from medial femoral condyle to posterior horn of lateral meniscus. Ligament of Humphrey (in front of PCL), Ligament of Wrisberg (behind PCL).
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Hallmark of myositis ossificans?
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Peripheral calcification rather than central.
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What two conditions most commonly cause multiple bone infarcts?
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Sickle cell, Lupus.
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Calvarial thickening, Enlarged sinus, Enlarged sella, Prognathic jaw, Hypertrophied distal phalangeal tufts.
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Acromegaly
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Name for avascular necrosis of the tibial tubercle?
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Osgood-Schlatter
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What should be considered with Bohler angle of less than 20 degrees?
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Fracture of the calcaneus.
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Pathognomonic finding with pyknodysostosis?
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Acroosteolysis with sclerosis (pointed chalk distal phalanges)
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Findings of scapholunate ligament rupture?
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Dorsal rotation of the scaphoid, widening of the scapholunate joint.
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What is a Galeazzi fracture?
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Fracture of the radius with dislocation of distal ulna.
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In children, osteomalacia is called _____. What are the findings?
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Rickets. Flared and irregular epiphyses, bending of long bones.
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Three most common locations of chondrocalcinosis in CPPD?
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Triangular fibrocartilage, Pubic symphisis, Knee.
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Isolated patellofemoral degeneration suggests what?
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CPPD
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Does fibrous dysplasia cause periosteal reaction?
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No.
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In ruling out Lisfranc fracture-dislocation, medial border of second metatarsal should line up with what?
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Medial border of second cuneiform.
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What are the findings of clay-shoveler's fracture?
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Fracture of C6 or C7 spinous process.
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Findings of instability in osteochondral defects.
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Increased T2 signal in or around the defect.
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Lytic lesion under 30 years... always mention these two entities.
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Infection, EG
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Excluding stress from pes planus deformity, posterior tibial tendonitis and rupture are commonly encountered in patients with what disease?
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Rheumatoid arthritis.
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Which meniscus is most commonly "Discoid" in shape?
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Lateral.
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Avascular necrosis of the lunate?
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Keinbock malacia.
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Three causes of a 'high-riding' shoulder.
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Torn rotator cuff.
CPPD. RA. |
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Radiographic hallmarks of Rheumatoid arthritis? (5)
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1. Soft tissue swelling (often centered at joint).
2. Osteoporosis (especially peri-articular). 3) Joint space narrowing. 4) Marginal (bare area) erosions. 5) Affects proximal hands symmetrically. |
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Differential for lytic rib lesion?
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FAME. Fibrous dysplasia, ABC, Mets/Myeloma, Enchondroma, Eosinophilic granuloma.
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Avascular necrosis of the metatarsal head?
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Freiberg infraction.
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Most common location for Ewing sarcoma?
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Long bone metadiaphsysis (but also pelvis)
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What is the most common soft tissue sarcoma? Where do they most commonly arise?
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Malignant fibrous histiocytoma (now called Pleomorphic undifferentiated sarcoma). Tend to occur in proximal extremities and retroperitoneum.
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Size discriminator between NOF and FCD?
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NOF >2cm. FCD <2cm.
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Phleboliths in the soft tissue are seen in underlying ______.
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Venous malformations.
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Osteoblastoma commonly occurs where and may mimic what?
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Posterior elements of spine. Mimic ABC (expansile, bubbly).
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Erosions are not typical in OA unless seen in these joints. (4)
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Symphysis pubis, sacroiliac, temporomandibular joint, acromioclavicular joint.
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Three radiographic hallmarks of DJD?
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Sclerosis, joint space narrowing, osteophytosis.
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Fracture at base of the thumb extending into carpometacarpal joint?
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Bennett
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What finding is pathognomonic for hyperparathyroidism?
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Subperiosteal bone resorption, usually along the radial aspect of middle phalanges of hand.
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What entity looks very similar to PVNS?
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Synovial chondromatosis (i.e. uncalcified)
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Classic differential for expansile, lytic metastasis? (2)
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Renal cell carcinoma, Thyroid carcinoma.
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How to tell malignant giant cell from benign?
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No local imaging differences. Can tell only after it metastasizes to lung.
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4 hallmarks of Psoriatic arthritis in the hands and feet?
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Distal predominance, fluffy periostitis, proliferative erosions, soft tissue swelling (sausage digit)
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Finger clubbing and extremity periostitis suggests what?
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Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. And that suggests lung cancer.
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DJD of CPPD tends to affect what joints? (5)
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1. Shoulder.
2. Elbow. 3. Radiocarpal joint. 4. MCP joints. 5. Patellofemoral joint. |
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What are the five fibular ankle ligaments?
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Superior group: Anterior and posterior tibiofibular ligaments.
Inferior group: Anterior and posterior talofibular ligaments. Calcaneofibular ligament. |
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What causes mallet finger (baseball finger)?
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Avulsion injury where extensor digitorum tendon inserts on distal phalanx base.
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Renal osteodystrophy causes osteopenia or osteosclerosis?
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Both. But most commonly osteopenia.
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What is the most common Charcot joint seen today?
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Lisfranc fracture-dislocation in diabetics.
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Two most characteristic features of gout?
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Well-defined erosions (sclerotic margins, overhanding edges).
Soft tissue nodules (which calcify in the setting of renal failure) |
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Two most commonly encountered accessory muscles around foot and ankle?
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Accessory soleus. Accessory peroneus quartus.
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Imaging findings of synovial sarcoma?
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Homogenously T2 bright (may be confused with fluid collection). Typically near but never IN a joint.
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Findings of edema/atrophy within muscle groups (i.e. supraspinatus/infraspinatus, teres minor/deltoid) without a definite compressive lesion?
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Parsonage Turner syndrome.
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What nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles?
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Suprascapular nerve.
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What nerve innervates the teres minor and deltoid muscles?
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Axillary nerve.
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What innervates the subscapularis muscle?
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Upper and lower subscapular nerves.
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Osteopenia, gull-wing erosions,
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Erosive osteoarthritis.
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Subperiosteal bone resorption sites in hyperparathyroidism? (4)
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Radial aspect of middle phalanges, medial aspect of proximal tibia, sacroiliac joints, distal clavicle
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Fracture of distal radius and ulna with dorsal angulation of distal forearm and wrist.
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Colles fracture.
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"Bone in bone" appearance of vertebral bodies seen in?
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Osteopetrosis.
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What is the outcome of painful transient osteoporosis of the hip?
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Full recovery, self-limited disease.
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Synovial osteochondromatosis most commonly affects what joints? (3)
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Knee, Hip, Elbow
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Primary lymphoma of bone resembles what other cancer? How to discriminate?
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Ewing's sarcoma. Both are part of the "small blue cell" differential. Lymphoma typically affects older individuals than Ewing's.
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What are the typical features of thyroid acropachy?
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Periostitis of metacarpals/tarsals and phalanges in hyperthyroid patients post-thyroidectomy.
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Only finding that is pathognomic for osteomalacia?
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Looser fracture.
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Idopathic thickening of osseous cortex. Dripping candle wax. Tends to accumulate near ends of long bones.
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Melorheostosis.
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Negative ulnar variance is associated with what?
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Kienbock malacia
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Three constituents of the lateral collateral ligament, anterior to posterior.
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Iliotibial band, fibular collateral ligament (True LCL), Biceps femoris tendon.
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Further collapse of an unprotected wedge compression fracture 1-2 weeks after injury with severe neurological deficits is called?
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Kummel disease.
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Two syndromes associated with enchondromas?
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Ollier dz (multiple enchondromas). Maffucci disease (multiple enchondromas plus soft-tissue hemangiomas)
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AVN of the tarsal navicular in children?
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Kohler disease
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Three most common sites of osteochondritis dessicans.
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Medial epicondyle of knee, dome of talus, capitellum.
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Differential for lytic lesion of the posterior elements of spine? (5)
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ATOM- ABC, Tuberculosis, Osteoid osteoma/Osteoblastoma, Metastasis.
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Multiple 2-3 mm thick linear sclerotic bands aligned parallel to bone long axis. Incidental finding.
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Osteopathia Striata
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Comminuted fracture of thumb base extending into carpometacarpal joint?
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Rolando fracture.
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Sclerosis in a weight-bearing bone that has horizontal or oblique linear pattern?
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Stress fracture.
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Fracture of C1 ring resulting from axial load to head?
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Jefferson fracture.
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Cortical desmoid location and cause?
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Posteromedial epicondyle of femur. Results from adductor magnus muscle avulsion.
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What is gamekeeper's thumb?
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Avulsion of ulnar collateral ligament from ulnar aspect of the first metatarsal at MCP joint.
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What is a Stener lesion?
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Seen in gamekeeper's thumb. Dislocation of torn UCL dorsally above the adductor aponeurosis/adductor pollicis muscle such that it is separated from the joint. Indication for surgery.
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The calcaneus is an _______ equivalent.
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Epiphyseal.
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Name of the ligament that runs through Hoffa's fat pad connecting both anterior meniscal horns?
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Transverse ligament of the knee. May be mistaken for an anterior horn lateral meniscus tear.
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What is usually lacking in lupus?
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Bony erosions.
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What malignant tumor may be confused with fibrous dysplasia of the tibia?
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Adamantinoma.
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What is associated with positive ulnar variance?
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Ulnar impaction syndrome with triangular fibrocartilage tears with or without lunate/ulnar chondromalacia.
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Calcification of the sacrotuberous ligament is classic for?
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Fluorosis.
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FAI secondary to acetabular overcoverage of the femoral head?
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Pincer-type FAI
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FAI secondary to aspherical portion of femoral head-neck junction. (Pistol-grip deformity)
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Cam-type FAI
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Fragmentation at the inferior patella is seen in what?
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Sinding-Larsen-Johannson syndrome.
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What is seen in "Jumper's knee"?
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Increased signal in the patellar tendon.
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What is a Maissonneuve fracture?
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Spiral fracture of the proximal 1/3rd of the fibula occuring in association with tears of the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis and interosseous membrane.
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Tranverse patellar fracture is due to what mechanism of injury?
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Sudden extension of quadriceps (knee extension)
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Tibial tuberosity avulsion fracture is seen from what mechanism of injury?
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Sudden knee hyperflexion.
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What is the Pelligrini-Steida lesion?
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Ossification at femoral MCL attachment indicating old MCL injury.
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What is the Segond fracture?
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Avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau at the site of the lateral capsule. Associated with ACL injuries and medial meniscus tears.
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What is the normal appearance of the anterior Achilles tendon?
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Concave. Rounding may be seen with tendonitis.
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What is the most frequently torn ligament in the ankle?
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Anterior talofibular ligament. Can lead to anterolateral gutter syndrome/impingement.
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What other fracture sites are associated with calcaneal fractures?
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Lumbar compression fractures, forearm fractures.
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Transverse fracture at the base of the 5th metatarsal. Avulsion of what tendon?
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Jones Fracture. Avulsion of Peroneus Brevis (PBJ)
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What is the next step in evaluation of suspected but not definite Lisfranc fracture?
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Weight bearing views.
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Athletes presenting with midfoot pain may have this radiographically occult finding.
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Navicular stress fracture. MR shows high T2 signal.
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Ballet dancers are prone to this injury in the presence of an os trigonum. Finding on MRI?
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Os trigonum syndrome. High T2 signal seen in syndosmosis on MRI.
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Comminuted, intra-articular fracture of the distal tibia.
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Pilon fracture.
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Fracture of the lateral process of the talus.
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Snowboarder's fracture.
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Describe the Tillaux fracture.
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Salter III fracture involving the epiphysis and lateral tibial physis.
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Describe the Triplane fracture.
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Fractue of the ankle in all three planes. Typically sagittal epiphyseal, horizontal physeal, and coronal metaphyseal fractures.
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Two causes of unilateral distal clavicle resorption.
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Trauma, Infection
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Three causes of bilateral distal clavicle resorption.
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RA, Scleroderma, Hyperparathyroidism.
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Perilunate dissociation has a high association with ____.
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Scaphoid fracture.
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What arthritis is associated with SLAC wrist?
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CPPD
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Fracture of fifth metacarpal neck with volar angulation of the distal fragment.
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Boxer's fracture.
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Extra-articular fracture of distal radius with volar displacement of distal fragment.
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Smith Fracture
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Intra-articular fracture of distal radius with dorsal displacement. With volar displacement?
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Barton fracture. Reverse Barton if volar displacement.
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Avulsion injury of the medial epicondyle at the site of flexor carpi ulnaris insertion?
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LIttle Leaguer's Elbow
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What is Tennis elbow? What tendon is involved?
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Lateral epicondylitis. Overuse of the extensor carpi radialis brevis.
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What is De quervain Tenosynovitis?
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Inflammation of the APL and EPB (extensor compartment I) at or proximal to the radial styloid.
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Intra-articular fracture of radial styloid process?
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Hutchinson's fracture (aka Chauffer's fracture).
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What MRI parameters increases the magic angle artifact?
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Low TE (<35)
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What is the order of red to yellow marrow conversion in long bones?
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Epiphyses -> diaphyses -> metaphyses
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What are the underlying changes for Modic I, II, III?
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Modic I- Edema
Modic II- Fat Modic III- Fibrosis |
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What is the most common type of meniscal tear?
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Oblique/horizontal
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What does the "absent bowtie" sign represent?
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Buckle-handle tear.
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What does the double PCL sign represent?
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Buckle-handle tear.
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What is a flap tear of the meniscus?
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Inferior displacement of the torn meniscal segment, usually at the joint line.
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From what does a meniscal cyst arise?
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Horizontal meniscus tear.
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Between what two muscles does a Baker's cyst arise?
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Semimembranosus, Medical head of gastrocnemius
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What is a Cyclops lesion?
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Rounded mass of fibrosis in Hoffa's fat pad post-surgery that can causes locking or clicking of the knee. May be resected.
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Formerly known as SONK... what is it actually?
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Sunchondral insufficiency fracture at the knee. Medial femoral condyle most commonly affected.
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What is the ALPSA lesion?
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Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion. Appears as medial displacement of inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. Must be differentiated from Bankart lesion.
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What is a SLAP tear?
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Superior labrum anterior to posterior tear. May form paralabral cysts adjacent to superior glenoid.
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What are the findings of Quadrangular space syndrome?
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Compression of axillary nerve with variable atrophy of the deltoid and teres minor muscles.
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Describe suprascapular nerve impingement.
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Ganglion cyst or paralabral cyst in the suprascapular notch with impingement of the suprascapular nerve. This results in atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. Impingement of the nerve in the spinoglenoid notch leads to only infraspinatus atrophy.
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Painful, primary osteoarthritis of the great toe.
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Hallux Rigidus
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"Pencil-in-cup" erosions?
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Psoriasis
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Retrocalcaneal bursitis is seen in what arthropathy?
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Reiter's
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With what syndrome is gout associated?
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Lesch-Nyan syndrome
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Squared vertebral bodies, shiny corners?
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Ankylosing spondylitis.
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What spine findings are common in Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis?
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Akylosis of posterior articular joints and C2 subluxation from PLL destruction.
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Two causes of "blooming" artifact in a joint?
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PVNS, Hemophilia
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Etiology of Charcot shoulder?
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Syringomyelia.
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Etiology of Charcot wrist? (2)
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Syringomyelia, Diabetes
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Etiology of Charcot spine? (3)
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Trauma, diabetes, tertiary syphilis
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Etiology of Charcot hip?
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Alcohol abuse
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Etiology of Charcot knee?
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Steroid injection
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Etiology of Charcot ankle/foot?
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Diabetes
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Soft tissue density lesion between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads.
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Morton's neuroma
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Vascular tumor causing eccentric erosion of the distal phalanx.
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Glomus tumor
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DDx of phalangeal lesion (4)
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Glomus tumor, enchondroma, foreign body reaction, epidermoid (after trauma)
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Progressively enlarging, juxtaarticular, calcified, nodular soft tissue mass with normal underlying bone.
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Tumoral calcinosis.
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Inheritance pattern of tumoral calcinosis?
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Autosomal dominant
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What is the Wimberger sign?
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Focal destruction along the proximal medial tibia seen in congenital syphilis.
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"Celery stalk" appearance of peri-articular bone?
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Rubella
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What two features (think broad) are seen in renal osteodystrophy?
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Features of secondary hyperparathyroidism and osteomalacia.
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Acroosteolysis with sparing of the first digit?
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Frost-bite
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DDx for acroosteolysis. (7)
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PINCH FO
1. Psoriasis, Pyknodysostosis 2. Injury (burn, frostbite) 3. Neuropathy (diabetes) 4. Collagen vascular disease (scleroderma, Raynauds) 5. Hyperparathyroidism 6. Familial (Hadju-Cheney syndrome) 7. Other stuff |
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What are the three medial tendons at the ankle?
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Tibialis posterior, Flexor digitorum, Flexor hallucis longus
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What are the two lateral tendons at the ankle?
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Peroneus longus, Peroneus brevis
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Name for benign symmetric sclerosis at iliac surface of the SI joints seen mostly in young women?
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Osteitis Condensans Ilii
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What three tendons make up the pes anserinus?
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Semitendinosus, Gracilis, Sartorius
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Sheet like soft tissue calcifications, usually symmetric, seen in what?
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Dermatomyositis.
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DDx for Ehrlenmeyer Flask Deformity? (5)
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Gaucher's disease, Anemia, Neimann-Pick Disease, Fibrous Dysplasia, Heavy Metal Poisoning
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DDx Ivory vertebral body. (3)
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1. Lymphoma
2. Paget's 3. Mets |
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Tendon responsible for lateral epicondylitis?
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Common extensor tendon. Duke folks use the term "Common extensor tendinosis" for this condition.
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Why is it important to extend imaging through the radial tuberosity when imaging acute elbow/upper extremity trauma?
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To assess the insertion of the biceps tendon for tear/rupture.
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What anatomic landmark of the radius separates extensor compartment groups II and III at the wrist?
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LIster's tubercle
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Decreased T1 and T2 signal on MRI in the proximal scaphoid after fracture?
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Necrotic... ain't comin' back
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Decreased T1 but increased T2 signal on MRI in the proximal scaphoid after fracture?
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Edema vs. Ishcemia, but not yet necrotic.
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What articular disease is giant cell tumor of the tendon sheath related to?
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PVNS
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Most common location for Achilles tendon rupture?
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4 cm above the calcaneal attachment
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Biceps tendon dislocation within the shoulder joint is associated with complete tear of which rotator cuff tendon?
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Subscapularis
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Differential diagnosis for peri-shoulder bursal fluid? (4)
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1. Rotator Cuff Tear
2. Subacromial bursitis 3. Subcoracoid bursitis 4. Therapeutic injection (fluid may persist for 2 weeks) |
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What is a sublabral foramen?
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Fluid signal extending between the glenoid and anterior/superior labrum. Not a tear in this location if extending medially.
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What is a Buford complex?
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Absent anterior-superior labrum with thick, cord-like hypertrophy of the middle glenohumeral ligament.
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Fluid signal in the superior labrum which does not extending medially?
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Likely a superior labral tear.
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What is a bankart lesion?
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Tear of the anterior-inferior labrum after anterior shoulder dislocation injury. Can also have a bony component ("Bony Bankart").
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Fluid signal in the posterior labrum?
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It's a tear... there is no normal labral variant in this region.
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What is suggested by intermediate signal posterior to the coracoid process in the shoulder?
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Adhesive capsulitis.
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What are the three important bursa to remember around the knee?
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Pes anserinus, Semimembranosus tibial collateral ligament , MCL
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Perthes lesion of the shoulder?
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Anterior glenohumeral injury in which the anterior labrum is lifted from the edge of the glenoid along with a sleeve periosteum which is displaced medially off of the underlying bone.
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How are ALPSA and Bankart lesions related?
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Both are secondary to anterior shoulder dislocation.
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What is the relative positioning of the peroneus brevis and peroneus longus tendons at the lateral ankle?
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Medial to anterior as it progresses inferiorly to insert on the base of the 5th metatarsal.
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Contents of the carpal tunnel? (5)
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Median nerve, Flexor pollicis longus, Flexor digitorum superficialis, Flexor digitorum profundus, Flexor carpi radialis.
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Most common intraarticular fragment in the setting of elbow dislocation in adults? In children?
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Adults- Coronoid process
Kids- Medial epicondyle |
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Where do popliteal cysts arise?
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Between the medial head of the gastrocnemius and semimembranosis.
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Two most common primary malignancies of the distal phalanx?
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Melanoma and Epidermoid carcinoma.
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What are epidermoid inclusion cysts? Where do they occur?
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Posttraumatic lesions resulting from penetrating trauma in which dermoid elements are implanted into bone. Occur in the distal phalanx and skull.
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Hemochromatosis and CPPD arthropathy may appear very similar in the hands, with preferentialy involving of the 2nd-5th MCP joints. What is a potential differentiating factor?
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Hemochromatosis is typically associated with osteopenia, whereas CPPD is not.
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Findings similar to secondary hypertrophic osteoarthropathy but primary and in a teen/young adult?
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Pachydermoperiostosis
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What two tendons are abnormal in De Quervain's tenosynovitis?
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Abductor pollicis longus and Extensor pollis brevis.
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Tendon involved in lateral epicondylitits? (2 alternate answers)
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Extensor carpi radialis brevis or Common extensor tendon
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Dominant tendon at the medial epicondyle of the elbow? (2 names)
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Ulnar collateral ligament, Medial collateral ligament
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What defines the borders of the quadrilateral space? What muscles are involved in quadrilateral space syndrome?
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Superior- Teres minor
Inferior- Teres major Lateral- Humerus Medial- Triceps Denervation of the teres minor +/- deltoid. |
