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75 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Where are sebaceous glands found?
Associated with hair follicles (holocrine)
Where are apocrine glands found?
Axillae, genitalia, areolae
What large glycoprotein maintains integrity to the BM and binds laminin to the BM?
integrin
What do anterior and posterior in ACL and PCL mean?
position on the tibia
Action of the psoas muscle
Abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh
How is Pancoast tumor related to MSK?
Can compress lower trunk of brachial plexus -> Klumpke's
Why is the brachial plexus often protected from a clavicle fracture?
Subclavius muscle acts as barrier
Where are the SNS preganglionic fibers located
T1-L3
Where the PSNS preganglionic fibers located?
CNs and S2-S4
4 features of Klumpke's
1) Atrophy of thenar and hypothenar eminences
2) Atrophy of interosseus muscles
3) loss of sensation on medial arm and hand
4) loss of radial pulse when leaning the head ipsilaterally
Loss of anocutaneous reflex
Bowel/bladder dysfunction
Loss of ankle-jerk w/plantar fled weakness
Cauda Equina syndrome (S3-S5)
This muscle connects the scapula to the thoracic cage
Serratus anterior
Actions of the lumbricals
Flex at MCP
Extend PIP and DIP
What is the Trendelenburg sign?
Contralateral hip drops, when standing on the leg ipsilateral to the lesion
Which nerve splits into the tibial and common peroneal nerves?
Sciatic
Which bands shrink in muscle contraction?
HI (A is Always the same)
What 'band/line' us the sarcomere?
Z line
Where does linear bone growth occur?
Epiphyseal plate
Source of osteoclasts?
Hematopoietic stem cells
Source of osteoblasts?
Mesenchymal stem cells of the PERIOSTEUM
What defect of FGF3 in achondroplasia, and what does it affect?
Constitutively active FGF3 -> which inhibits chondrocyte proliferation
Type 1 vs. Type 2 osteoporosis?
1 - inc bone resorption due to decreased estrogen
2 - senile osteoporosis
Which bone disorder do you see extramedullar hematopoiesis?
Osteopetrosis
Failure of normal bone resorption
ALL NORMAL LAB VALUES
"Erlenmeyer Flask" bones
Osteopetrosis
Genetic defect in carbonic anhydrase II
Osteopetrosis
Defective mineralization/calcification of osteiod
Osteomalacia/Rickets
+ for TRAP
may be ass w/ Parvovirus B19
Mosaic bone pattern
Pagets Disease
Increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity
Pagets Disease
Bone chalk-stick fractures
High output CV failure
Hearing Loss (narrowing foramina)
Paget's Disease
Lab values (Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica - "brown" tumor)
high PTH, high Ca2+, low phosphate, high ALP
Bone is replaced with fibroblasts, collagen, and irregular bony trabeculae
McCune-Albright syndrome
(Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)
"double bubble" or "soap bubble" on xray
Osteoclastoma
Which bone tumors are on the diaphysis?
Ewings sarcoma and chondrosarcoma
Which bone tumors are on the metaphysis?
Osteosarcoma, Osteo chondroma
Which bone tumor is on the epiphysis?
Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)
Codman's Triangle or sunburst pattern
Osteosarcoma
Expansive glistening mass within the medullary cavity (tumor)
Chondrosarcoma
high density of subchondral bone
Osteoarthritis
Abnormal layer of fibrovascular tissue or granulation tissue in joints
Pannus formation (RA) - MCP and PIP
What cancer are you at risk for w/ Sjogrens Syndrome?
high risk of B-cell lymphoma
Dry eyes, dry mouth, with no arthralgia
Sicca syndrome
Why does alcohol increase uric acid?
They both compete for the same binding sites
What cell type mediates inflammation observed in Gout?
neutrophils
3 characteristics of septic arthritis (STD)
Synovitis
Tenosynovitis (tendonitis)
Dermatitis
Causes of chronic infectious arthritis
TB, Lyme Disease
Dactylitis (sausage fingers), pencil-in-a-cup deformity on xray
Psoriatic arthritis
What is a complication of seronegative spondyloarthropathy?
sacrolitis (20%)
What causes the false + VDRL test in SLE
Anti-phospholipids that cross-react with cardiolipin
Why is there elevated Vit D levels in sarcoidosis?
epithelioid macrophages increase activation of Vit D -> elevated 1a-hydroxylase
What vasculitis is Polymyalgia rheumatica associated with?
Temporal arteritis
What 2 joins are often involved in polymyalgia rheumatica?
shoulders and hips
What induces the muscle weakness in polymyalgia?
CD8+ T-cells injure the myofibers
Which joint is most often involved in polymyalgia?
shoulder
Muscle biopsy shows perfascicular atrophy
dermatomyositis
Difference in lab findings between polymyalgia rheumatica and polymyositis (CK)
PR - norm CK
polymyositis - high CK, high aldolase, Anti-Jo-1
which muscles are affected first in myasthenia gravis?
extra-ocular muscles
increased thickness of stratum corneum (no nuclei)
hyperkeratosis
increased thickness of stratum corneum (nuclei present)
parakeratosis
epidermal hyperplasia with increased spinosum
acanthosis
Ephelis
freckle (normal number of melanocytes, high melanin pigment)
Which skin condition do you see spongiosis?
Allergic contact dermatitis (nickel, poison ivy)
bleeding spots when scales are peeled off
Auspitz sign in Psoriasis
Normal number of melanocytes with decreases melanin production (often due to decreased tyrosinase activity)
Albinism
"mask of pregnancy" or OCP use
Melasma (Chloasma)
Which layer of skin does the scalded skin syndrome attack?
Stratum granulosum
white, painless plaques, that CANNOT be scraped off; EBV mediated and HIV+
Hairy leukoplakia
Acute, painful infection in dermis or subcutaneous tissue (S. aureus or S.pyogenes)
Cellulitis
Skin disorder with saw-tooth infiltrate
Lichen planus
Hyperplasia of the stratum spinosum
Acanthosis Nigricans
Inflammatory lesions of subcutaneous fat, usually anterior shins
Erythema Nodosum
Skin cancer associated with arsenic
SCC
2 methods that corticosteroids block COX
inhibits phospholipase A2
prevents protein synthesis of COX
Where does acetaminophen act?
in the CNS; it gets inactivated peripherally
How do bisphosphonates inhibit osteoclastic activity?
reduce the formation AND resorption of hydroxyapatite
Why do you not take salicylates with Allopurinol/gout?
Salicylates (except at very high doses) decrease the secretion/clearance of uric acid