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58 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which, if any, of the following
levels of management contains chief
petty officers?
1. Top
2. Middle
3. Operating
4. None of the above
3. Operating
In which of the following types of
planning are chiefs normally
involved?
1. Single–use
2. Standing
3. Strategic
4. Both 2 and 3 above
1. Single–use
What type of planning involves
activities that will occur in 2 to 5
years?
1. Strategic
2. Standing
3. Procedures
4. Single-use
1. Strategic
Which of the following plans gives
broad general statements of expected
behavior?
1. P o l i c i e s
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives
1. P o l i c i e s
Which of the following plans are
detailed standing plans?
1. P o l i c i e s
2. Procedures
3. Rules and regulations
4. Organizational objectives
2. Procedures
What type of organizational document
should you use to help avoid crisis
management?
1. The command policies
2. The command procedures
3. The command organizational
o b j e c t i v e s
4. The command’s rules and
regulations
3. The command organizational
o b j e c t i v e s
Which of the following statements
concerning rules and regulations is
true?
1. They are standing plans
2. They state what you may or may
not do in a given situation
3. Commands use them to ensure
personnel comply with command
p o l i c y
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following types of
control is expressed in numerical
terms, usually by category and
a period of time?
1. Budget
2. Policy
3. Program
4. Project
1. Budget
Single-use plans are developed
which of the following plans?
1. Strategic
2. Programs
3. Projects
4. Budgets
1. Strategic
Which of the following statements
defines management by objectives
(MBO)?
1. MBO states a specific goal and
gives the major steps, the
timing of the steps, and the
resources required
2. Supervisors set the goals and
subordinates have no input to
the planning process
3. Supervisors and subordinates set
overall goals for the
organization together
4. MBO states the amount of time,
money, personnel, and other
resources to be used
3. Supervisors and subordinates set
overall goals for the
organization together
The purpose of MBO is to set clearly
defined goals everyone can
understand.
1. True
2. False
1. True
What principle is MBO based on?
1. People are more willing to work
toward a goal they are committed
to
2. People will do everything
possible to meet the goals they
s e t
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. Supervisors should set all the
goals because workers are
basically lazy
3. Both 1 and 2 above
Which of the following items is NOT
a disadvantage of management by
o b j e c t i v e s ?
1. It may cause leaders to overlook
objectives that cannot be
measured
2. It forces leaders to focus on
important objectives
3. It requires more time to use
4. It increases paperwork
2. It forces leaders to focus on
important objectives
You will find the work requirements
for your division in which of the
following divisional documents?
1. Strategic plans
2 Single-use plans
3. Rules and regulations
4. All of the above
4. All of the above
What is the first step in setting
goals for work requirements?
1. Identify the difference between
the real and ideal situation
2. Develop a single–use plan to
implement the change
3. Recognize the real situation in
your division
4. Make a commitment to change
1. Identify the difference between
the real and ideal situation
Which of the following statements
defines the goal setting criteria of
being behavior specific?
1. Specifies the necessary action
to take
2. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
3. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
4. Tests your ability, but has at.
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
1. Specifies the necessary action
to take
The goal setting criteria of being
measurable is defined by which of
the following statements?
1. The goal tests your ability, but
has at least a 50 percent chance
of being attained
2 . The goal specifies criteria or
check points for accomplishing
the goal
3. The goal provides a time
schedule or deadline for
reaching the goal
4. The goal specifies the necessary
action to take
2 . The goal specifies criteria or
check points for accomplishing
the goal
Which of the following statements
defines realistic but challenging
goal setting criteria?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2 . Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action
to take
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
Which of the following statements
defines time-phased goal setting
c r i t e r i a ?
1. Tests your ability, but has at
least a 50 percent chance of
being attained
2. Specifies criteria or check
points for accomplishing the
goal
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
4. Specifies the necessary action
to take
3. Provides a time schedule or
deadline for reaching the goal
If a task does not fit into the
priority of urgent, important, or
important/urgent, when should you do
the task?
1. Whenever you find time
2. Before the urgent task
3. Before the important task
4. Before the urgent/important task
1. Whenever you find time
Why should you use strengths,
weaknesses, opportunities, and
threats (SWOT) analysis?
1. To determine where the division
needs improvement
2. To determine opportunities
available to the division
3. To determine if there are any
obstacles the division must
overcome
4. All of the above
1. To determine where the division
needs improvement
What would an available school quota
be classified as during a SWOT
analysis?
1. Strength
2. Weakness
3. Opportunity
4. Threat
3. Opportunity
You must assign a person to a billet
that requires completion of a
personnel qualification standard.
When, if ever, is the person
considered qualified to fill the
b i l l e t ?
1. When the assignment is made
2. When the person completes the
personnel qualification standard
3. When the service record entry
documenting completion of the
personnel qualification standard
is made
4. Never
3. When the service record entry
documenting completion of the
personnel qualification standard
is made
. Trying to anticipate problems and
making corrections before problems
occur requires which of the
following types of control?
1. Quality
2 . Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feedforward
4. Feedforward
Which of the following types of
control involves making corrections
after an event happens?
1. Feedforward
2. Concurrent
3. Feedback
4. Quality
3. Feedback
Which of the following types of
control involves making changes as
an event occurs?
1. Quality
2. Feedback
3. Concurrent
4. Feed forward
3. Concurrent
An inspection of the raw input for
defects is what type of quality
control?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback
3. Feedforward
Which of the following types of
quality control is based on doing
the job right the first time?
1. Quality circle
2. Zero defects
3. Feedforward
4. Feedback
2. Zero defects
Which of the following types of
control is measurable?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt chart
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
Which of the following types of
control was developed by the Navy
while constructing the Polaris
missile?
1. Plan of action and milestones
2. Critical path method
3. Gantt Chart
4. PERT
4. PERT
When constructing a PERT network,
what is the fourth step?
1. Control the project
2. Find the critical path
3. Look for ways to improve the
p r o j e c t
4. Define the order needed to
complete the component task
2. Find the critical path
Which of the following statements
identifies the basic difference
between PERT and CPM?
1. CPM requires only one time
estimate
2. CPM includes a cost estimate as
well as time estimates
3. CPM assumes you have some
experience in performing each
component task
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
When you evaluate your control
system to eliminate unnecessary
costs, you are using which of the
following elements of effective
control?
1. Effectiveness
2. Acceptance
3. Timeliness
4. Accuracy
1. Effectiveness
A person who gives advice to the
commanding officer would belong to
which, i f any, of the following
types of organization?
1. Line
2. S t a f f
3. Functional
4. None of the above
2. S t a f f
A major department responsible for
accomplishing the mission of the
command belongs to which of the
following types of organization?
1. Line
2. S t a f f
3. Functional
4. Each of the above
1. Line
A functional organization is defined
by which of the following
statements?
1. Does not have authority over
line departments
2. Is responsible for accomplishing
the command mission
3. Has authority over all parts of
the command in ensuring its
special function is met
4. Gives advice to line departments
3. Has authority over all parts of
the command in ensuring its
special function is met
The division of work is explained by
which of the following
organizational concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
4. Specialization
The order of control within an
organization is defined by which of
the following terms?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
2. Unity of command
How many people can one person
effectively supervise?
1. 5
2. 10
3. 12
4. 13
2. 10
The order of authority within an
organization is explained by which
of the following organizational
concepts?
1. Chain of command
2. Unity of command
3. Span of control
4. Specialization
1. Chain of command
Delegating your authority is an
outstanding way to train
subordinates for positions of
greater authority.
1. True
2. False
1. True
Which of the following statements
concerning authority is correct?
1. Most authority in the Navy is
delegated
2. Subordinates usually accept
authority readily
3. Subordinates must recognize you
have authority over them before
your authority exist
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
The use of threats or negative
rewards is the use of which of the
following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
3. Coercive
When you influence others through
the use of your specialized
knowledge, you are exercising which
of the following types of power?
1. Expert
2. Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
1. Expert
Which of the following types of
power do you have simply because
people identify with you being a
c h i e f ?
1. Expert
2 . Referent
3. Coercive
4. Informational
2. Referent
Which of the following statements
concerning leadership is true?
1. It is the motivating force that
leads to coordinated action and
unity of effort
2. Leaders must encourage, inspire,
teach, stimulate, and motivate
all individuals of the
organization
3. You should never let a
subordinate be criticized or
penalized by anyone but yourself
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above
A leader who believes people must be
coerced, controlled, directed, or
threatened is using which of the
following leadership theories?
1. W
2. X
3. Y
4. Z
2. X
Immediate compliance to orders,
tight job control, and numerous
detailed reports on jobs are
characteristics of which of the
following leadership styles?
1. Coach
2. Coercer
3. Affiliatior
4. Pacesetter
2. Coercer
Which of the following definitions
identifies the authoritarian style
of leadership?
1. Negative feedback is given and
name calling is frequent
2 . Motivation is generated through
threats of discipline or
punishment
3. Rewards are given for personal
characteristics and punishment
is rare
4. Clear direction is given with no
doubt about who makes the final
decisions
4. Clear direction is given with no
doubt about who makes the final
decisions
Leaders who would rather do the job
themselves, set high standards,
expect self–direction, and have
trouble delegating authority,
exercise which of the following
leadership styles?
1. A f f i l i a t o r
2. Pacesetter
3. Democratic
4. Coach
2. Pacesetter
A democratic leadership style would
be particularly harmful in a drill
or battle condition for which of the
following reasons?
1. It requires time for meetings
2. The leader lacks control of the
group
3. Both 1 and 2 above
4. It takes authority away from
subordinates
1. It requires time for meetings
What leadership style is well suited
to a counselor but would have a
negative effect on a work center
operating on a tight schedule?
1. Authoritarian
2. A f f i l i a t o r
3. Democratic
4. Coach
2. A f f i l i a t o r
When you prepare your work center
for inspection by incorporating
preparation for inspection into the
daily routine, you are demonstrating
which of the following management
s k i l l s ?
1. Concern for standards
2 . Concern for efficiency
3. Planning and organizing
4. Supervising for effective
Concern for efficiency
You would exhibit the leadership
skill commitment to the command's
mission by taking which of the
following actions?
1. Seeing yourself as a leader
2. Making yourself available to
answer questions
3. Using threats or your authority
to influence others
4. Acting with the best interest of
the command in mind
4. Acting with the best interest of
the command in mind
Which of the following statements
describes the action you should take
in developing others?
1. Use the proper setting and
timing for optimum impact
2. See yourself as someone who
makes things happen
3. Provide constructive feedback to
subordinates
4. See yourself as a leader
3. Provide constructive feedback to
subordinates
Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as
confronting issues directly and
insisting others recognize your
place in the chain of command?
1. Concern for achievement
2 . Analytical problem solving
3. Persistence
4. Assertiveness
4. Assertiveness
Which of the following personal
characteristics is defined as being
a self–starter, seeing problems, and
taking action to correct the
problems without being told?
1. Interpersonal awareness
2. Assertiveness
3. Persistence
4. I n i t i a t i v e
4. I n i t i a t i v e
Which of the following is a benefit
of Total Quality Management?
1. Increased pride of workmanship
among individual workers
2 . Improved sustainability caused
by extended time between
equipment failures
3. Streamlined maintenance and
production processes
4. Each of the above
4. Each of the above