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194 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following terms is interchangeable with fundamentals of leadership? 1. Total quality leadership 2. Motivational theory 3. Basic principles of leadership 4. Principles of supervision
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3. Basic principles of leadership
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The publications that govern the rules and regulations of a petty officer's actions are 1. U.S. Navy Regulations and Manual for Courts-Martial only 2. U.S. Navy Regulations and Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy only 3. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual for Courts-Martial, and Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 4. Military Requirements for Petty Officer Third Class
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3. U.S. Navy Regulations, Manual for Courts-Martial, and Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
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An effective leader should recognize that people as individuals have different values and beliefs. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Which of the following traits is/are common to all successful leaders? 1. Initiative 2. Dedication 3. Accountability 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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Which of the following statements explains the relationship between followership and leadership? 1. The skills used are opposites 2. The skills used are not opposites 3. The skills used are unrelated 4. The roles are performed separately
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2. The skills used are not opposites
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When you realize you have made a wrong decision, admit your mistake, accept the responsibility, and 1. criticize others for the mistake 2. dont let subordinates know of your mistake 3. take steps to avoid repeating the error 4. do nothing else
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3. take steps to avoid repeating the error
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You will be responsible for providing training to lower-rated personnel for which of the following reason(s)? 1. They may be inexperienced 2. They may be poorly trained 3. Advancement enhancement 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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Not understanding the technical language of your rate results in which of the following problems? 1. Poor communication 2. Failure to advance in rate 3. Misinterpretation of official publications 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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Human behavior is the result of attempts to satisfy certain 1. wants 2. ideas 3. whims 4. needs
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4. needs
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Human behavior is classified into which of the following number of levels or groups? 1. Five 2. Six 3. Three 4. Four
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1. Five
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What level of human behavior is the most important? 1. Esteem 2. Safety-security 3. Survival 4. Self-actualization
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3. Survival
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When dealing with people, you can NOT change which of the following human traits? 1. Wants 2. Thought processes 3. Skills 4. Emotional makeup
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4. Emotional makeup
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An effective leader uses personality and skill to motivate and influence people to do a job. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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When you break a job down into tasks, you are performing what phase of supervision? 1. Directing 2. Planning and organizing 3. Rewarding and disciplining 4. Setting goals
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2. Planning and organizing
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What series of OPNAV instructions provides detailed instructions on a wide range of safety concerns? 1. 4400 2. 5100 3. 6100 4. 11200
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2. 5100
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In order to judge the progress of a job, which of the following basic questions must you answer before you begin the job? 1. Who and what 2. When and where 3. How 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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When reporting status to a superior there are four “B’s†to remember: Be on time, Be accurate, Be brief, and Be 1. gone 2. courteous 3. formal 4. forceful
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1. gone
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Nominating a subordinate for Sailor of the month is an example of what type of feedback? 1. Positive 2. Constructive 3. Good 4. Praise
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1. Positive
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A good rule of thumb to follow when giving feedback is to correct 1. openly and directly 2. in public and praise in private 3. in private and praise in public 4. when you and the other person have time
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3. in private and praise in public
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If 20% of your people are causing 80% of the problems, how much of your administrative time can you expect to spend dealing with this same 20%? 1. 20% to 30% 2. 40% to 50% 3. 60% to 70% 4. 80% to 90%
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4. 80% to 90%
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When counseling a subordinate, which of the following is NOT a key point to remember? 1. Be a good listener 2. Keep the individuals problem confidential 3. Help the individual grow in selfunderstanding 4. All problems are solvable in one session
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4. All problems are solvable in one session
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During counseling you allow the subordinate to determine the direction of the session. What type of counseling session is this? 1. Self-directed 2. Nondirected 3. Undirected 4. Informal directed
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2. Nondirected
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The Personnel Qualification Standard (PQS) is designed to qualify a Sailor for a specific watch station at what level? 1. Minimum 2. Maximum 3. Intermediate 4. Expert
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1. Minimum
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Which of the following methods is used for record keeping in PQS? 1. Chart only 2. Computer only 3. Either 1 or 2 above 4. Sign-off page
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3. Either 1 or 2 above
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When deciding on a method of teaching, which of the following factors must you consider? 1. Nature of the trainee 2. Subject matter 3. Time limitations 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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Detailed information on the duties and responsibilities of a training petty officer can be found in what document? 1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U. S. Navy 2. Personnel Qualification Standards management Guide 3. OPNAVINST 3500.34 4. OPNAVINST 5500
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1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U. S. Navy
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During class discussions and directed class discussions, what method of instruction is used? 1. Telling 2. Lecturing 3. Facilitating 4. Demonstrating
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3. Facilitating
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During a class discussion, what questioning technique should be used? 1. Yes or no 2. Thought provoking 3. Closed ended 4. Intimidating
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2. Thought provoking
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After instruction, when the trainee is required physically to repeat the steps in a procedure, what method of teaching should have been used by the instructor? 1. Telling 2. Lecturing 3. Demonstrating 4. Discussing
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3. Demonstrating
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During a lesson summary, which of the following major aims should be met to help the trainee? 1. Identification of subject matter 2. Organization of subject matter 3. Understanding of subject matter 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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An instructor by asking well-directed questions can make the difference between a dull lecture and a lively discussion. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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The technique of asking questions should NOT be used to review the lesson of instruction. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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A Navy command with 130 assigned personnel is required to have how many people appointed to the command training team? 1. 5 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
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3. 3
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A petty officer receives general authority from what document? 1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 2. U.S. Navy Regulations 3. Uniform Code of Military Justice 4. Letter of Appointment
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2. U.S. Navy Regulations (Article 1037)
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A petty officer receives organizational authority from what document? . Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 2. U.S. Navy Regulations 3. Uniform Code of Military Justice 4. Letter of Appointment
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1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
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Any order imposing punishment outside the framework of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) is unlawful. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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A petty officer can take certain measures to correct minor infractions under which of the following articles of the UCMJ? 1. 12 2. 13 3. 14 4. 15
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4. 15
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Extra military instruction (EMI) is classified as what type of corrective action? 1. General 2. Punitive 3. Nonpunitive 4. Physical
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3. Nonpunitive
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EMI can be assigned for what maximum number of hours per day? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
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2. 2
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The purpose of EMI is to correct a training deficiency and deprive normal liberty. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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EMI can NOT be assigned and conducted on the Sabbath. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Authority to assign EMI may be delegated to which of the following lowest levels? 1. E-6 2. E-7 3. Junior officer 4. Department head
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2. E-7
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A privilege is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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From the list below which is NOT an example of a privilege? 1. Base parking 2. Base or ship library 3. Normal liberty 4. Exchange of duty
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3. Normal liberty
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Withholding of a privilege rests with which of the following authorities? 1. The person in charge of the work center 2. The person that grants the privilege 3. The chief master-at-arms 4. The officer of the deck
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2. The person that grants the privilege
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Your responsibilities as a petty officer end when you are on liberty. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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When an enlisted person violates a regulation in the presence of both an officer and a petty officer, who is responsible for correcting the violator? 1. Master-at-arms 2. Officer 3. Petty officer 4. Chief petty officer
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3. Petty officer
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Except for a major offense, a person should be put on report only as a last resort. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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When placing a person on report, you may orally notify the chain of command (COC). 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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The results of a preliminary inquiry of an alleged offense are given to which person? 1. Accuser 2. Executive officer 3. Master-at-arms 4. Command master chief
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2. Executive officer
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Under article 31 of the UCMJ special caution is cited for which of the following areas? 1. Preservation of the accuseds rights 2. Right to see the results of inquiry 3. Preservation of the identity of the accuser 4.Communication with the accuser
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1. Preservation of the accuseds rights
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As a member of the armed forces, you believe you have been wronged by your commanding officer. After due application to the commanding officer, you are refused redress. Under what article of the UCMJ may you complain to any superior officer? 1. 1 2. 45 3. 115 4. 138
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4. 138
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Who decides which type of court-martial to award? 1. Accuser 2. Accused 3. Executive officer 4. Commanding officer
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4. Commanding officer
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Where can you find a list of offenses that must be reported? 1. Uniform Code of Military Justice 2. Naval Regulations 3. Ships Organizational and Regulation Manual 4. Code of Conduct
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1. Uniform Code of Military Justice
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Hair should be tapered from the lower hairline upward by at least how many inch(es)? 1. 1/2 2. 3/4 3. 1 4. 1 1/2
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2. 3/4
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Pens or pencils used for work may be worn exposed on the uniform. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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While in uniform women may wear both a necklace and a choker. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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When are sea-bag inspections required for all E-3 and below personnel? 1. Annually 2. Biannually 3. Upon transfer 4. Upon check in at a new command
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3. Upon transfer
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Chevrons on rating badges worn on the pea coat of both male and female Sailors measure 3 1/4 inches wide. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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How far from the front and lower edge of the collar is the collar device placed? 1. 1/2 inch 2. 3/4 inch 3. 1 inch 4. 1 1/2 inches
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3. 1 inch
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The hat device is centered on the front of the ball cap how many inch(es) above the visor? 1. 1/2 2. 3/4 3. 1 4. 1 1/4
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4. 1 1/4
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What article of the Constitution provides that the executive power shall be vested in a President of the United States? 1. V 2. II 3. III 4. IV
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2. II (Article II Section 1)
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The President is the administrative head of what branch of the government? 1. Executive 2. Legislative 3. Judicial 4. Congressional
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1. Executive
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The President may order the armed forces into military action before Congress declares war. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Who heads the military chain of command within the Department of Defense? 1. President 2. Joint Chiefs of Staff 3. Secretary of Defense 4. Department of the Army
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3. Secretary of Defense
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Who is the principal advisor to the President on defense policy? 1. Joint Chiefs of Staff 2. Secretary of Defense 3. Commandant of the Marine Corps 4. Secretary of the Navy
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1. Joint Chiefs of Staff
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The chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff outranks all other officers in the armed forces. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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There are a total of how many unified combatant commands? 1. Nine 2. Six 3. Five 4. Four
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1. Nine
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In what year was the Department of the Air Force established? 1. 1947 2. 1949 3. 1950 4. 1951
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1. 1947
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As part of our military team, the Army focuses on what type of operations? 1. Land 2. Special 3. Air 4. Joint
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1. Land
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On what date was the United States Navy founded? 1. August 7, 1798 2. April 30, 1789 3. July 1, 1776 4. October 13, 1775
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4. October 13, 1775
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What office monitors and evaluates congressional proceedings and actions that effect the Department of the Navy? 1. Office of Information 2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy 3. Office of Program Appraisal 4. Office of Legislative Affairs
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4. Office of Legislative Affairs
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What office provides legal services within the Department of the Navy in all areas except business and commercial law? 1. Office of Program Appraisal 2. Office of the General Counsel of the Navy 3. Office of the Judge Advocate General 4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
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3. Office of the Judge Advocate General
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As an Assistant Secretary of the Navy, the Comptroller of the Navy is responsible for 1. financial management 2. shipbuilding and logistics 3. research, engineering, and systems 4. manpower and reserve affairs
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1. financial management
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The Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy is assigned to what immediate office? 1. Chief of Naval Personnel 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Assistant Secretary of the Navy
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2. Chief of Naval Operations
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What person advises the Chief of Navy Personnel on all matters regarding enlisted members and their dependents? 1. Chief of Naval Operations 2. Master Chief PettyOfficer of the Navy 3. Secretary of the Navy 4. Vice Chief of Naval Operations
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2. Master Chief PettyOfficer of the Navy
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The operating forces of the Navy are combat or combat-support oriented. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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A task force (TF) is a subdivision of a fleet. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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What is the Navys primary source of immediate mobilization manpower? 1. Individual Ready Reserve 2. Standby Reserve 3. Selected Reserve 4. Retired Reserve
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3. Selected Reserve
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The Military Sealift Command is operated by the Navy for all armed services. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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U.S. Naval Forces Europe consists only of forces assigned by the CNO or from the Atlantic Fleet. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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The U. S. Naval Forces Central Commands area of responsibility includes which of the following areas? 1. Mediterranean 2. Middle East 3. Continental United States 4. South America
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2. Middle East
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The Atlantic Fleets area of responsibility includes which of the following areas? 1. Mediterranean 2. Middle East 3. Cuba 4. Antarctica
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1. Mediterranean
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The Pacific Fleets area of responsibility includes which of the following areas? 1. Southeast Asia 2. Arctic Ocean 3. U. S. west coast 4. Both 2 and 3 above
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4. Both 2 and 3 above
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Shore commands answer directly to CNO to carry out their missions. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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What command plans the amount of education and training needed by Navy personnel to meet manpower requirements? 1. CHNAVPERS 2. CNET 3. DIRSSP 4. COMNAVDOCCOM
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1. CHNAVPERS
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What command has central authority for ship and nuclear power safety? 1. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM 2. COMNAVSEASYSCOM 3. COMNAVFACENGCOM 4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
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3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
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What command is responsible for research, development, test, evaluation, procurement, and logistic support in aviation-related areas? 1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM 2. DIRSSP 3. COMNAVFACENGCOM 4. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
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4. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM
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What command develops supply management policies and methods? 1. DIRSSP 2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM 3. COMSPAWARSYSCOM 4. COMNAVDOCCOM
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2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM
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What command acquires and disposes of real estate for the Navy and manages Navy family housing? 1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM 2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM 3. COMNAVFACENGCOM 4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
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3. COMNAVFACENGCOM
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What command researches, develops, tests, evaluates, and procures airborne and shipboard electronics? 1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM 2. COMNAVSUPSYSCOM 3. COMNAVAIRSYSCOM 4. COMNAVFACENGCOM
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1. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
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What commands mission is to organize, train, and equip computer and telecommunications activities? 1. DIRSSP 2. COMNAVDOCCOM 3. COMNAVCOMTELCOM 4. COMNAVMETOCCOM
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3. COMNAVCOMTELCOM
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What commands mission is to develop, produce, and support fleet ballistic missile and strategic weapon systems? 1. DIRSSP 2. COMNAVDOCCOM 3. COMNAVSEASYSCOM 4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM
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2. COMNAVDOCCOM 3 . COMNAVSEASYSCOM 4. COMSPAWARSYSCOM 1. DIRSSP
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What commands mission is to collect, interpret, and apply atmospheric and oceanic data for safety and strategic and tactical planning? 1. COMNAVSEASYSCOM 2. COMNAVMETOCCOM 3. COMNAVFACENGCOM 4. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
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2. COMNAVMETOCCOM
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What command provides, operates, and maintains an adequate naval security group? 1. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 3. CNET 4. COMNAVSPACECOM
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3. CNET 4. COMNAVSPACECOM 2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM
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What command is responsible for shorebased education and training of Navy, certain Marine Corps, and other personnel? 1. CHNAVPERS 2. BUMED 3. DIRSSP 4. CNET
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4. CNET
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What command is responsible for the development of naval concepts and integrated naval doctrine? 1. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM 2. COMNAVDOCCOM 3. CHNAVPERS 4. BUMED
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2. COMNAVDOCCOM
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What command oversees DoN's intelligence and security requirements and responsibilities? 1. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 2. COMNAVSAFCEN 3. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM 4. ONI
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4. ONI
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What command administers the legal service program within the Navy? 1. DIRSSP 2. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM 3. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 4. COMNAVSAFCEN
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2. COMNAVLEGSVCCOM
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What command provides direct space systems support to naval forces and helps prepare the naval service for larger space systems involvement? 1. COMNAVSAFCEN 2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 3.COMNAVSPACECOM 4. ONI
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2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 3. COMNAVSPACECOM 4. ONI 3. COMNAVSPACECOM
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What command enhances the war-fighting capability of the Navy and Marines by arming our Sailors, Marines, and civilians with the knowledge they need to save lives and preserve resources? 1. COMNAVSAFECEN 2. COMNAVSECGRUCOM 3. COMNAVSPACECOM 4. ONI
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1. COMNAVSAFECEN
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The United States Marine Corps is part of the Department of the Navy. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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What is the largest government agency in the United States? 1. DoD 2. DoN 3. USN 4. CNO
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1. DoD
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What organization is presidentially chartered and mandated by Congress to develop ballistic and cruise missile defense systems that are capable of providing a limited defense of the United States? 1. Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency 2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization 3. Defense Intelligence Organization 4. Defense Information Systems Agency
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2. Ballistic Missile Defense Organization
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What organization assists the military departments in their research and development efforts? 1. Defense Intelligence Agency 2. Defense Contract Audit Agency 3. Defense Finance and Accounting Service 4. Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
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4. Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
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What agency is responsible for providing an efficient and effective worldwide system for reselling groceries and household supplies? 1. Defense Contract Audit Agency 2. Defense Finance and Accounting Service 3. Defense Commissary Agency 4. Defense Logistics Agency
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3. Defense Commissary Agency
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What agency is responsible for making all payments, including payroll and contracts, for DoD? 1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service 2. Defense Information Systems Agency 3. Defense Legal Service Agency 4. Defense Commissary Agency
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1. Defense Finance and Accounting Service
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The Defense Information Systems Agency is a combat support agency. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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What agency is responsible for polygraph research, education, training, and examinations? 1. Defense Threat Reduction Agency 2. Defense Security Service 3. Defense Intelligence Agency 4. Defense Legal Services
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2. Defense Security Service
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What agency is responsible for threat reduction to the United States and its allies from nuclear, biological, chemical, and other special weapons? 1. Defense Security Agency 2. Defense Intelligence Agency 3. Defense Information Systems Agency 4. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
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4. Defense Threat Reduction Agency
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The division safety petty officer has ultimate responsibility for safety matters within the division. 1. True 2. False
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2. False (Division Safety Officer)
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On the command level the safety council meets at what intervals? 1. Monthly 2. Bimonthly 3. Annually 4. Biannually
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1. Monthly
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In which document would you find the basic guidelines and standardized procedures for tag-outs? 1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 2. Basic Military Requirements 3. Hazard Communication Standard 4. Hazardous Material Control and Management
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1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
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An equipment tag-out bill provides procedures for which of the following actions? 1. Prevention of improper operation of equipment in an abnormal condition 2. Operation of unreliable instrument 3. PMS 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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How many documents does the tag-out log contain? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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3. Three
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In a tag-out log, the front of the record sheet contains the 1. record sheets that have been cleared and completed 2. tag-out index and record of audits 3. copy of the main instruction and other amplifying directives for administering the system 4. name of the system or component, serial number of the tag-out, date/time of tagout issue, and reason for the tag-out
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4. name of the system or component, serial number of the tag-out, date/time of tagout issue, and reason for the tag-out
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On non-nuclear powered ships, audits for tag-outs are required at what minimum interval? 1. Every 2 weeks 2. Every 3 weeks 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly
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1. Every 2 weeks
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) passed a regulation that requires all civilian and military employees of the federal government to comply with what regulation? 1. Hazardous Material Control and Management 2. Hazard Material and Refuse Management 3. Hazard Communication Standard 4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
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3. Hazard Communication Standard
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To protect your rights and to ensure personnel comply with OSHA and Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) regulations, the Navy established what program? 1. Hazardous Material Control and Management 2. Hazard Material and Refuse Management 3. Hazard Communication Standard 4. Hazardous and Toxic Material Disposal
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1. Hazardous Material Control and Management
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The Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS) is a computerized database of which of the following items? 1. Hazardous Material Users Guide (HMUG) 2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs) 3. Ship Hazardous Material List (SHML) 4. Hazardous Material Afloat Program (HMAP) Management Guide
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2. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)
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HMIS is distributed on CD-ROM every 1. week 2. 2 weeks 3. month 4. quarter
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4. quarter
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For information on cleaning solvents, refer to which of the following chapters in the Naval Ships Technical Manual (NSTM)? 1. 670 2. 660 3. 631 4. 630
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3. 631
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Storage areas for chlorinated-cleaning solvents should be monitored regularly by the 1. command duty officer 2. fire marshal 3. engineer officer 4. gas-free engineer
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4. gas-free engineer
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For enclosed storage spaces that contain chlorinated solvents, an air change is recommended every 1. 1 minute 2. 2 minutes 3. 3 minutes 5. 4 minutes
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3. 3 minutes
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When handling organic-cleaning solvents, wear which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE)? 1. Neoprene gloves 2. Safety splash goggles 3. Protective coveralls 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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In addition to wearing PPE for organic cleaning solvents, you must wear an oxygen breathing apparatus (OBA) and notify the gas-free engineer if vapors accumulate over how many parts per million? 1. 50 2. 100 3. 150 4. 200
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2. 100
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) procedures used to establish levels of readiness for a chemical agent attack are flexible. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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The risk of a chemical, biological, and radiological (CBR) threat can be categorized into how many levels of probability? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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4. Four
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During what MOPP level is individual protective equipment issued? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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1. One
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During what MOPP level will the individual protective mask be maintained in carrier and on person? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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2. Two
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During what MOPP level will individuals don chemical protective overgarments? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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3. Three
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During what MOPP level will individuals don their protective masks? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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4. Four
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Which of the following periods is the maximum time a closure or fitting may be logged open? 1. One watch period 2. During normal working hours 3. 12 hours 4. 24 hours
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4. 24 hours
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Items requiring special management control because the material is essential to the protection of life or is relatively valuable and easily can be converted for personal use are called 1. expendable items 2. replacement items 3. controlled equipage 4. consumable items
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3. controlled equipage
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Which system is responsible for naming, describing, classifying, and numbering all items carried under centralized inventory control by DoD and civil agencies of the federal government? 1. Federal catalog 2. Navy supply 3. Local supply 4. National supply
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1. Federal catalog
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Stock and control numbers used to identify and order material in the supply system are known by which of the following terms? 1. National stock numbers 2. Navy item control numbers 3. Local item control numbers 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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A national stock number (NSN) consists of a total of how many digits? 1. 9 2. 11 3. 12 4. 13
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4. 13
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The national item identification number (NIIN) identifies each item of supply used by which of the following organizations? 1. Department of Defense 2. North Atlantic Treaty Organization 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. United Nations
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3. Both 1 and 2 above
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A Navy item control number (NICN) has how many characters? 1. 9 2. 11 3. 12 4. 13
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4. 13
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A cognizance (cog) symbol has how many alphanumeric characters? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
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2. Two
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Lets assume that you do not have a stock number for an item and cannot locate it in the allowance lists. Which of the following means may be of use to identify the item? 1. Manufacturers part number 2. Nameplate 3. Contractors service bulletin 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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The Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL) is both a technical and a supply document. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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The COSAL is based on equipment nomenclature data contained in the computerized Weapons System File at the Ships Parts Control Center. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Which of the following forms is/are used to order material? 1. DD Form 1348 2. DD Form 1348-6 3. DD Form 1149 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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NAVSUP Form 1250-1 is used for which of the following reasons? 1. To improve inventory control procedures 2. To report consumption under the maintenance data system (MDS) 3. To procure materials and services 4. All of the above
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3. To procure materials and services
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The casualty reporting (CASREP) system contains five types of reports: initial, update, correct, resubmission, and cancel. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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What type of CASREP report, if any, is submitted when equipment is back in operational condition? 1. Resubmission 2. Correction 3. Cancellation 4. None
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2. Correction
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In most cases when any of your equipment fails, you first trace the trouble to a defective part and then prepare what document? 1. DD Form 1149 2. CASREP 3. NAVSUP Form 1250-1 or DD Form 1348 4. Message report
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3. NAVSUP Form 1250-1 or DD Form 1348
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When is the petty officer of the watch (POOW) the primary enlisted assistant to the officer of the deck (OOD)? 1. At sea 2. In port 3. On watch on the bridge 4. On watch in battle conditions
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2. In port
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For detailed information on preparing naval correspondence, you should refer to what document? 1. Department of the Navy Correspondence Manual, SECNAVINST 5216.5 2. Preparing, Maintaining and Submitting the Ships Deck Log, OPNAVINST 3100.7B 3. U.S. Navy Regulations 4. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
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1. Department of the Navy Correspondence Manual, SECNAVINST 5216.5
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The commanding officer, officer in charge, or the person acting in either position must personally sign which of the following documents? 1. Those which establish policy 2. Those which make changes to the commands mission 3. Those required by law or regulation 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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If signature authority has been delegated to the leading petty officer, which of the following documents is he/she NOT allowed to sign? 1. Service record pages 2. Special request chits 3. DD 214 4. 3M weekly schedule
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1. Service record pages
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The basic requirements for maintaining the ship's deck log are contained in which of the following documents? 1. U.S. Navy Regulations 2. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Naval Ships Technical Manual
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3. Both 1 and 2 above
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At times deck logs may be used in which of the following legal actions? 1. Naval courts 2. Admiralty proceedings 3. Civilian courts 4. All of the above
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4. All of the above
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If you make a mistake in a deck log, you must take what corrective action? 1. Use white out 2. Scratch out the error 3. Tear out the page and rewrite the entry 4. Draw a single line through the mistake
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4. Draw a single line through the mistake
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Deck log entries must be clear, concise, accurate, and be 1. signed by the commanding officer 2. typewritten 3. preceded by the time of occurrence 4. written in red ink
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3. preceded by the time of occurrence
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The overall responsibility for the deck log belongs to the 1. OOD 2. JOOD 3. POOD 4. CDO
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log belongs to the 1. OOD
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To confirm that the ship's casualty alarms are operating properly, the POOW tests them during what watch? 1. 0800 - 1200 2. 1200 - 1600 3. 1600 - 2000 4. 2000 - 2400
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1. 0800 - 1200
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Deck log entries regarding the status of the ship (moored, anchored, in dry dock, etc.), location, services being received, ships present, and senior officer present afloat (SOPA) are made during what watch? 1. 2000 - 2400 2. 1600 - 2000 3. 1200 - 1600 4. 0000 - 0400
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4. 0000 - 0400
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What log contains information on policy changes and routine items, such as liberty call times? 1. Security log 2. Passdown log 3. Visitors log 4. Deck log
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2. Passdown log
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The level of security of a command is determined by the 1. OOD when assuming the watch 2. sensitivity of different parts of the command and/or the state of prevention, such as attacks by terrorists 3. population on the ship at the time 4. presence of the commanding officer
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2. sensitivity of different parts of the command and/or the state of prevention, such as attacks by terrorists
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What security force is called away by an alarm when there is an unauthorized entry by an unknown person? 1. Shore Patrol 2. Base police 3. Security Alert Team 4. Roving patrol
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3. Security Alert Team
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There is only one reason to surrender your weapon to an unauthorized person. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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The use of deadly force is justified only under conditions of extreme necessity as a last resort when all lesser means have failed or cannot reasonably be employed and only under one or more explicit circumstances. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Which naval authority has defined the term deadly force? 1. SECNAV 2. NAVSEA 3. OPNAV 4. NAVPERS
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3. OPNAV
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Side boys are NOT paraded on what day? 1. Payday 2. Saturday 3. Sunday 4. Any holiday
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3. Sunday
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Side boys are NOT paraded during which of the following times? 1. Between sunset and 0800 2. Meal hours 3. General drills 4. All of the above
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3. General drills 4. All of the above 1. Between sunset and 0800
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An informal visit of courtesy requiring no special ceremonies is a/an 1. sight visit 2. call 3. look and see 4. informal request
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2. call
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When a gun salute is prescribed on arrival, it is fired as the visitor approaches and is 1. at the first step onto the deck 2. still inside transportation 3. still clear of the side 4. on deck
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3. still clear of the side
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When a gun salute is not prescribed on arrival and a flag or pennant is to be displayed during the visit, the flag is broken at which of the following points of the pipe? 1. End 2. Start 3. Either 1 or 2 above 4. During
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2. Start
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When a visitor is ready to leave the ship, the guard presents arms; all persons on the quarterdeck salute; and ruffles and flourishes, followed by music, is sounded. What happens next? 1. Two is sounded 2. Anthem is played 3. Flag or pennant is displayed 4. Visitor is piped over the side
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4. Visitor is piped over the side
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When a gun salute is directed upon departure, it is fired 1. at the visitors first step off the deck 2. when the visitor is getting in/on transportation 3. when the visitor is clear of the side 4. while the visitor is still on deck
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3. when the visitor is clear of the side
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The POOW should notify the OOD of a change during any 1-hour period in the barometric pressure reading of a minimum of how many inches? 1. 0.05 2. 0.02 3. 0.03 4. 0.04
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4. 0.04
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What instrument is designed to measure barometric pressure? 1. Thermometer 2. Aneroid barometer 3. Wind vane 4. U-tube manometer
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2. Aneroid barometer
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What weather condition(s) does an anemometer measure? 1. Temperature and pressure 2. Wind speed and direction 3. Atmospheric temperature 4. Speed of ocean currents
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2. Wind speed and direction
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As POOW, you will be required to make sure the anchor lights and the aircraft warning lights are turned on at sunset and turned off at sunrise when the ship is in which of the following conditions? 1. Moored 2. Under tug support 3. At sea 4. Piloted through narrow waterways
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1. Moored
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How many minutes before sunset should the ships anchor lights be tested? 1. 60 2. 30 3. 20 4. 15
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2. 30
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The anchor lights must be visible on a clear night for how many nautical miles? 1. 5 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
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3. 3
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The anchor ball, displayed in the forward part of the ship, is what color(s)? 1. Red 2. Orange 3. Black 4. Black and white
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3. Black
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Which of the following factors will determine if a PO3 is assigned as a section leader? 1. Size of the command 2. Number of personnel assigned to his or her duty section 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Number of the departments in the command
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3. Both 1 and 2 above
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As a section leader, you report to what person after normal working hours? 1. LPO 2. OOD 3. CDO 4. Department duty officer
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4. Department duty officer
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When you are assigned as a temporary master-at-arms, how long is the usual tour of duty? 1. 1 month 2. 3 months 3. 6 months 4. 12 months
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3. 6 months
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Authority to create a shore patrol outside the continental limits of the United States has been delegated to naval area representatives by the 1. President of the United States 2. U.S. Congress 3. SECNAV 4. CNO
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3. SECNAV
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When serving on shore patrol overseas, you apprehend an unauthorized absentee who presents an orderly appearance and is obviously returning to base. You should permit the Sailor to proceed. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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Shore patrol personnel should never accept concessions, such as favors or gifts. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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When standing shore patrol duties, you normally have jurisdiction over military dependants (civilians) and military personnel. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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Enlisted shore patrol personnel should apprehend an officer only when situations offer no alternative. 1. True 2. False
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1. True
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When apprehending members of the opposite sex, it is never permissible to have physical contact. 1. True 2. False
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2. False
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A squad at full strength normally consists of how many personnel? 1. 10 2. 11 3. 12 4. 13
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3. 12
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A platoon consists of a minimum of how many squads? 1. One 2. Only two 3. Two or more 4. Only three
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3. Two or more
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A company consists of how many platoons? 1. One 2. Only two 3. Two or more 4. Only three
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3. Two or more
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Quick time is cadence at how many steps per minute? 1. 30 2. 60 3. 120 4. 240
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3. 120
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For back step, at the command BACKWARD MARCH, take steps straight to the rear in what length of step in inches? 1. 15 2. 20 3. 25 4. 30
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1. 15
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For a column right, on the command column right, MARCH, what pivot angle is taken to the right? 1. 45 degrees 2. 50 degrees 3. 65 degrees 4. 90 degrees
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4. 90 degrees
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