Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
581 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
|
Give the Order, Family, Subfamily, and Genus of the laboratory mouse?
|
Order Rodentia, Family Muridae, Subfamily Murinae, Genus Mus.
|
LAM, 2d ed., Ch. 3, p. 35
|
|
|
What anatomical features help differentiate the lab mouse from other murids?
|
Molar teeth and cranial bones.
|
35
|
|
|
What is the genus/species and common name of the mouse most commonly used in research?
|
Mus musculus, the house mouse of Europe and North America.
|
35
|
|
|
What is the most thoroughly characterized mammal on earth (in genetic terms), as well as the most widely and heavily-used experimental animal? Why ?
|
The lab mouse. Mouse genome is useful in gene mapping, there is the ability to create highly-sophisticated, genetically engineered mice by insertion of transgenes or targeted mutations into endogenous genes.
|
35
|
|
|
Laboratory mice are identified by strain and ________________.
|
Breeding system
|
36
|
|
|
Genetic mapping in mice began in the early 1900s. The first autosomal genes, _______ and _________, were linked in 1915
|
Albino and pink-eyed dilution
|
36
|
|
|
Mice have _________(how many?) chromosomes that are differentiated by the size and pattern of transverse bands.
|
40
|
36
|
|
|
Mice of the ______________ strain provide a model for human insulin-dependent diabetes.
|
NOD (nonobese diabetic)
|
36
|
|
|
QTL methodology stands for _______________.
|
Quantitative trail loci methodology
|
36
|
|
|
What breeding system in mice is defined as a brother-sister mating for more than 20 generations?
a. random bred stock b. inbred strain c. outbred strain d. F1 hybrid |
b. inbred strain
|
37
|
|
|
What is defined as mice crossed from two inbred strains?
a. random bred stock b. inbred strain c. outbred strain d. F1 hybrid |
F1 hybrid
|
37
|
|
|
What breeding system is mice is defined as random mating within a large, heterogeneous population?
a. random bred stock b. inbred strain c. outbred strain d. F1 hybrid |
a, random bred stock
|
37
|
|
|
: Brother-sister mating system for more than 20 generations with heterozygosity for the mutations forced by (1) backcrossing, (2) intercrossing, (3) crossing and intercrossing, or (4) backcrossing and intercrossing is defined as what term?
|
Segregating inbred strain
|
37
|
|
|
Occurrence of a mutation of interest within a strain is known as:
a. congenic inbred strains b. coisogenic inbred strains c. recombinant inbred strains d. recombinant congenic strains e. advanced intercross lines |
b, coisogenic inbred strains
|
37
|
|
|
A mutation or gene of interest transferred by repeated backcrossing of mutation bearing mice for 10 or more generations or a cross-intercross system for the equivalent of 20 or more cycles within an inbred parent strain is known as:
a. congenic inbred strains b. coisogenic inbred strains c. recombinant inbred strains d. recombinant congenic strains e. advanced intercross lines |
: a, congenic inbred strains
|
37
|
|
|
Brother-sister mating for >20 generations after crossing two inbred strains and their F1 to obtain an F2 is known as:
a. congenic inbred strains b. coisogenic inbred strains c. recombinant inbred strains d. recombinant congenic strains e. advanced intercross lines |
c, recombinant inbred strains
|
37
|
|
|
Nonsibling matings from an F2 of a cross between two inbred strain is known as:
a. congenic inbred strains b. coisogenic inbred strains c. recombinant inbred strains d. recombinant congenic strains e. advanced intercross lines |
e, advanced intercross lines
|
37
|
|
|
One or more backcrosses of F1 to one parent strain before beginning brother-sister mating for >20 generations after crossing two inbred strains and their F1 to obtain an F2 is known as:
a. congenic inbred strains b. coisogenic inbred strains c. recombinant inbred strains d. recombinant congenic strains e. advanced intercross lines |
d, recombinant congenic strains
|
37
|
|
|
Random breeding or outbreeding can only be achieved in a large or small colony of mice?
|
large
|
37
|
|
|
In contrast to inbred mice, random breed or outbred mice are genetically heterogenous or homogenous?
|
heterogenous
|
38
|
|
|
CBA/J mouse carries the gene for what disorder?
|
Retinal degeneration
|
29
|
|
|
How are mouse strains designated?
|
By a series of letters and/or numbers
|
39
|
|
|
C57BL/j6 inbred mouse strain what is the subline number?
|
6
|
39
|
|
|
Sublines of inbred strains are obtained from the central registry maintained where?
|
ILAR Washington, DC
|
39
|
|
|
A noninbred stock is designated by placing the Lab Code before the stock symbol separated by what?
|
A full colon
|
39
|
|
|
What is the abbreviation for the mutant gene shiverer?
|
shi
|
39
|
|
|
Who is responsible for genetic nomenclature rules in mice?
|
International Committee on Standardized Genetic Nomenclature for Mice
|
39
|
|
|
_______ is the acronym for high-efficiency particulate air.
|
HEPA
|
40
|
|
|
__________ is the order of plastic materials used in caging of mice based on decreasing order of cost and durability.
|
Polycarbonate, polypropylene and polystyrene
|
40
|
|
|
It is preferable to _________ bedding prior to use, but if this is not convenient, the bedding should be used only after its origin and microbial content have been evaluated.
|
Autoclaved
|
41
|
|
|
___________ cages substantially reduce or prevent airborne transmission of microbial agents and minimize caretaker exposure to allergens.
|
Filter-top
|
41
|
|
|
Filter-top caging employs ________ air exchange and is prone to accumulate CO2 and NH3 , thereby requiring frequent sanitation and bedding changes.
|
Passive
|
41
|
|
|
Mice consume about ________ of feed per day after weaning and maintain this intake throughout life.
|
3-5 grams
|
41
|
|
|
Adult mice drink ______ of water per day.
|
6-7 ml
|
41
|
|
|
_________ water intake will decrease food consumption.
|
Decreased
|
41
|
|
|
Sick mice commonly drink very little water, but _______ can be administered in the drinking water prophylactically, a measure used commonly in immunodeficient mice.
|
antimicrobials
|
41
|
|
|
Which mouse nutrient requirement makes up the largest percent of the diet: Protein, Fat, Fiber or Carbohydrate?
|
Carbohydrate (concentration in diet (%) = 45-60)
|
42
|
|
|
The mouse responds to cold exposure, for example by _____________.
|
nonshivering thermogenesis
|
42
|
|
|
A resting ________ acclimated to cold can generate heat equivalent to about triple the basal metabolic rate, a change that is greater than for any other animal
|
mouse
|
42
|
|
|
. A mouse must generate about ____Kcal/m2 per 24 hr to maintain body temperature for each 1 deg. C drop in ambient temperature below the thermoneutral zone.
|
46 Kcal
|
42
|
|
|
Can mice tolerate nocturnal cooling?
|
. No. Not as well as larger animals
|
43
|
|
|
What is the mouse’s biological half-time for turnover of water and what is the significance of this rate?
|
1.1 days, this is more rapid than larger mammals. Mice have a greater sensitivity to water loss.
|
43
|
|
|
How do mice adapt to moderate but persistent increases in environmental temperatures?
|
Persistent increase in body temperature, persistent decrease in metabolic rate, and increased blood flow to the ears increase heat loss.
|
43
|
|
|
At what ambient temperature will mice die in confinement?
|
37 degrees or higher
|
43
|
|
|
The neotatal mouse is __________ and does not have well-developed temperature control before ___ days of age.
|
Ectothermic, 20
|
43
|
|
|
The thermoneutral zone for mice varies with strain and with condition but it is about _______ degrees C.
|
29.6 to 30.5
|
43
|
|
|
In the mouse, the left lung is a single lobe. The right lung is divided into four lobes: _____, ______, ______, and ________.
|
superior, middle, inferior, postcaval
|
45
|
|
|
A mouse at rest uses about ____ ml O2/gm/hr, which is about 22 times more O2/gm/hr than is used by an elephant.
|
3.5
|
45
|
|
|
In the mouse the _____ kidney is normally located anterior to the ____ kidney.
|
right, left
|
45
|
|
|
Kidneys from _____ of many inbred strains of mice are consistently heavier than kidneys from _____.
|
males, females
|
45
|
|
|
Compared to the rat, a mouse has _______times as many glomeruli?
|
4.8
|
46
|
|
|
In the mouse, the filtering surface per gram of renal tissue is ________compared to the rat?
|
twice the size
|
46
|
|
|
Name two things that account for why mouse urine is highly concentrated.
|
1. Long loops of Henle, 2. Vasa recta, (organized giant vascular bundles associated with the loops of henle in the renal medulla)
|
46
|
|
|
State the concentration of mouse urine compared to a human in mOsm/liter.
|
Mouse=4300 mOsm; human=1160 mOsm
|
46
|
|
|
_________ is always present in mouse urine; __________is always absent from mouse urine.
|
Taurine; tryptophan
|
46
|
|
|
Is protein normally found in mouse urine?
|
Yes, large amounts are normally excreted in the urine.
|
46
|
|
|
True or False: Creatine is excreted in mouse urine; a trait which differs from other mammals.
|
True; other mammals excrete creatinine (correction from what is written in the BB)
|
46
|
|
|
In the mouse, the submaxillary salivary gland secretes what type of saliva? How does this differ from most other animals?
|
Serous saliva only; other animals have a mixed submaxillary salivary gland i.e. seromucoid (correction from what is written in the BB)
|
46
|
|
|
The esophagus of the mouse is lined by what type of epithelium?
|
Thick, cornified squamous epithelium (makes for easy gavage)
|
46
|
|
|
The proximal portion of the mouse stomach is _________, whereas the distal part of the stomach is __________.
|
Keratinized, glandular
|
46
|
|
|
True or False: Gastric secretion in the mouse continues whether or not food is present
|
True
|
46
|
|
|
The ceca of normal mice contain up to _____bacteria / gm of feces.
|
1011
|
46
|
|
|
. __________ animals have known microbiota.
|
Gnotobiotic
|
46
|
|
|
With regard to oxygen sensitivity, what bacteria make up the majority of the normal microbiota of rodents
|
Extremely oxygen sensitive (EOS) fusiform bacteria
|
46
|
|
|
______________ was the first person to colonize germfree mice with selected bacteria isolated from normal mice thus creating the ___________ gnotobiotic mouse.
|
Schaedler, Schaedler flora
|
46
|
|
|
What is ASF (think gnotobiotics)?
|
Altered Schaedler Flora: standardized microbiota used to colonize germfree rodents
|
46
|
|
|
How many bacteria of the ASF were carried over from the original Schaedler flora?
|
Four; two lactobacilli, Bacteriodes distasonis, and the EOS fusiform bacteria
|
46
|
|
|
What is an “axenic” rodent?
|
. Germfree i.e. no GI bacteria
|
46
|
|
|
What three general types of bacteria are found throughout the gut (stomach, sm intest, cecum, lg intest) of the mouse (described as “autochthonous” or originating from the place where found)
|
Lactobacilli, Group N Streptococci, Torulopsis
|
46 see picture
|
|
|
The typical lymph node in the mouse is bean-shaped and consists of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex id divided into B-lymphocyte domains, called __________, and T-lymphocyte domains, known as the __________.
|
primary follicles, diffuse cortex
|
47
|
|
|
What two specific types of tonsils are absent in the mouse?
|
Mice lack palatine and pharyngeal tonsils.
|
47
|
|
|
In the mouse, the thymus is a bilobed lymphoid organ lying in the anterior mediastinum. It reaches maximum size around the time of sexual maturity and involutes between _____ and _____ days of age.
|
Thymic involution occurs between 35 and 80 days of age.
|
47
|
|
|
In the mouse, Peyer’s patches, the cecal lymphoid tissue, and lymphoid tissue in the upper and lower respiratory tract, as well as the genitourinary system, constitute what specific tissue.
|
Mucosa-associated lymph tissue (MALT)
|
47
|
|
|
Mice conditioned to a recording apparatus have a mean systolic BP from __________ to __________ mmHg.
|
85 to 105
|
48
|
|
|
True or false: an increase in body temperature of the mouse does not lead to an increase in blood pressure.
|
True
|
48
|
|
|
What is the normal vertebral formula for the mouse?
|
C7 T13 L6 S4 Cd28
|
48
|
|
|
Taxonomically placed in the order Rodentia, the mouse’s incisors will by definition grow continuously/stop growing at maturity.
|
Grow continuously
|
48
|
|
|
How many molars are in each quadrant of the mouse dental arcade?
|
3 (2 x I1/1 C0/0 PM0/0 M3/3)
|
48
|
|
|
What is the smallest tooth in both jaws of the mouse?
|
Third molar
|
48
|
|
|
What do the clitoral glands of the female mouse secrete? Where is it secreted? (Hint: homologous to the male preputial glands)
|
A sebaceous substance through ducts entering the lateral wall of the clitoral fossa.
|
48
|
|
|
How many pairs of mammary glands does a normal female mouse possess?
|
Five (three in cervicothoracic region; two in inguinoabdominal region)
|
48
|
|
|
What are number and names of the accessory sex glands found in male
mice |
Six, Seminal vesicle, Coagulating gland, Ampulla, Ventral prostate,
Bulbourethral gland, Preputial gland. |
49
|
|
|
During which phase of the estrous cycle does ovulation occur in the mouse ?
proestrus estrus metestrus diestrus anestrus |
B. estrus
|
50
|
|
|
The phase of the estrous cycle during which there are no leukocytes present or identified
diestrus metestrus estrus proestrus anestrus |
C. estrus
|
50
|
|
|
Which of the following factors does not influence the estrous cycle of mice ?
social environment pheromones photoperiod diet none of the above |
E. none of the above
|
50
|
|
|
True or False ???. Mating, estrus and ovulation most often occur during the dark phase of the photoperiod.
|
True
|
50
|
|
|
Which of the following effects is characterized by the suppression of estrus in mice housed in large groups?
Whitten effect Bruce effect Lee-Boot effect |
A. Whitten effect
|
50
|
|
|
Which of the following effects is characterized by the pheromones from a strange male mouse, particularly of a different strain, preventing implantation or causing pseudo-pregnancy in recently bred female mice?
Whitten effect Lee-Boot effect Bruce effect |
C. Bruce effect
|
50
|
|
|
Which of the following factors does not play a role in signaling the estrus cycle ?
male pheromones estrogenic substances group housing circadian rhythm |
D. circadian rhythm. Note: The cyclicity of estrus and ovulation is controlled by the diurnal rhythm of the photoperiod.
|
50
|
|
|
Secretions from what two components make up the vaginal plug?.
|
secretions from the vesicular and coagulating glands
|
51
|
|
|
On what day during gestation does secretion of progesterone change from the corpus luteum to the placenta?
|
day 13.
|
51
|
|
|
How long can ova from the mouse be successfully fertilized after ovulation?
|
10-12 hours
|
51
|
|
|
Gestation is usually how long in the mouse?
|
19-21 days.
|
51
|
|
|
How long is gestation usually delayed from delayed implantation due to lactation?
|
12-13 days.
|
51
|
|
|
Milk production usually peaks at what day in the mouse?
|
day 12.
|
51
|
|
|
What hormone is required for nursing but not essential for parturition or reproductive behavior?
|
oxytocin.
|
51
|
|
|
The majority of maternal antibody is transferred through __________.
|
. colostrum.
|
51
|
|
|
What are the two broad categories of pheromones ?
|
primer and releaser.
|
51
|
|
|
Name a strain of mouse prone to fighting?
|
male BALB/c.
|
51
|
|
|
What does the term barber mouse refer to?
|
Dominant mice (because they usually retain their whiskers)
|
52
|
|
|
What is the primary mammalian model for immunology research?
|
mouse
|
52
|
|
|
How many classes of immunoglobulins does the mouse possess?
|
Five
|
52
|
|
|
Mouse T lymphocytes can be differentiated into two primary phenotypes, ____________ and ____________.
|
CD4+ and CD8+
|
53
|
|
|
________________ are MHC class II restricted and promote B lymphocytes responses essential for humoral immunity.
|
CD4+ T cells
|
53
|
|
|
________________ are MHC class I restricted and serve as cytotoxic cells for cell-mediated immunity or act to suppress immune responsiveness
|
CD8+ T cells
|
53
|
|
|
._________________ are a set of signaling molecules involved in cells communicating with one another in a complex biological system.
|
Cytokines
|
53
|
|
|
Mouse T lymphocytes can be differentiated into two primary phenotypes, ____________ and ____________.
|
CD4+ and CD8+
|
53
|
|
|
________________ are MHC class II restricted and promote B lymphocytes responses essential for humoral immunity.
|
CD4+ T cells
|
53
|
|
|
________________ are MHC class I restricted and serve as cytotoxic cells for cell-mediated immunity or act to suppress immune responsiveness
|
CD8+ T cells
|
53
|
|
|
._________________ are a set of signaling molecules involved in cells communicating with one another in a complex biological system.
|
Cytokines
|
53
|
|
|
IFN is the abbreviation for ______________
|
Interferon.
|
54
|
|
|
IL is the abbreviation for ______________
|
Interleukin.
|
54
|
|
|
GM-CSF is the abbreviation for ______________
|
Granulocyte-Macrophage Colony Stimulating Factors.
|
54
|
|
|
NK is the abbreviation for ______________
|
Natural Killer Cell.
|
54
|
|
|
TGF is the abbreviation for ______________
|
Tumor Growth Factor.
|
54
|
|
|
Table XII: Give the immunodeficiency / phenotype for each of the following immunodeficient mice?
a. Nude b. SCID c. Rag-1 and Rag-2 d. XID e. Moth-eaten f. Beige g. 1pr and gld h. Cytokine KO i. Receptor KO |
Defective transcription factor gene for thymic epithelial cell differentiation / athymic & hairless, no T-cell function
Defective DNA-dependent kinase for T and B cell receptors / hypoplastic lymphoid tissues, no Ig or T-cell response, sensitive to ionizing radiation damage due to defective DNA break repair Defective recombinase enzymes, preventing formation of functional B & T cell receptors / hypoplastic lymphoid tissues, no Ig or T-cell responses Defect in Bruton’s tyrosine kinase gene affecting signal transduction in B cells / Decreased B cell numbers, low IgM… *** Model for human X-linked agammaglobulinemia Defective phoasphatase, impairing signal transduction from cell receptors / defective humoral and cellular immunity, lack cytotoxic and NK cells, moth-eaten pelage secondary to folliculitis, autoimmune syndromes, hypergammaglobulinemia Mutation on Chromosome 13 affects pigment granules (coat, retina) and lysosomal granules of T. II pneumocytes, mast cells, NK cells / Diluted coat color, lysosomal storage disease, decreased NK & neutrophil activity *** Model for Chediak – Higashi syndrome Impaired apoptosis from Fas or Fas ligand defect / gen’l lymphoproliferative disease, autoimmunity, immunodeficiency Genetically engineered disruption of cytokine genes / anemia, wasting, IBD Genetically-engineered disruption of receptor genes / lack response to signal of interest, variable immune compromise… |
55
|
|
|
What is the traditional benchmark of testing for microbiological surveillance (in general)? When would additional testing be needed, and what tests might be used ?
|
Serology. To better detect or confirm, molecular diagnostics, microscopy or agent isolation may be justified.
|
55
|
|
|
What three main factors must be considered when interpreting test results ?
|
1) Knowledge of the agent, 2) Its potential effects on exposed mice, and 3) the validity of the testing or surveillance methods
|
55
|
|
|
Is there one standard plan for surveillance and testing mouse colonies ?
|
No- effective strategies will vary with the research needs, operating conditions, agents of interest.
|
55
|
|
|
What virus causes Mousepox (common name and scientific name) ? What other virus is it closely related to, antigenically and physiochemically ?
|
Caused by ectromelia virus, an orthopoxvirus. Related to vaccinia virus.
|
55
|
|
|
List two strains of ectromelia virus that have been extensively used for lab work ?
|
Ans. Moscow and NIH-79 strains.
|
55
|
|
|
The only known host of ectromelia virus is _____________.
|
mouse
|
56
|
|
|
The three clinical courses of mousepox are acute asymptomatic infection, _______ and __________.
|
Acute lethal infection and chronic infection with low mortality
|
56
|
|
|
The __________ and ___________ mouse strains are resistant to ectromelia virus.
|
C57BL/6 and AKR
|
56
|
|
|
Que: Natural transmission of mouse hepatitis virus (MHV) is facilitated by:
a. resistant mice b. immunocompromised mice c. intermediately resistant mice d. immunodeficient mice |
c, intermediately resistant mice
|
57
|
|
|
Mouse hepatitis virus excretion typically lasts for about _________ weeks.
|
3 weeks
|
57
|
|
|
The risk for transmission of infectious MHV are increased by persistence of the virus in excreta and exfoliated scabs for up to what timeframe?
|
virus has been found in scabs and/or feces for up to 16 weeks.
|
57
|
|
|
Que: Which of the following listed are usually more susceptible to lethal infection of MHV?
a. young adult mice b. infant mice c. aged mice d. a & b e. b & c |
: e, infant and and aged mice are more susceptible to lethal infection of MHV
|
57
|
|
|
: Ectromelia virus multiply in the cell cytoplasm and produces what two types of inclusion bodies?
|
Type A (Marvhal body) – well demarcated and acidophilic; Type B – basophilic and found in all ectromelia-infected virus cells.
|
57
|
|
|
: Where typically are type A ectomelia inclusion bodies found?
|
in epithelial cells of skin, mucous membranes, intestinal mucosa
|
57
|
|
|
Which type of ectromelia inclusion body is difficult to visualize?
|
Type B, cells must be stained intensely with hematoxylin or by immunohistochemistry
|
57
|
|
|
Following skin invasion, MHV ensues a primary viremia by viral multiplication in what organ?
|
lymph node
|
57
|
|
|
During acute stages of mousepox, necrosis of the spleen and scarring of red and white pulp produces what kind of macroscopic pattern?
|
The scarring produces a “mosaic” pattern of white and red-brown. See Fig. 16 on page 58.
|
57
|
|
|
In the pathogenesis of mousepox the incubation period starts with skin invasion and multiplication and then goes to ___________ multiplicatiion, primary viremia in the bloodstream, __________and _________ multiplication necrosis, secondary virema and then to the skin for focal infection multiplication.
|
Regional lymph node, spleen, liver
|
58
|
|
|
The disease course consists of swelling of the primary lesion, an early rash with __________ and then a severe rash with ___________.
|
Papules, ucleration
|
58
|
|
|
Detection of characteristic _____________ eosinophilic inclusions aids in the detection of mousepox infection.
|
intracytoplasmic
|
58
|
|
|
Historically, the standard test was _______________, using vaccinia antigen as a source of hemagglultinin. An _______________is more sensitive and specific and has replaced HAI for serological monitoring among nonvaccinated mice. Ectromelia virus infection can also be detected by _______ and __________.
|
Hemagglutination inhibition (HAI), ELISA, IFA, PCR
|
58
|
|
|
Serological differentiation of mousepox from vaccinia infectiion in vaccinated mice is based on the lack of hemagglutinin in the vaccine strain of virus. Thus, serum from vaccinated mice may react by _________but should not react by _________.
|
ELISA, HAI
|
58
|
|
|
Mousepox must be differentiated from other infectious diseases associated with high morbidity and high mortality. These include _______, ___________ and _______. Each can be expressed by acute necrosis in parenchymal organs, but they can be differentiated by morphological, serological and virological criteria.
|
Mouse hepatits, Tyzzer’s disease, reovirus 3.
|
58
|
|
|
The skin lesions from chronic ___________ must be differentiated from other skin diseases caused by opportunistic or pathogenic bacteria, acariasis and bite wounds.
|
mousepox
|
58
|
|
|
____________coupled with _________ has been used as a primary means for control of mousepox.
|
Depopulation, vaccination
|
58
|
|
|
Name the strain of vaccine virus used to vaccinate mice?
|
IHD-T hemagglutinin-deficient strain
|
59
|
|
|
Can vaccinations be used to control or prevent clinically apparent mousepox?
|
yes
|
59
|
|
|
Where are mice vaccinated for mouse pox?
|
Scarify skin on the dorsam of the tail
|
59
|
|
|
What occupational health concerns should be considered when using vaccinia virus for vaccinations of mice?
|
Human pathogen, personnel protective measures to prevent exposure
|
59
|
|
|
Name the two herpes viruses in which mice are naturally susceptible?
|
Mouse cytomegalovirus and thymic necrosis virus
|
59
|
|
|
Que. What type of herpes viruses is mouse cytomegalovirus?
|
Mouse specific betaherpes virus
|
59
|
|
|
Which animal serves as the natural reservoir for infection for mouse cytomegalovirus?
|
Wild mice
|
60
|
|
|
What type of inclusion bodies are diagnostic for mouse cytomegalovirus?
|
Enlarged cells containing eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions, especially of the salivary glands
|
60
|
|
|
Mouse cytomegalovirus must be differentiated from what other virus?
|
Mouse thymic virus
|
60
|
|
|
Mouse thymic is what kind of virus?
|
Herpesvirus
|
60
|
|
|
With mouse thymic virus, lesions only develop in mice when?
|
Mice infected perinatally
|
60
|
|
|
Infected thymocytes display mouse thymic virus positive_______herpetic inclusions.
|
Intranuclear
|
60
|
|
|
_________ associated with intranuclear inclusion herpetic inclusions is the hallmark lesion of Mouse Thymic Virus.
|
Thymic necrosis
|
61
|
|
|
Seroconversion of MTV can be detected by ELISA or IFA. _________ are two other methods to detect MTV infection
|
PCR and MAP
|
61
|
|
|
__________, Epizootic Diarrhea of Infant Mice, or stress are differential diagnoses for MTV.
|
Mouse Coronavirus
|
61
|
|
|
Because MTV induces persistent infection, _______ and _______ should be considered.
|
Rederivation and restocking
|
61
|
|
|
MTV complicates research because it transiently suppresses _______ and _______ immune responses.
|
Cellular and humoral
|
61
|
|
|
. __________ and _________ are two parvoviruses that affect mice.
|
Minute virus of mice and Mouse parvovirus
|
61
|
|
|
An allotropic variant of MVM with immunosuppressive properties in vitro has been named ___________.
|
MVM(i)
|
61
|
|
|
The MVM genome encodes two nonstructural proteins, ______and ______, that are highly conserved among rodent parvoviruses and account for prominent cross-reactivity in generic serological assays.
|
NS-1 and NS-2
|
61
|
|
|
The viral capsid proteins, ______ and _____, are virus-specific and form the basis for serological differentiation of MVM from MPV.
|
VP-1 and VP-2
|
61
|
|
|
Natural infections of MVM are _________.
|
asymptomatic
|
61
|
|
|
MVM is highly infectious for the _______, its only known natural host.
|
mouse
|
61
|
|
|
. MVM can infect the gastrointestinal track and is excreted in the _____ and ______.
|
Urine and feces
|
61
|
|
|
The resistance of rodent parvoviruses to ________ inactivation increases the risk of transmission after virus is excreted.
|
environmental
|
61
|
|
|
Transmission of MVM occurs by oronasal exosure, but vira contamination of biologicals used for experimental inoculation, such as _______ _______, also can be a source of infection.
|
Transplantable tumors
|
61
|
|
|
In contrast to MPV, MVM is not thought to cause persisent infections; infection in immunocompetent adult mice usually lasts less than _________.
|
3 weeks
|
61
|
|
|
There is no evidence that MVM is transmitted ___ ______.
|
In utero
|
61
|
|
|
Natural infections or experimental inoculation of MVM in adult mice appears to be ________.
|
Non-pathogenic
|
61
|
|
|
MVM contact exposed neonates have been reported to develop _______ lesions, but these are rare.
|
cerebellar
|
61
|
|
|
Experimental infection of neonatal BALB/c, SWR, SJL, CBA, and C3H mice with MVM (i) can cause ______ hemorrhage and infarction.
|
renal
|
61
|
|
|
______ serology is the primary method to detect MVM infection
|
ELISA
|
61
|
|
|
. MVM can be differentiated from MPV using virus-specific _____ antigens.
|
Ans. VP-2
|
61
|
|
|
Although the most commonly used molecular assay is PCR amplification of a conserved portion of NS-1 (nonstructural protein –1), it does not differentiate_________ from MPV.
|
MVM
|
62
|
|
|
MVM can be isolated from spleen, kidney, intestine, and other tissues by ______________.
|
inoculation of the C6 rat glial cell line.
|
62
|
|
|
MVM control and elimination should exploit_____________________.
|
quarantine combined with thorough disinfection of the environment, because parvoviruses are resistant to environmental inactivation.
|
62
|
|
|
Failures to establish long – term cell cultures from infected mice or a low incidence of tumor “takes” should alert researchers to the possibility of _________ contamination
|
. MVM
|
62
|
|
|
Prevention of MVM infection depends on strict ________ and__________
Of mice and mouse products destined for use in vivo. |
barrier husbandry and regular surveillance
|
62
|
|
|
MVM contamination of transplantable ________ is quite common: therefore, infection can be introduced to a colony through inoculation of contaminated cell lines.
|
neoplasms
|
62
|
|
|
MPV (mouse parvovirus) is clinically silent in ________ mice and________ or_________.
|
. infant mice and adult immunocompetent or immunodeficient mice
|
62
|
|
|
MPV causes ________ infection in infant and adult mice, a property that differentiates it from MVM.
|
persistent
|
62
|
|
|
_______ is a characteristic of acute and persistent MPV infection in infant and adult mice.
|
Lymphocytotropism
|
62
|
|
|
Que. During a cute infection MPV is dispersed within lymph nodes, but during persistent infection virus localizes in _________.
|
germinal centers
|
62
|
|
|
________ is a sensitive and specific assay that differentiates MPV from MVM.
|
A recently developed MPV – specific Elisa that uses MPV VP-2 as and antigen
|
62
|
|
|
The _____ test also can be used to detect parvovirus infections but is relatively time consuming and expensive.
|
Ans. MAP
|
62
|
|
|
. Although diagnostic PCR is sensitive and specific, it is effective only in ____________ and requires access to tissues that are usually obtained at __________.
|
Ans. actively infected animals, necropsy
|
62
|
|
|
Que. __________ are the only cells found thus far to support replication of MPV.
|
Immortalized T cells
|
62
|
|
|
What technique is used to distinguish MPV (mouse parvovirus) from MVM (minute virus of mice or murine minute virus)?
|
Serology and molecular hybridization.
|
63
|
|
|
How is MPV controlled?
|
Quarantine, depopulation, cearean rederivation or embryo transfer.
|
63
|
|
|
What are MPV research complications?
|
Can distort biological responses that depend on cell proliferation ie. the immune function including augmentation or suppression of humoral and cellular immune responses.
|
63
|
|
|
Adenoviruses are enveloped/nonenveloped DNA/RNA viruses that produce _______ inclusions in vitro and in vivo.
|
Noneveloped, DNA, intracellular
|
63
|
|
|
What are the two adenoviruses associated with mice?
|
MAdV-1 (FL) and MAdV-2 (K87)
|
63
|
|
|
In what tissue do the MAdV replicate?
|
Mouse kidney tissue culture.
|
63
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of MAdV-1 in infant mice?
|
Scruffiness, lethargy, stunted growth, and often death within 10 days.
|
63
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of MAdV-2 infection?
|
Enterotropic, asymptomatic in immunocompetent mice with possible exception of transient runting among infant mice.
|
63
|
|
|
How is MAdV transmitted?
|
. Ingestion
|
63
|
|
|
What is the persistency of infection of MAdV-1?
|
Adult mice experimentally infected may remain persistently infected and excrete virus in the urine for prolonged periods.
|
63
|
|
|
What is the persistency of infection of MAdV-2?
|
Adult mice experimentally infected excrete virus in feces for at least 3 weeks but eventually recover. Athymic mice can shed MAdV-2 for at least 6 weeks and episodically for at least 6 months.
|
63
|
|
|
How is MadV-1 characterized pathologically?
|
Multisystemic disease characterized by necrosis.
|
63
|
|
|
Infection with MAdV-2 in mice produces amphophilic, intranuclear inclusions in the gastrointestinal tract especially in the _______.
|
distal small intestine and cecum
|
64
|
|
|
. MAdV cross-neutralization tests have revealed that antiserum to ______ neutralizes both strains.
|
MAdV-
|
64
|
|
|
. Intranuclear adenoviral inclusions in intestinal epithelium are pathognomonic for ______ infection of mice
|
MAdV-2
|
64
|
|
|
Mice can incur natural infection with which 2 papovaviruses?
|
polyomavirus and K virus
|
64
|
|
|
The primary importance of polyoma virus in murine models stems from its ability to induce______.
|
cancer/oncogenesis
|
64
|
|
|
QUE. Once murine polyoma virus infection is established it can be shed in which secretions?
|
. urine, feces and saliva
|
64
|
|
|
Polyoma virus in mice can be isolated in mouse fibroblast cell lines, but infection is ordinarily detected serologically by _____.
|
ELISA
|
65
|
|
|
Que. Tumor and cell lines destined for mouse inoculation should be tested for ___________ by the mouse antibody production test or molecular diagnostics.
|
polyomavirus
|
65
|
|
|
____________ infection can affect experiments by inadvertent contamination of cell lines or transplantable tumors, leading to infection of inoculated mice and the potential for epizootic spread.
|
Polyomavirus
|
65
|
|
|
________ is a papovavirus of mice that has historical importance but is of little consequence to contemporary mouse colonies.
|
K virus
|
65
|
|
|
_______________ is a togavirus specific to mice that increases the concentration of several serum enzymes, most notably lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).
|
Lactate Dehydrogenase-Elevating Virus (LDV)
|
65
|
|
|
_______________ is a response that is used to detect and titrate LDV infectivity.
|
Elevation in plasma LDH
|
66
|
|
|
How many isoenzymes of LDH-V are found in mouse plasma?
|
5
|
|
|
|
Name a strain of mice that show a “spectacular” increase in LDH levels (15-20x normal levels) when infected with LDV?
|
SJL/J
|
66
|
|
|
LDV is detected by measuring LDH levels in mouse plasma when?
|
before and 4 days after inoculation of SPF mice with suspect material
|
|
|
|
LDV infection causes a modest humoral antibody response that is difficult to detect because of the formation of _________________.
|
Virus-antibody immune complexes
|
66
|
|
|
Historically, ____________ are a common source of LDV.
|
Transplantable tumors.
|
|
|
|
Although LDV can infect tumor cells, it does not ____________ in them.
|
replicate
|
66
|
|
|
Name two (of four) potential effects of LDV on immunological function?
|
1. Reduce autoantibody production 2. Cause transient thymic necrosis and lymphopenia 3. Suppress cell-mediated immune responses 4. Enhance or suppress tumor growth
|
66
|
|
|
LCMV is what type of virus?
|
Togavirus, single-stranded, enveloped RNA virus
|
|
|
|
. Is LCMV cytolytic ?
|
Ans. No, it buds from infected cells without cytolysis
|
66
|
|
|
. True or False: LCMV can infect insect cells as well as mammalian cells and can persistently infect naturally exposed mice and cultured cells.
|
True
|
66
|
|
|
Natural infection of LCMV in immunocompetent adult mice is usually ___________ and _____________.
|
Self-limiting, asymptomatic
|
66
|
|
|
Name the four basic patterns of clinical disease of experimentally induced LCMV infection
|
. 1. Cerebral form 2. Visceral form 3. Runting and death of neonatally infected suckling mice 4. Late-onset disease (immune complex glomerulonephritis)
|
66
|
|
|
Name four common laboratory species that are susceptible to LCMV infection.
|
Ans. Mice, hamsters, guinea pigs, NHPs
|
66
|
|
|
___________ and ___________ are the only laboratory species known to transmit the LCMV virus.
|
mouse, hamster
|
|
|
|
LCMV infection is usually introduced into a mouse colony via ____________ or ______________.
|
Virus infected biologicals, feral mice
|
|
|
|
_____________ are the natural reservoir of LCMV.
|
Wild mice (North and South America, Europe, Australia)
|
|
|
|
Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) carrier mice usually develop as a result of asymptomatic prenatal or neonatal infection, which induces tolerance to the virus. Such mice can have persistently high concentrations of virus in many organs, thereby facilitating virus excretion in __________, __________, and __________.
|
saliva, nasal secretions, and urine
|
|
|
|
Mice can transmit LCMV to __________, which can remain viremic and viruric for many months even if they contract infection as adults.
|
hamsters
|
|
|
|
The primary laboratory animal species that is the primary source of human LCMV infection is the __________.
|
hamster (infected mice are not a significant source of human exposure)
|
|
|
|
LCMV disease in mice is a prototype for virus-induced, _______________ and for immune complex disease.
|
T-lymphocyte-mediated immune injury
|
|
|
|
__________ inoculation of LCMV into immunocompetent adult mice can induce nonsuppurative leptomeningitis, choroiditis, and focal perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates.
|
Intracerebral
|
|
|
|
Pick the terms that correctly complete this sentence: In adult mice with acute LCMV infection, virus multiplies in B cells/T cells and macrophages, whereas B cells/T cells are resistant.
|
Multiplies in B cells; T cells are resistant
|
|
|
|
Que. Pick the terms that correctly complete this sentence: Regarding LCMV infection in mice, internal viral epitopes induce humoral/cell-mediated responses, but surface epitopes elicit humoral/cell-mediated immunity and neutralizing antibodies.
|
Humoral; cell-mediated
|
|
|
|
True or false: elimination of LCMV virus and virus-associated immunological injury in mice are both T cell-mediated.
|
True
|
|
|
|
At the cellular level, what causes the lesions of LCMV infection in mice?
|
Ans. Lesions of LCMV infection appear to develop from direct T cell-mediated damage to virus-infected cells and may involve humoral factors released from immune effector T cells.
|
|
|
|
Que. True or false: LCMV can suppress humoral and cellular immunity in acutely infected mice.
|
True
|
|
|
|
Persistent infection of LCMV in mice commonly evolves from exposure: 1) early in pregnancy; 2) late in gestation; 3) during the post-partum phase prior to weaning.
|
1) early in pregnancy
|
|
|
|
Pick the term that correctly complete this sentence: Prenatal or neonatal LCMV infection in mice induces immunological tolerance/frank morbidity/death.
|
Immunological tolerance; LCMV can then replicate to high titer in many tissues
|
|
|
|
True or false: persistently infected mice with LCMV develop a cell mediated immunity to the virus,
|
False: persistently infected mice develop humoral immunity to LCMV.
|
|
|
|
What is considered a useful husbandry strategy for detecting LCMV infection in mice by seroconversion?
|
Using adult contact sentinel mice
|
|
|
|
Intracerebral inoculation of LCMV-positive tissues should elicit neurological signs in adult mice within __________ days.
|
10
|
|
|
|
True or false: Intracerebral inoculation of LCMV-positive tissues into neonatal mice will produce death within 3-4 days, thereby confirming LCMV presence.
|
False; neonatal mice will remain asymptomatic.
|
68
|
|
|
True or false: LCMV has zoonotic potential.
|
True; LCMV can be transmitted to humans, who can contract severe CNS disease. More frequently human infection resembles influenza or is asymptomatic.
|
|
|
|
What other differential diagnoses must be considered when working up a mouse with neurologic signs that is suspected of having LCMV?
|
Mouse hepatitis virus; mouse encephalomyelitis virus; and meningoencephalitis from metastatic bacterial infection.
|
|
|
|
True or false: mouse-to-mouse spread of LCMV is rapid and complete depopulation is the only known method of control in an infected colony.
|
False: because mouse-to-mouse spread is slow, selective testing and culling for seropositive or carrier mice is possible. If mice are easily replaced, depopulation is a safer and more reliable option.
|
|
|
|
If both hamsters and mice are being used to study LCMV, explain why these two species should not be housed together (in the same room).
|
Ans. Infected hamsters secrete large quantities of the virus; exposed hamsters should be destroyed.
|
|
|
|
Que: What family of viruses does Sendai virus belong and to which human virus is
it antigenically related |
Paramyxovirus, human parainfluenza virus l.
|
|
|
|
Sendai viral replication during natural infection in mice is restricted to which
system and which cell types. |
respiratory tract, airway epithelium and type II pneumocytes.
|
69
|
|
|
Which of the following lesions is not characteristically seen with Sendai virus infection ?
multinucleated syncytia squamous metaplasia of bronchial epithelium lymphoid hyperplasia adenomatoid appearance of terminal bronchioles all are characteristic |
C. lymphoid hyperplasia
|
|
|
|
What components of the inflammatory response system are responsible for both the lesions seen and recovery from Sendai virus infection ?
cellular immunity humoral immunity both cellular and humoral immunity interleukins prostaglandins |
Ans. A. cellular immunity
|
|
|
|
Which of the following tissues are most reliable for virus isolation with suspect Sendai viral infections ?
nasopharyngeal washings lung tissue homogenates cecal washings a and b only all of the above |
D. a and b only
|
|
|
|
Que. What is the time frame recommended by the BBII to quarantine mice from introducing new (naïve) mice into a colony in an effort to “burn out” self limiting disease from Sendai virus?
|
. 4-6 weeks
|
|
|
|
List the research complications from Sendai virus infection.
|
immunosuppression, inhibition of transplantable tumors, pulmonary changes and, breeding difficulties
|
|
|
|
What type (DNA or RNA) of virus is Pneumonia virus of mice (PVM)?
|
enveloped RNA
|
71
|
|
|
Name the family and genus of PVM.
|
family: Paramyxoviridae genus: Pneumovirus
|
|
|
|
In what type of cells does PVM virus replicate in vitro?
|
BHK-cells
|
|
|
|
What is the usual clinical presentation for natural PVM infection?
|
asymptomatic
|
|
|
|
Which species does natural infection occur?
|
mice, rats, hamsters (probably other rodents and maybe rabbits)
|
|
|
|
PVM replicates exclusively in the __________ and reaches peak titers in __________.
|
respiratory tract and 6-8 days
|
|
|
|
PVM histological lesions consist of __________, __________ and __________ ; the predominant inflammatory cell infiltrate is __________.
|
necrotizing rhinitis, necrotizing bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia; mononuclear cells
|
|
|
|
Que. What diagnostic technique is the best method to separate PVM infection from other respiratory infections?
|
serology
|
|
|
|
What relationship can Pneumonia Virus of Mice have with Pneomocystis carinii infection in immunodeficient mice?
|
.
Ans. PVM may coexist and exacerbate P. carinii infection. |
|
|
|
Two members of the family Reoviridae infect laboratory mice. Name them
|
Reovirus and murine rotavirus (aka epizootic diarrhea of infant mice virus)
|
|
|
|
What is significant about clinical disease caused by reovirus in mice?
|
Clinical disease is rare and age dependent
|
|
|
|
____________ and ____________ tests have been developed for the serological detection of reovirus 3 infection.
|
ELISA and IFA
|
|
|
|
Rotavirus (EDIM virus) is a __________- stranded, segmented _________ virus
|
Double, RNA
|
|
|
|
Clinical signs of rotavirus infection occur in mice less than ________ weeks old
|
Two
|
|
|
|
Rotavirus infection in infant mice has ____(high/low) morbidity and ______ (high/ low ) mortality.
|
High, low
|
|
|
|
Rotavirus preferentially infects ________________ in the small and large intestine.
|
Terminally differentiated enterocytes
|
|
|
|
Rotavirus infection is detected serologically by _______ or _______
|
IFA or ELISA
|
|
|
|
EDIM virus infection must be differentiated from other intestinal disease of neonatal mice such as ______________
|
Corona virus, MHV, Reovirus, Tyzzer’s disease, Salmonellosis .
|
|
|
|
One of the helpful features for differentiating EDIM virus infection in neonatal mice from that of other enteric infections is ______________.
|
The presence of milk in the stomach
|
|
|
|
Thymic necrosis is one of the pathologic features of EDIM virus infection in neonatal mice that must be differentiated from ______________
|
Mouse Thymic Virus (MTV).
|
|
|
|
EDIM virus infection is best controlled by ______________
|
Microbarrier cages and good sanitation
|
74
|
|
|
Mouse Hepatitis Virus is a large, pleomorphic, enveloped virus belonging to the family of ______________
|
Coronaviridae, MHV, Reovirus, Tyzzer’s disease, Salmonellosis .
|
|
|
|
Regarding MHV, what factors determine the prevalence and severity of clinical signs ?
|
Age, strain and immune status of the infected mouse, and strain and tropism of virus.
|
|
|
|
What is the most common form of clinical signs in immunocompetent mature mice?
|
Usually clinically silent.
|
|
|
|
In what age of mice is MHV most likely to cause morbidity, and what are clinical signs seen in affected mice ?
|
Ans. Suckling mice less than 2 weeks old or immunodeficient mice; diarrhea, inappetance, dehydration, weight loss, ruffled pelage, often ending in death. Mild pathogenic strains may cause a chronic wasting in athymic mice (may be accompanied by a progressive paralysis).
|
|
|
|
What species does MHV infect, and how prevalent is it in mouse colonies (what percent of major vivariums have reported it) ? How contagious is it, and can it be transmitted from mice to other species ?
|
MHV primarily infects mice and is the most common viral infection in mice (60% of major vivariums have reported it). It is highly contagious. There are no reports of transmission from mice to other species.
|
|
|
|
. How is MHV transmitted ? Can vertical, transovarian or transuterine infection occur ?
|
Via oral or respiratory routes. (With enterotropic strains, feces can also serve as sources of infection). Natural vertical transmission has not been demonstrated. Transovarian and transuterine infections are not specifically addressed. Maternal antibodies do protect against homologous serotypes until weaning.
|
75
|
|
|
What biotypes (enterotropic or polytropic) are suggested to predominate in natural infections of MHV?
|
Enterotropic.
|
|
|
|
How does enzootic infection with MHV occur, according to what recent evidence suggests
|
Enzootic infection results either from fresh/continuous introduction of immunologically naïve or deficient mice, OR from recurrent infection of immunocompetent mice with MHV variants that arise from natural mutation.
|
|
|
|
Does maternal immunity play a role in MHV infection and, if so, how ?
|
. Maternal immunity protects against homologous strain, but depends on presence of maternal antibodies in the intestine; therefore, susceptibility of young mice increases at weaning
|
|
|
|
Regarding the appearance of infant mice with MHV - picture on p. 75 - do MHV - infected mice continue to nurse ? How can you tell whether they are nursing ?
|
Ans. Infant mice can be runted and dehydrated, with an empty stomach (my note: as evidenced by lack of "milk spot" in stomach). Compare this with EDIM (p. 73) - mice continue to nurse.
|
|
|
|
In MHV infection, _______________ formation is a hallmark of infection in many tissues.
|
Syncytia
|
|
|
|
__________ strains (of MHV) replicate initially in the nasal mucosa. __________ strains infect primarily the __________ and associated lymphoid tissues
|
Polytropic;enterotropic;intestine
|
|
|
|
Helicobacter muris is more commonly associated with (mice or rats).
|
Rats
|
|
|
|
What pathological changes occur in the intestinal mucosa of surviving Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV) mice?
|
Mucosal hyperplasia which eventually recedes
|
|
|
|
What type of inclusions bodies are found in MHV infected enterocytes?
|
intracytoplasmic inclusions are found in the enterocytes of MHV infected mice.
|
77
|
|
|
Which of the following develop transient syncytia in the intestines without necrotic lesions?
Older mice Athymic mice SCID mice Young mice |
a.Older mice develop transient syncytia without necrotic lesions.
|
|
|
|
Which of the following commonly develop chronic proliferative bowel disease of varying severity accompanied by syncytia?
Athymic mice SCID mice Young mice Both b and c Both a and b |
: d, Both athymic and SCID mice
|
|
|
|
Que: What is the most reliable diagnostic tool for testing MHV infected mice?
|
Serological testing
|
77
|
|
|
Is MHV usually symptomatic or asymptomatic?
|
asymptomatic
|
|
|
|
Which of the following is not diagnostic for dectection of MHV?
ELISA Inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of enterocytes Sentinel mouse protocols for serological surveillance PCR |
Ans: b, Inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm of enterocytes are not diagnostic for MHV in mice?
|
77
|
|
|
Which of the following is diagnostic for detecting MHV?
Clinical signs of diarrhea, acute death, or neurological deficits The use of immunodeficient mice as sentinels Neutralization tests Detection of synctia augmented by immunohistochemistry a, b, and c b, c, and d |
Ans: b, c, and d. The use of immunodeficient mice as sentinels, neutralization tests, and detection of synctia augmented by immunohistochemistry are all diagnostic for MHV in mice.
|
|
|
|
Que: Which serological test is used to differentiate individual MHV strains?
ELISA Neutralization tests IFA |
Ans: Neutralization tests.
|
|
|
|
Que. ________infection must be differentiated from other diseases that cause diarrheal illness, runting or death in suckling mice and wasting disease in immunodeficient mice
|
Ans. MHV
|
|
|
|
Differentials for MHV include ___________,___________, ___________, __________ and slmonellosis.
|
Ans. EDIM, mousepox, reovirus 3 infection, Tyzzer’s disease and salmonellosis
|
78
|
|
|
Neurological signs for demyelinating lesions must be differentiated from _____________ or noninfectious CNS lesions such as neoplasms, including polyoma-induced tumors in athymic mice.
|
Mouse encephalomyeletis
|
|
|
|
What type of virus is Mouse Encephalomyelitis Virus (MEV)?
|
Small, nonenveloped, RNA-containing cardiovirus
|
|
|
|
. Why is MEV resistant to environmental inactivation?
|
Noneneveloped virus
|
|
|
|
How are MEV clinical signs expressed?
|
Neurological disease
|
|
|
|
What is the characteristic sign of MEV?
|
Ans. Flaccid posterior paralysis possible weakness in fore limbs, mice otherwise alert
|
|
|
|
How is the chronic demyelinating phase of MEV expressed?
|
Gait disturbance
|
|
|
|
How is MEV infection acquired?
|
Ingestion
|
|
|
|
Where does MEV replicate?
|
Intestinal mucosa
|
|
|
|
Que. Neurologic infection with MEV can persist in the brain and spinal cord for how long?
|
At least 1 year
|
|
|
|
Que. Mice with mouse hepatitis virus can be expected to develop immunity and eliminate virus in how many days?
|
Within 30 days
|
|
|
|
How can you eliminate infection of MHV?
|
Quarantine with temporary cessation of breeding
|
|
|
|
Immunity to one strain of mouse encephalomyelitis virus provides_____to other strains.
|
Cross-protection
|
|
|
|
Does intestinal mouse encephalomyelitis virus cause lesions?
|
No
|
|
|
|
With regard to mouse encephalomyelitis virus, what_____variants of mouse hepatitis virus may, on occasion, cause similar neurological signs?
|
Neurotropic
|
|
|
|
Que. _______ or cesarean or embryo derivation can be used to successfully to eliminate mouse encephalomyelitis virus.
|
Foster-nursing infant mice
|
|
|
|
Name the disease syndrome caused by Mycoplasma pulmonis.
|
Murine Respiratory Mycoplasmosis (MRM)
|
|
|
|
______ and ______ are the most prominent signs of MRM.
|
Ans. Chattering and dyspnea
|
|
|
|
Experimental inoculation of _____ mice with M. pulmonis has caused systemic infection accompanied by severe arthritis.
|
SCID
|
|
|
|
Mycoplasma pulmonis infection is contracted by ______ and can occur in suckling and adult mice.
|
Inhalation
|
|
|
|
In utero M. pulmonis infection has been demonstrated in _____ but not mice.
|
Rats
|
|
|
|
_____ are significant reservoirs of M. pulmonis infection for mice.
|
Rats
|
|
|
|
M. pulmonis infection can have detrimental effects on ciliated epithelium which disrupts _______ ________, exacerbating pulmonary disease.
|
Mucociliary transport
|
|
|
|
Intravenous inoculation of M. pulmonis can cause _______ in mice, but it is not a significant feature of natural infection.
|
Ans. Arthritis
|
|
|
|
_______ background appear to be resistant to pathogenic infection of M. pulmonis, whereas BALB/c, C3H, DBA/2, SWR, AKR, CBA, SJL, and others have varying degrees of increased susceptibility.
|
C57BL
|
|
|
|
The initial lesion of MRM is _____ ______.
|
Suppurative rhinitis
|
|
|
|
Que. In MRM early inflammatory lesions, if not quickly resolved, progress to prominent _______ ________.
|
Squamous metaplasia
|
|
|
|
_______ can sometimes be found in the nasal passages with MRM.
|
Syncytia
|
|
|
|
Que. In MRM pulmonary lesions are typified by __________.
|
Bronchopneumonia
|
|
|
|
The _____ _______ ______ should be cultured if MRM is suspected because it is a common site for natural infection
|
Upper respiratory tract
|
|
|
|
Speciation of Mycoplasma can be accompl shed by ________ or immunoperoxidase or by growth inhibition.
|
Immunofluorescence
|
|
|
|
MRM must be differentiated from bronchopneumonia associated with___________________.
|
Cilia – associated respiratory (CAR) bacillus
|
|
|
|
Athymic and neonatally thymectomized mice are_____________ susceptible than imunocompetent mice to M. pulmonis pneumonia.
|
not more
|
|
|
|
. Perhaps one of the most important research complications of Mycoplasma infection is _____________.
|
Contamination of cell lines and transplantable tumors.
|
|
|
|
________ stains may reveal CAR bacilli adherent to the respiratory epithelium.
|
Silver
|
|
|
|
MRM, CAR and Sendai cause respiratory infection, other causes of respiratory infection in mice include _______________.
|
Pneumonia virus of mice, corynebacteriosis, and, in immunodeficient mice, Pneumocystis carinii infection. Combined infections with known pathogens or secondary opportunists also must be considered.
|
|
|
|
Host immunity aside, effective control, and prevention of MRM depend on ________________________________________________.
|
Maintenance of Mycoplasma – free colonies under barrier conditions supported by careful surveillance for infection by serology, microbiology, and histopathology.
|
|
|
|
Que. ______________ can eliminate MRM infection but embryos, fetal membranes, and offspring must be tested to rule out contamination.
|
Ans. Cesarean or embryo rederivation
|
|
|
|
Treatment with ___________ suppresses clinical disease but does not eliminate infection
|
Ans. tetracyclines
|
|
|
|
Other murine mycoplasmas __________ is antigenically related to Mycoplasma pulmonis.
|
Ans. Mycoplasma arthritidis
|
82
|
|
|
Where has Mycoplasma collis been isolated from and what disease does it cause?
|
Mouse genital tract and does no appear to cause natural disease.
|
|
|
|
What is the etiologic agent of rolling disease?
|
Mycoplasma neurolyticum.
|
|
|
|
What is the characteristic clinical signs of rolling disease?
|
Spasmotic hypertension of the head and the raising of one foreleg followed by intermitten rolling on the long axis of the body. Rolling becomes more constant, but mice occasionally leap or move rapidly. After 1-2 hrs of rolling, animals become comatose and usually die within 4 hrs.
|
|
|
|
Que. Besides Mycoplasma neurolyticum, what is another differential for rolling in mice?
|
Pseudomononas-caused otitis
|
|
|
|
What is the morphologic description of CAR bacillus?
|
Cilia-Associated Respiratory (CAR) bacillus is a slender, gram-negative bacillus.
|
|
|
|
What techniques can be use to detect CAR bacillus?
|
.
Ans. ELISA for serologic testing, PCR-based diagnostics, histologic assessment with Warthin-Starry or similar stains to visualize argyrophilic bacilli adherent to the apical membranes of bronchial respiratory epithelium, and immunoperoxidase staining. |
|
|
|
What organism causes Tysser’s Disease in mice?
|
Clostridium piliforme (formerly Bacillus piliformis)
|
|
|
|
What is the morphologic description of Clostridium piliforme?
|
Long, thin, gram-negative spore-forming bacteriu
|
|
|
|
What specific requirement does Clostrium piliforme require for in vitro growth?
|
Living cells.
|
|
|
|
The primary means of spread of Clostridium piliforme is via ________.
|
ANS. spores
|
|
|
|
The reservoir for infection of Tyzzer’s disease is _______.
|
unkown
|
|
|
|
Clostridium piliforme murine infection begins in the intestinal tract followed by bacteremic spread to the _____ and _____.
|
liver and heart
|
|
|
|
Asymptomatic Clostridium piliforme infections can be detected using ______ and _______.
|
ELISA and PCR
|
|
|
|
The causative agent of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia, ________ _____ (formerly Citrobacter freundii strain 4280), is a non-motile, gram-negative rod that ferments lactose but does not utilize citrate or does so marginally.
|
Citrobacter rodentium
|
|
|
|
Clinically apparent infection with ________ ________ is characterized by retarded growth, ruffled fur, soft feces or diarrhea, rectal prolapse, and moderate mortality in older suckling or recently weaned mice.
|
Citrobacter rodentium
|
|
|
|
The characteristic gross finding of ___________________________ is severe thickening of the descending colon, which may extend to the transverse colon and lasts for 2-3 weeks in surviving mice.
|
transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia
|
|
|
|
Some success at curtailing epizootics of Citrobacter rodentium has been achieved by adding _______________ to drinking water.
|
antimicrobials
|
|
|
|
Besides treatment of drinking water, what other measures may be taken to reduce/eliminate the spread of C. rodentium to susceptible animals?
|
Proper disinfection of food and bedding, quarantine, employment of microbarrier caging
|
|
|
|
. C. rodentium is associated with what primary clinical condition in mice?
|
Colonic hyperplasia
|
|
|
|
Name three other clinical conditions (recently) associated with C. rodentium infection?
|
Immune dysfunction, poor reproductive performance, failure to thrive in T-cell receptor transgenic mice (may inhibit cytokine production by lymphoid cells)
|
|
|
|
________________ are three (phenotypic) characteristics of Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
Ans. Motile, gram negative, rod-shaped
|
86
|
|
|
P. aeruginosa infections almost always present how (clinically)?
|
Grossly normal (infection silent).
|
|
|
|
_______________ mice are prone to septicemia if infected with p. aeruginosa.
|
Immunologically compromised (e.g. athymic mice)
|
|
|
|
In a clinically apparent infection of p. aeruginosa, immunosuppressed mice may develop what unique lesion in addition to equilibrium disturbances, conjunctivitis, serosanguinous nasal discharge, edema of the head, weight loss, and skin infections?
|
gastrointestinal ulcers
|
|
|
|
In mice (and probably other species), Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia is followed by necrosis or abscess formation of what two major organs?
|
liver and spleen
|
|
|
|
Pseudomonas carrier mice can be detected either by nasal culture or by _______________.
|
placing bottles of sterile, nonacidified, nonchlorinated water on cages for 24-48 hours and then culturing the sipper tubes.
|
|
|
|
Pseudomonas infection can be prevented by __________ or __________ of the drinking water. These procedures will not, however, eliminate established infections.
|
acidification or hyperchlorination
|
|
|
|
Infection with what opportunistic pathogen may complicate pneumonias due to Mycoplasma pulmonis or Sendai virus?
|
Pasteurella pneumotropica
|
|
|
|
Prophylactic administration of what antibiotic, in the drinking water, has been shown to prevent Pasteurella pneumotropica infection in immunodeficient mice
|
trimethoprim sulfa
|
|
|
|
Select the words that correctly complete the sentence: Helicobacter is a gram-positive/negative, microaerophilic/facultative anaerobic, rod-like/spiral shaped organism that has been isolated from the gastrointestinal mucosa of many mammals.
|
gram-negative, microaerophilic, spiral-shaped
|
|
|
|
List the species of Helicobacter that have been isolated from mice (hint: six are listed and some inhabit other than mice)
|
Ans. H. hepaticus; H. bilis (seen also in rats); H. muridarum; H. rappini, H. rodentium; H. typhlonicus
|
|
|
|
Of the six listed Heliocobacter species found in mice, which can claim to be urease-, catalase-, and oxidase-positive?
|
All but H. rodentium and H. typhlonicus; these are urease-negative
|
|
|
|
Describe the symptoms typically seen in an adult mouse infected with H. heapticus.
|
Helicobacteriosis in adult immunocompetent mice is usually asymptomatic. With H. hepaticus infection: liver ezymes are elevated and, in immune-dysregulated mice, one will see inflammatory bowel disease, which may present as rectal prolapse and/or diarrhea.
|
|
|
|
Que. True or false: helicobacteriosis is an anomalous condition, rarely seen in laboratory colonies.
|
False: helicobacteriosis is widespread among conventional and barrier-maintained mouse colonies
|
|
|
|
H. hepaticus can persist in the GI tract of the mouse, notably in the __________ and the __________, and is readily detected in the __________.
|
cecum, colon, feces
|
|
|
|
Transmission of Helicobacter spp. is thought to be primarily through __________ route.
|
fecal-oral; carrier mice can spread infection chronically in enzootically infected colonies
|
|
|
|
What aspect of the GI vilus does Helicobacter colonize in mice?
|
Ans. Crypts
|
|
|
|
Besides the gut, what other organ(s) does Helicobacter affect in mice?
|
Ans. Liver
|
|
|
|
True or false: infection with Helicobacter spp. may lead to cancer in mice.
|
True: an increased incidence of hepatic hemangiosarcoma has been noted in H. hepaticus-infected male B6C3F1 mice.
|
|
|
|
Que. Select the term that correctly completes this sentence: Severe liver disease and tumor induction in B6C3F1 mice infected with H. hepaticus implies that genetic susceptibility to H. hepaticus-induced neoplasia has a dominant/recessive pattern of inheritance.
|
Ans. Dominant
|
|
|
|
True or false: PCR is able to distinguish the different species of Helicobacter in mice.
|
False: molecular speciation can be done with restriction length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis of the PCR product
|
|
|
|
What two pathologic conditions occur in immunodeficient mice associated with
Helicobacter hepaticus infection. |
Inflammatory bowel disease (proliferative typhlitis, colitis, and proctitis) and
Hepatitis (angiocentric nonsuppurative hepatitis and hepatic necrosis). |
|
|
|
Which of the following bacterial diseases must be differentiated from helicobacteriosis ?
Coronavirus infection Clostridium piliforme infection Salmonella spp. infection Citrobacter rodentium infection all of the above |
. E. all of the above
|
|
|
|
. ________ ________ , a novel urease negative helicobacter, causes inflammatory bowel disease in both IL10-/- and SCID mice.
Helicobacter typhlonius Helicobacter hepaticus Helicobacter muridarum Helicobacter rappini Helicobacter rodentium |
Ans. A. Helicobacter typhlonius
|
|
|
|
. ________ _________ colonizes the intestine and may be a part of the normal flora; however, its’ dual infection with Helicobacter bilis was noted in a natural outbreak of IBD in immunocompromised mice.
Helicobacter hepaticus Helicobacter rappini Helicobacter muridarum Helicobacter rodentium Helicobacter typhlonius |
D. Helicobacter rodentium
|
|
|
|
Que. Which of the following bacteria colonizes the stomach of mice and induce gastritis under certain circumstances ?
Helicobacter rodentium Helicobacter muridarum Helicobacter rappini Helicobacter hepaticus Helicobacter typhlonius |
B. Helicobacter muridarum
|
|
|
|
Que. The therapeutic regimen to eliminate H. hepaticus includes which of the following
amoxicillin clavulanate trimethoprim sulfa amoxicillin, metronidazole and bismuth gentamicin and vancomycin none of the above |
C. amoxicillin, metronidazole and bismuth
|
|
|
|
Infection with _________ _________ has been incriminated as a cofactor or promoter in the development of hepatic neoplasia in A/JCr and B6C3F1 mice.
H. hepaticus H. bilis H. muridarum H. rodentium H. rappini |
A. H. hepaticus
|
|
|
|
. Which of the following Salmonella spp. is most frequently isolated from mice ?
Salmonella enteritidis Salmonella typhimurium Salmonella choleraesuis Both A and B C only |
D. Both A and B
|
|
|
|
Which phase of Salmonella infection is characterized by clinical signs of a distended abdomen due to hepatomegaly and splenomegaly ?
acute subacute peracute D. chronic |
B. subacute
|
|
|
|
Que. The primary means of salmonella infection occurs by
ingestion inhalation fomites percutaneous hematogenous |
A. ingestion
|
|
|
|
Which of the following factors has an attenuating effect on the severity of salmonella infection in mice ?
immune deficiency exposure to heavy metals abnormal ambient temperatures iron deficiency iron overload |
D. Iron deficiency
|
|
|
|
Salmonella organisms reach the Peyer’s patches within 12 hours after inoculation and spread quickly to the __________. Bacteremia results in spread to other lymph odes, __________ , and liver (gall bladder-good site to culture)
|
. mesenteric lymph nodes; spleen
|
|
|
|
Granulomatous lesions are particularly characteristic of chronic salmonellosis, especially in the __________.
|
liver
|
91
|
|
|
Due to the possible intermittent shedding of Salmonella in the feces, the __________ may be the most reliable site for culture.
|
mesenteric lymph nodes (Note: mesenteric lymphadenopathy may be an age associated lesion in mice)
|
|
|
|
Is Salmonella from mice considered zoonotic?
|
.
Ans. yes |
|
|
|
Does Streptobacillus moniliformis exist as a (pathogenic or nonpathogenic)
L-phase variant in vivo? |
nonpathogenic (NOTE: can revert back to the virulent bacillus form)
|
|
|
|
Streptobacillus moniliformis is mostly of historical importance and generally consist of 3 phases __________, __________, __________
|
acute, subacute, chronic (Note:clinical signs include dull, damp hair coat and keratoconjunctivitis, anemia, diarrhea, hemoglobinuria, cyanosis, emaciation, cutaneous ulceration, arthritis (deformed and ankylosed joints), and gangrenous amputation. Breeding mice may have stillbirths or abortions.
|
|
|
|
What is the most likely source for dissemination to mice?
|
asymptomatic, persistently infected rats
|
|
|
|
Zoonotic infection is called __________ or __________ in humans.
|
rat bite fever or Haverhill fever
|
|
|
|
In mice and rats, what disease is caused by Corynebacterium kutscheri?
|
pseudotuberculosis
|
|
|
|
Active disease in mice caused by Corynebacterium kutscheri can be expressed in two ways. Describe them.
|
As an acute illness with high mortality or as a chronic syndrome with low mortality
|
|
|
|
. Hyperkeratotic dermatitits caused by Corynebacterium bovis must be differentiated from what condition in glabrous mice?
|
Scaly skin caused by low humidity
|
|
|
|
What is the gross appearance of hyperkeratotic dermatitis caused by Corynebacterium bovis?
|
Skin scaliness and alopecia
|
|
|
|
Staphylocococci are gram __________ organisms.
|
. Positive
|
|
|
|
The two most frequently encountered species of Staphylococci are _______________ and _________________.
|
S. aureus and S. epidermidis
|
|
|
|
S. aureus is considered __________________(nonpathogenic/highly pathogenic) and S. epidermidis is considered ______________________. (nonpathogenic/highly pathogenic).
|
Highly pathogenic, nonpathogenic
|
|
|
|
. Staphylococci species subtypes can be identified by ___________________ and _____________________.
|
Ans. Phage typing and biochemistry
|
|
|
|
Staphylococcosis causes _____________________ in mice.
|
Suppurative dermatitis
|
|
|
|
S. aureus frequently causes ___________________ abscesses in athymic mice.
|
Retrobulbar
|
|
|
|
. Prevalence of staphylococcal dermatitis appears to be influenced by host genotype, overall health, degree of environmental contamination and age. The following mice strains __________________, ________________, _________________, and __________________ are most susceptible.
|
C57BL/6, C3H, DBA, BALB/c
|
|
|
|
Most streptococcal infections in laboratory mice are caused by Beta-hemolytic organisms are Lancefield group ______________.
|
.
Ans. C. |
|
|
|
Streptococcal infections in mice can manifest as ________ or ______________ infections.
|
. Cutaneous, systemic..
|
|
|
|
One of the hallmarks of cutaneous streptococcal infections is ______________
|
Ulcerative dermatitis.
|
|
|
|
Mice that are __________ are at increased risk of streptococcal infections
|
Immunodeficient.
|
|
|
|
Hyperplastic typhlocolitis resembling transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia has been reported in ______________ mice with a non-fermenting E. coli.
|
SCID .
|
|
|
|
The proliferation and inflammatory intestinal disease caused by E. coli must be differentiated from _________ or enterotropic Mouse Hepatitis Virus (MHV) in immunodeficient mice.
|
Citrobacter rodentium
|
|
|
|
Regarding Klebsiella infection in mice, what are the two main strains found. Are they considered a significant cause of naturally-occurring disease?
|
K. pneumoniae is a ubiquitous Gram Neg organism and is a natural inhabitant of the mouse alimentary tract. It is not a significant cause of naturally-occurring disease. K. oxytoca (among other organisms) has been found in mice with oophoritis, endometritis and salpingitis, but did not elicit these problems in experiomentally-inoculated mice.
|
|
|
|
Regarding Clostridium infection in mice: what is the most common species found, describe it, and has it been associated with disease in mice?
|
Cl. perfringens Type D, a large Gram-positive rod. It has been associated with disease in sucklings and recently-weaned animals,, but no clear connection with disease is stated in the Blue Book.
|
|
|
|
What Mycobacterium species are known to be pathogenic for mice? Describe them.
|
. M. avium-intracellulare and M. lepraemurium. Both are Gram-positive, acid-fast obligate intracellular bacteria.
|
|
|
|
Que. Is Mycobacterium infection with either species common ? If they occur, what are clinical signs? What is a hallmark histologic lesion of M. lepraemurium?
|
Neither are common. M. avium-intracellulare should be considered extremely rare. M. lepraemurium is found in healthy mice and can be a latent infection, but is mostly important as historical model for leprosy. Hallmark lesion of M. l. infection is accumulation of large, foamy epitheloid macrophages ("lepra cells") packed with acid-fast bacilli.
|
|
|
|
Describe proteus infection in mice: most common species ? under what conditions are clinical signs most likely to occur ? what body parts are affected?
|
P. Mirabilis; stress or immunosuppression/immunodeficiency; respiratory and intestinal tracts
|
|
|
|
. In mice clinically affected by Proteus infection, what are signs and what organs are affected ?
|
Ulcerative lesions of GI tract, diarrhea, death. Septicemia with septic thrombi, commonly in kidneys, with pyelonephritis characterized by abscessation and scarring.
|
|
|
|
What other bacterium can occur concurrently with Proteus infection of kidneys?
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
|
|
|
|
Is Leptospirosis common in mice ? What is the most common serovar reported ? Describe it. What stain is used to identify it ?
|
. Uncommon. L. interrogans serovar ballum has been reported on several occasions. It is a Gram-negative, casues no signs or significant lesions, is excreted in urine, and poses a zoonotic risk for humans. Silver stains are used to identify it on histologic section.
|
|
|
|
What are two rickettsia known to infect mice ?
|
Eperythrozoon coccoides and Hemobartonella muris.
|
|
|
|
Rickettsial infections are long-lived and are expressed in two ways. What are the two ways?
|
Acute febrile anemia; latent or asymptomatic infection (can be reactivated by splenectomy)
|
|
|
|
Historically, the mouse louse, ____________(genus and species), has been considered the natural vector for Eperythrozoon coccoides.
|
Polyplax serrata
|
|
|
|
The most sensitive mans to detect Eperythrozoon coccoides is_____________.
|
Splenectomy or inoculation of test material into splenectomized mice.
|
|
|
|
In mice, Chlamydia trachomatis produces glycogen-positive intracytoplasmic inclusions known as _________ ___________.
|
Elementary bodies
|
|
|
|
Pneumocystis carinii (Pc) is a protozoon/bacteria/fungus/virus (choose one).
|
Fungus
|
|
|
|
Activation of Pc fills the lungs with ______ and ________ forms.
|
Trophic and cystic
|
|
|
|
Eperythrozoon coccoides may potentiate coincident viral infections in mice. This effect has been clearly demonstrated for which mouse virus?
|
Mouse coronavirus
|
|
|
|
Pneumonia virus of mice has been shown to accelerate what opportunistic infection in SCID mice?
|
Pneumocystosis caused by pneumocystis carinii
|
|
|
|
What clinical sign should elicit consideration of pneumocystosis in immunodeficient mice?
|
Respiratory Distress
|
|
|
|
What type of husbandry considerations should be implemented for immunodeficient mice to prevent and control pneumocystis carinii infection?
|
microbarrier combined with macrobarrier housing
|
|
|
|
What diagnostic procedures can be used to diagnose pneumocystis carinii?
|
silver methenamine staining, ELISA, PCR
|
|
|
|
Que: Which of the following histopathological changes are characteristic of pneumocystis carinii?
interstitial alveolits thickening of alveolar septa from proteinaceous exudates infiltration with mononuclear cells vacuolated eosinophilic material and macrophages in alveolar spaces all of the above |
: e, All of the above choice are characteristic of pneumocystosis
|
|
|
|
__________ is the most common fungal agent of mice, however, infection rarely causes clinical disease.
|
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
|
|
|
|
__________ rarely fluoresces under ultraviolet light and invasion of hair shafts is not characteristic of this fungal agent.
|
Ans. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
|
|
|
|
__________ should be used on histological sections to reveal these fungal organisms and ____________ should be used for culture of Trichophyton mentagrophytes
|
A silver stain or Schiff’s reagent; Sabouraud’s agar
|
|
|
|
__________ is a more prudent course than eradication. The use of antifungal agents to treat individual mice is time-consuming, expensive, and variably effective.
|
Rederivation
|
|
|
|
__________ and other systemic mycoses are not an important causes of disease in mice, but they can be opportunistic pathogens in immunodeficient mice.
|
Candida albicans
|
|
|
|
__________ is a pear-shaped, flagellated organism with an anterior sucking disk.
It inhabits the duodenum of young and adult mice, rats and hamsters. |
Giardia muris
|
|
|
|
Que. __________ diseases in rodents are often asymptomatic, unless the organisms proliferate extensively, and then they can cause weight loss, a rough hair coat, sluggish movement and abdominal distension, usually without diarrhea. Immunodeficient mice may die during heavy infestation.
|
Ans. Protozoal
|
|
|
|
__________ are particularly susceptible to giardiasis, whereas BALB/c and C57BL/10 mice are more resistant. Additionally, female mice appear to be more resistant to infection than male mice.
|
C3H/He mice
|
|
|
|
__________ can be recognized by their characteristic rolling and tumbling movements in wet mounts of fecal material. Ellipsoidal cysts with four nuclei also may be detected in feces. Infection can also be detected by serology.
|
Giardia trophozoites
|
|
|
|
Que. __________ can be treated by the addition of 0.1% dimetridazole to drinking water for 14 days.
|
Murine giardiasis
|
|
|
|
__________ in murine giardiasis are accelerated cryptal cell turnover and suppression of the immune response to sheep erythrocytes and the potential for severe or lethal infection in immunodeficient mice.
|
Research complications
|
|
|
|
__________ is an elongated, pear-shaped, bilaterally symmetrical flagellated protozoan that commonly inhabits the duodenum, usually in the crypts of Lieberkuhn. It is smaller than Giardia muris and lacks an anterior sucking disk.
|
Spironucleus muris
|
|
|
|
How are animals infected with encephalitozoan cuniculi?
|
ingesting spores or by cannibalism
|
|
|
|
What type of life cycle does Encephalitozoan cuniculi have?
|
Direct
|
|
|
|
Where could Entamoeba muris be found in mice?
|
Cecum and colon
|
|
|
|
Cryptosporidium parvum inhabits what area of the GI tract?
|
Small intestine
|
|
|
|
Cryptosporidium muris adheres to what type of mucosa in mice?
|
Gastric
|
|
|
|
What coccidia may demonstrate gray spots on the kidneys in heavy infections in mice?
|
Klosiella muris
|
|
|
|
Eimeria falcifornis is a pathogen coccidian which occurs in what type of cells in the large intestines of mice?
|
Epithelial cells
|
|
|
|
How is Tritrichomonas muris transmitted?
|
Fecal-oral ingestion of trophozoites
|
|
|
|
How is spironucleosis treated?
|
0.1% dimetridazole in drink water for 14 days
|
99
|
|
|
How is spironucleosis diagnosed?
|
Identification of trophozoites in intestinal tract
|
|
|
|
What type of stain is used to identify spironucleosis muris?
|
Periodic acid Schiff staining
|
|
|
|
Transmission of spironucleosis can occur between mice and what other rodent?
|
Hamsters
|
|
|
|
How is spironucleosis transmitted?
|
Fecal-oral route
|
|
|
|
At what age are mice at a higher risk for spironucleosis?
|
3-6 weeks
|
|
|
|
Encephalitozoon cuniculi organisms proliferate in _____?
|
Peritoneal macrophages
|
|
|
|
Encephalitozoon cuniculi organisms have a capsule that accepts_______ and _________but is poorly stained by__________?
|
Giemsa stain, Goodpasture stain, hematoxylin
|
|
|
|
The mouse serves as a ______________ for Toxoplasma gondii.
|
Principal intermediate host
|
|
|
|
Hymenolepis nana is the only cestode that does not require an________?
|
Intermediate host
|
|
|
|
Hymenolepis nana infects____?
|
Mice, rats, and humans
|
|
|
|
Hymenolepis ______is found in the bile ducts of rodents.
|
microstoma
|
|
|
|
The ______ and ______ are intermediate hosts of the cestode Taenia taeniaformis?
|
Mouse and rat
|
|
|
|
Syphacia obvelata can infect_____(more than one animal)?
|
Mice, rat, gerbil, and hamster
|
|
|
|
Syphacia eggs are ______ on one side and have ______ ends.
|
Flattened, pointed
|
|
|
|
Clinical signs of Syphacia infection can include ______ _______, intussusception, enteritis, and fecal impaction.
|
Rectal prolapse
|
|
|
|
. _______ infestation is one of the most commonly encountered problems in laboratory mice.
|
Pinworm
|
|
|
|
The epizootiological impact of pinworm infestation is increased by the _____ ______ of eggs, which can remain infectious even after drying.
|
Ans. Airborne dissemination
|
|
|
|
The life cycle of Syphacia obvelata is direct and completed in ________days.
|
11-15
|
|
|
|
Que. Syphacia infestation often occurs in combination with ______ _______.
|
Aspicularis tetraptera
|
|
|
|
__________ week old mice should be examined because the prevalence is higher in this age group than in older mice.
|
Four to five
|
|
|
|
Because most eggs are deposited outside the gastrointestinal tract, ______ ______ is not reliable for detection of Syphacia.
|
Fecal examination
|
|
|
|
Syphacia eggs are usually detected by pressing ________ _____ to the perineal area and then to a glass slide that is examined by microscopy.
|
Cellophane tape
|
|
|
|
_______ ________ eggs are not ordinarily found in tape preparations and are easily differentiated from eggs of S. obvelata.
|
Aspicularis tetraptera
|
|
|
|
Syphacia eggs become infective as soon as ____ hrs after they are laid.
|
6
|
|
|
|
_______ _____ is the common rat pinworm, which can potentially infest mice but is not found in well-managed colonies
|
Syphacia muris
|
|
|
|
The eggs of Aspicularis tetraptera are ________ in shape.
|
Ellipsoidal
|
|
|
|
Clinical signs with this pinworm may result in intestinal lesions, including rectal prolapse, intussusception, enteritis and fecal impaction in somewhat older mice than S. obvelata. Infection is usually asymptomatic, but heavy loads can produce signs similar to those discussed for S. obvelata
|
Aspicularis tetraptera
|
|
|
|
Aspicularis tetraptera lifecycle is direct and takes approximately_______________ days.
|
23 –25 days
|
|
|
|
The eggs of Aspicularis tetraptera deposited at night requires__________ days at 24 degs. C to become infective and can survive for weeks outside the host.
|
6 –7 days.
|
|
|
|
Aspicularis tetraptera eggs can be detected in_________________.
|
Ans. the feces, and adult worms are found in the large intestine.
|
|
|
|
Immune expulsions of parasites and resistance to reinfection are hallmarks of _________ infection.
|
Aspicularis tetraptera
|
|
|
|
. A. tetraptera are more amenable to treatment by __________.
|
frequent cage rotation
|
|
|
|
Que. Several species of mites infest laboratory mice. They include __________________.
|
Myobia musculi, Radfordia affinis, Myocoptes musculinus and, less commonly, Psorergates simplex.
|
|
|
|
Immune expulsions of parasites and resistance to reinfection are hallmarks of this ______________ (pinworm) infection.
|
. A. tetraptera
|
|
|
|
Mites generally favor what part of the body __________________________________?
|
dorsal anterior regions of the body, particularly the top of the head, neck, and withers (areas least amenable to grooming), but in severe cases, all areas of skin can be infested.
|
|
|
|
Ectoparasitism in mice is dominated by
|
acariasis
|
|
|
|
Acarids will spend_____________ lives on the host.
|
entire
|
|
|
|
Tropical rat mite Suborder________, Genus _______ Species__________
|
Suborder Mesostigmata
Genus Ornithonyssus Species bacoti |
|
|
|
Northern fowl mite Suborder________, Genus _______ Species________
|
Suborder Mesostigmata
Genus Ornithonyssus Species sylviarum |
|
|
|
House mouse mite Order_____, Suborder______, Genus_____, Species__
|
Order Acarina
Suborder Mesostigmata Genus Liponyssoides Species sanguineus |
|
|
|
Spiny rat mite, Suborder_____, Genus_____, Species_____
|
Suborder Mesostigmata
Genus Laelaps Species echidninus |
|
|
|
On mice, acarid populations are limited by what factors?
|
Self-grooming, mutual grooming, presence of hair, and immunilogical responses, which tend to produce hypersensitivity.
|
|
|
|
What are the gross lesions seen with acarids on mice?
|
Scaly skin, regional hair loss, abrasions, and ulcerations
|
|
|
|
What are the histologic lesions seen with acarids on mice?
|
. Hyperkaratosis, acanthosis, and chronic dermatitis. Long-standing infestation provokes chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and proliferation of granulation tissue.
|
103
|
|
|
What diagnostic techniques can be used to detect acarids on mice?
|
Direct obervation on the animal with a dissecting microscope; recently euthanized mice can be place on black paper as the parasites will vacate the cooling carcass; cellaphone tape can be pressed against the pelt of freshly euthanized mice; skin scrapings with 10% KOH/glycerine or immersion oil but this method could miss highly motile species and low-level populations of slower-moving immature forms.
|
|
|
|
What are the anatomical differences between Myocoptes, Myobia and Radfordia?
|
Myocoptes has an oval profile with heavily chitinized body, pigmented 3rd and 4th legs, and tarsal suckers. Myobia and Radfordia have similar elongated profile, with bulges between the legs. Myobia has a single tarsal claw on the 2nd pair of legs whereas Radfordia has 2 claws of unequal size on the terminal tarsal structure of its 2nd pair of legs.
|
|
|
|
How do you treat, control and prevent acarid infestation on mice?
|
Treatement with vermectin and related compounds is costly and may cause toxic side effects. Preferable to eliminate infestation by gnotobiotic derivation. Control and prevention programs should be carried out on a colonywide basis, which includes thorough sanitation of housing space and equipment to remove residual eggs.
|
|
|
|
What are the research complications with acarid infestations on mice?
|
Hypersensitivity dermatitis has the potential to confound immunological studies and has been shown to elevate serum IgE.
|
|
|
|
______ is the most common ectoparasite of the laboratory mouse
|
Myocoptes musculinus
|
|
|
|
Myocoptes musculinus infestations of mice often occur in conjunction with _________?
|
ANS. Myobia musculi
|
|
|
|
QUE. The life cycle of Myocoptes musculinus is _____ days.
|
8-14 days
|
|
|
|
The life cycle of Myobia musculi is _____ days.
|
23
|
|
|
|
Because mites are ______, they crawl to the end of hair shafts on dead hosts, where they may live for up to four days.
|
thermotactic
|
|
|
|
_______ is thought to be common in laboratory mice, but it closely resembles Myobia and may occur as a mixed infestation
|
Radfordia affinis
|
|
|
|
Psorergates simplex. This species has not been reported as a naturally occurring infection in well-managed colonies for several decades, but it is unique in that it inhabits ____ _______.
|
hair follicles
|
|
|
|
_________ is caused by the deposition of insoluble (polymerized) proteins and occurs in primary and secondary forms.
|
Amyloidosis
|
|
|
|
Que. Primary amyloidosis is a naturally occurring disease in mice, associated with the deposition of amyloid proteins consisting primarily of _________ _____ _____.
|
immunoglobulin light chains
|
|
|
|
Primary amyloidosis is common among aging mice but also may occur in young mice of highly susceptible strains such as __ and ___ or somewhat later among _____ mice.
|
A, SJL, C57BL
|
|
|
|
Mouse strains such as ______ and ____ are highly resistant to amyloidosis
|
BALB/c, C3H
|
|
|
|
Secondary amyloidosis is usually associated with _____ ________ _____.
|
chronic inflammatory lesions
|
|
|
|
Amyloid appears as interstitial deposition of a lightly eosinophilic, acellular material in tissues stained with ________ and _____.
|
hematoxylin, eosin
|
|
|
|
Amyloid is birefringent after staining with _____ ___ when viewed with polarized light.
|
Congo red
|
|
|
|
Although amyloid may affect virtually any tissue, the following sites are common: _________ (list several).
|
. hepatic portal triads, periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths in spleen, renal glomeruli and interstitium, intestinal lamina propria, myocardium, nasal submucosa, pulmonary alveolar septa, gonads, endocrine tissues, and great vessels.
|
|
|
|
Naturally occurring mineralization of the myocardium, epicardium and other soft tissues is a common finding at necropsy in what three inbred strains of mice?
|
. BALB/C, C3H, DBA
|
|
|
|
What four factors can influence the prevalence of soft tissue mineralization of inbred strains of mice?
|
Dietary, environmental, disease-related, endocrine-related (factors)
|
|
|
|
. A Reye’s-like syndrome has been reported in _____________ mice.
|
Ans. BALB/cByJ
|
|
|
|
Name the progression of (3) clinical conditions associated with the Reye’s syndrome mice?
|
Lethargy, hyperventilation, comatose (followed by high mortality
|
|
|
|
Hepatic lesions resembling changes in Reye’s syndrome have been reported in ____________ mice.
|
SCID mice infected with MadV-1
|
|
|
|
Name three (of 9) clinical signs that may be associated with vitamin A deficiency in mice.
|
Tremors, diarrhea, rough hair coat, keratitis, poor growth, abscesses, hemorrhages, sterility, abortion
|
|
|
|
Name two (of 4) clinical signs that may be associated with vitamin E deficiency in mice.
|
Convulsions, heart failure, muscular dystrophy, hyaline deficiency of muscles
|
|
|
|
Name three (of 5) clinical signs that may be associated with a deficiency of B complex vitamins in mice.
|
Alopecia, decreased feed consumption, poor growth, poor reproduction and lactation, neurological abnormalities
|
|
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is best characterized by signs of poor growth, poor reproduction and lactation, and a variety of neurological abnormalities?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
a, Vitamin B complex
|
|
|
|
: A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is best characterized by signs of decreases in red and white blood cell counts and the disappearance of magakaryocytes and nucleated cells form the spleen?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
c, Folic acid
|
|
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is best characterized by signs of fatty liver, nodular hepatic hyperplasia, myocardial lesions, decreased conception and decreased viability of litters?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
b, Choline
|
|
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is best characterized by signs of weight loss, alopecia, achromotrichia, posterior paralysis and other neurological abnormalities?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
look it up
|
|
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is best characterized by signs of violent convulsions, cartwheel movements and decreased food consumption?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
: d, Thiamine
|
|
|
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is generally not fortified in mice feed?
Vitamin B complex Choline Folic acid Thiamine Panothenic acid Ascorbic acid |
f, ascorbic acid
|
|
|
|
Black mice are prone to a skin condition characterized by what?
|
: alopecia and/or chronic ulcerative dermatitis
|
|
|
|
What two strains of Black mice is most often observed with the alopecia and ulceratrive dermatitis:\?
|
C57BL/6 and C57BL/10
|
|
|
|
What is the cause of alopecia and chronic ulcerative dermatitis in black mice?
|
unknown
|
|
|
|
What environmental factors may increase the incidence of alopecia and chronic ulcerative dermatitis in black mice?
|
seasonal fluctuations during periods of significant changes in humidity and temperature (i.e. onset of winter and early summer).
|
|
|
|
Que: There is some evidence that black mice fed ________ diets are more susceptible than those on _______ diets.
purified; commercial fortified; restricted ad libitum; restricted restricted; purified purified, folate supplemented |
c, ad libitum; restricted. Specific dietary factors have not been identified.
|
|
|
|
Ileus associated with high mortality has been reported to occur in primiparous female mice during which week of lactation?
1st 2nd 3rd 4th |
b, 2nd week
|
|
|
|
Que: Match most likely disorder in experimental mice with the environmental variable.
Respiratory epithelial physiological changes a. Excessive noise Eye lesions and retinal dysfunction b. High ammonia levels Neurophysiological dysfunction c. Temp. and humidity changes Effects metabolism d. High light intensity |
: 1 (b), 2 (d), 3 (a), 4 (c)
|
|
|
|
True or false: mice adapt well to sudden and dramatic temperature changes.
|
False: they are therefore susceptible to hypo- and hyperthermia.
|
|
|
|
True or false: mice are susceptible to dehydration.
|
True
|
|
|
|
What is the major cause of dehydration in a laboratory housed mouse?
|
Obstructed sipper tubes
|
|
|
|
What is the major cause of hypothermia in a laboratory housed mouse?
|
Poorly functioning water bottles, resulting in spills.
|
|
|
|
Ringtail is a condition associated with __________.
|
low relative humidity
|
|
|
|
What are the clinical signs of ringtail in a mouse?
|
Annular constriction of the tail and occasionally of the feet or digits.
|
|
|
|
What is the ultimate outcome of ringtail, left untreated?
|
Ringtail results in localized edema that can progress to dry gangrene.
|
|
|
|
There is some evidence that ammonia buildup in mouse cages may contribute to development of this ophthalmologic lesion. Name the lesion.
|
Corneal opacities, as a result of acute or chronic keratitis
|
|
|
|
How does one control for the buildup of ammonia in mice cages?
|
Frequent cage cleaning
|
|
|
|
True or false: malocclusion in mice nearly always is due to severe trauma
|
False; malocclusion results from an inherited trait for poorly aligned incisors.
|
|
|
|
Where are most bite wounds seen on the mouse?
|
Ans. Head, neck, shoulders, peritoneal area, and tail.
|
|
|
|
Upon examining a cage containing six BALB/c male mice, you see all but one showing small, scabby lesions on their tails and heads. Along with a laundry list of potential contagious skin diseases, you immediately suspect:
|
Fighting in the cage; the unaffected mouse is the aggressor.
|
|
|
|
Hair nibbling or whisker chewing, known as __________, is a manifestation of social dominance in mice colonies.
|
Barbering
|
|
|
|
True or false: In a breeding colony of mice, barbering would be attributed to the male mouse.
|
False: both sexes engage in barbering, and sometimes females may be dominant.
|
|
|
|
Que. What other causes besides barbering may account for regional allopecia, especially around the muzzle, of a mouse?
|
Abrasion against cage surfaces; improperly diluted disinfectants; dermatophytosis; ectoparasitism; idiopathic hair loss.
|
|
|
|
What cardiovascular anomaly seems to be strain related and is seen particularly in RFM mice?
|
Ans. Atrial thrombosis
|
|
|
|
What other differentials should one consider for pulmonary tumors in mice?
|
Hyperplasia of alveolar or bronchial epithelium (seen in old mice).
|
|
|
|
True or false: pulmonary histiocytosis is an incidental finding in selected strains of mice, including C57BL/6.
|
True. Seen more with aging.
|
|
|
|
Severe combined inmmunodeficient (SCID) mice are widely used and are
highly susceptible to opportunistic agents such as Pneumocystis carinii, what cell deficiency accounts for this condition. |
: T and B lymphocytes
|
|
|
|
Glomerulonephritis is a common kidney lesion of aged mice. Its prevalence
in some strains approaches 100%. It is caused most often by what two disease processes. |
persistent viral infections and immune disorders
|
|
|
|
Which of the following mouse strains serve as a model for retinitis pigmentosa ?
BALB/c CBA SJL WAG/RiJ C3H/He |
E. C3H/He
|
|
|
|
Which of the following statements incorrectly describes occurrence of the condition of retinal degeneration ?
environmental disorder genetic disorder related to light intensity induces cataracts related to duration of exposure to light |
D. induces cataracts
|
|
|
|
Symmetrical mineral deposits are not found in which areas of the brain in aged mice ?
thalamus pons midbrain cerebrum cerebellum |
B. pons
|
|
|
|
Amyloid can be depositied in all of the following organs except
thyroid adrenals pineal pancreas both C and D |
E. both C and D
|
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions should not be considered a differential for urinary tract obstruction in the mouse ?
polycystic kidney disease infectious cystitis pyelonephritis hydronephrosis release of secretions from accessory sex glands |
A. polycystic kidney disease
|
|
|
|
Viruses associated with lymphopoietic and hematopoietic neoplasia belong to the family __________ (type C oncoviruses) and contain RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase).
|
Retroviridae.
|
|
|
|
Endogenous retroviruses are transmitted __________ through the germ line. __________ transmission is inefficient but can occur by intrauterine infection or thorough saliva, sputum, urine, feces, or milk.
|
vertically; Horizontal
|
|
|
|
Que. What is the most common hematopoietic malignancy in the mouse and where does it originate?
|
lymphocytic leukemia that originates in the thymus.
|
|
|
|
Reticulum cell sarcomas are particularly common in older inbred strains of mice such as __________ and __________.
|
. C57BL/6 and SJL
|
|
|
|
. According to the older Dunn classification, Histocytic sacrcomas correspond to the __________ sarcomas and are composed primarily of reticulum cells. Follicular center cell lymphomas correspond to __________ sarcomas and originate from B cell regions (germinal centers) of peripheral lymph tissues, including spleen, lymph nodes, and Peyers’s patches. __________ reticulum cell tumors often involve one or several lymph nodes and consist of reticulum cells with a prominent component of well differentiated lymphocytes.
|
type A; type B; Type C
|
|
|
|
Myelogenous leukemia, uncommon in mice, is associated with retrovirus infection and can be seen in older mice to cause a green appearance to affected organs due to myeloperoxidase activity. This is termed __________.
|
chloroleukemia.
|
|
|
|
. Note: Additional tidbits on rare neoplastic hematopoietic disorders. Erythroleukemia is rare in mice. The major lesion is __________.
__________ are also rare in mice and should not be confused with mast cell hyperplasia on the skin following painting with carcinogens or X-irradiation. __________ induced by intraperitoneal injection of granulocytic agents such as plastic filters, plastic shavings, or a variety of oils are also rare. |
Splenomegaly; Mast cell tumors; Plasma cell tumors.
|
|
|
|
__________ and __________ have a high prevalence of mammary tumors versus _________, __________ and __________ that have a low prevalence.
|
C3H and DBA/2; BALB/c, C57BL, and AKR.
|
|
|
|
The primary tumor virus MMTV-S (aka __________) is highly oncogenic and is transmitted through the milk of nursing females.
|
Bittner virus.
|
|
|
|
How is Bittner virus transmitted?
|
Through the milk of nursing females
|
|
|
|
What procedure dramatically reduces the incidence of mammary tumors in C3H mice?
|
Ans. Ovariectomy
|
|
|
|
Histologically, mammary tumors in mice are categorized in to what three major groups?
|
Carcinomas, carcinomas with squamous cell differentiation, and carcinosarcomas
|
|
|
|
In B6C3F1 hybrid mice, the prevalence of spontaneous liver tumors is increased by what husbandry action?
|
. Feeding choline deficient diets
|
|
|
|
Carcinomas in mice are divided into six adenocarcinoma types. What are they?
|
Adenocarcinoma types A, B, C, Y, and L
|
|
