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564 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Discuss the concept of ORM.
|
A tool used by all personnel to mitigate risk.
Identifying, assesing and managing risks. |
|
Acronym IAMIS...
|
- Identify Hazards
- Assess Hazards - Make Risk Decisions - Implement Controls - Supervise |
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3 types of controls as they apply to ORM.
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- Engineering Controls
- Administrative Controls - PPE (Personal Protective Equipment) |
|
What does Administrative Controls consist of?
|
Reduce risks by administrative action for example:
- warning signs - notices - written policies - program instructions - SOP's |
|
What does Engineering Controls consist of?
|
Controls that use engineering methods to reduce risks by design. Ex:
- safety feature on a weapon - steel boots - light indicator on an iron |
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What does PPE consist of?
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Personal Protective Equipment
- Helmet - Steel Toe Boots - Eye Protection etc.. |
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What is Step 3 in the concept of ORM?
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Make Risk Decisions
|
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What is Step 1 in the concept of ORM?
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Identify Hazards
|
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What is Step 5 in the concept of ORM?
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Supervise
|
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What is Step 2 in the concept of ORM?
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Assess Hazards
|
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What is Step 4 in the concept of ORM?
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Assess Hazards
|
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Explain the functions of Safety Councils and Committees.
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1. Safety Committee identifies and assess hazards and sends results to the Safety Council.
2. Safety Council makes risk decisions and sends it back to the safety committee. 3. Safety committee then implements controls and supervise. |
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Discuss purpose of mishap investigation.
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Safety - why event occured and prevent future mishaps.
Security - etablish trends, conduct analysis and asses effectiveness of NAVOSH program. |
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Who's reponsible for conducting a mishap investigation.
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JAG
|
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Explain the responsibilities of all unit peronnel as applied to safety.
|
Safety is everyone's responsibility.
|
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Acronym PPE.
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Personal Protective Equipment
|
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Explain the maintenance and use of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).
|
Ensure equipment is functional because improper maintenance can increase the risk of potential mishap.
|
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Discuss the purpose of safety stand-downs.
How often? |
Purpose is to be Proactive and Reactive.
Proactive: To preven mishaps Reactive: To discuss why mishaps happen. * Semi-annually |
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Discuss the Ergonomics program.
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Science used in the work space.
The program seeks to prevent injuries and illnesses by providing proper equipment and tools to suit the worker. Ex: Chair, lights, keyboard, mouse... etc |
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Acronym COSBAL.
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Coordinated Shore-Based Allowance List
|
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Acronym COSAL
|
Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List
|
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What is COSAL/COSBAL?
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A list that establishes shipboard or shore-based allowances for departments.
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Explain the importance of COSAL/COSBAL in relation to the commands mission and sustainability.
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Accurate inventory and identification of material is important to enable ships or shore base activities to achieve maximum operating capabilities for extended periods of time.
|
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Discuss the process of Validating in reference to COSAL/COSBAL.
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Validating inventory. Ensuring all equipment in accounted for.
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Discuss the process of Updating in reference to COSAL/COSBAL.
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Updating the COSAL/COSBAL list and ensuring any inventory discrepancies are annotated.
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Explain how frequently ordered parts affect demand processing.
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Demand history provides the ship the ability to anticipate future demands.
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Acronym MOV.
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Material Obligation Validation
|
|
Discuss the purpose of Material Obligation Validation (MOV) program.
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To ensure requisitions are validated properly and prevent the loss of critically short operation and maintenance dollars, improve requisition validity, and ensure sound financial management practices.
|
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2 Types of MOV programs.
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- External
- Internal |
|
Explain External MOV program.
How often is it reviewed? |
ICP (inventory control points) forwards MOV requests to supply for review.
QUARTERLY |
|
Explain Internal MOV program.
How often is it reviewed? |
Supply forwards MOV report to work center for review.
MONTHLY |
|
Acronym OPTAR.
|
Operating Target
|
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Acronym EMRM.
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Equipment Maintenance Related Material
|
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What are the 2 components of the OPTAR COMPOSITION?
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- "Other"
- EMRM (Equipment Maintenance Related Material) |
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Explain the difference between the two components of the operating target (OPTAR).
|
"Other" consists of perishable supplies such as medical/dental supplies, ink,.. etc
EMRM consists of consumables such as maintenance related material like repair equipment. |
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Discuss Departmental budget.
|
Budget allowance and projected allocation of funds.
|
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Acronym CHRIMP.
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Consolidated Hazardous Material Reutilization and Inventory Management
|
|
What is CHRIMP?
|
It's a re-utilization tool for hazardous materials.
|
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Acronym DRMO.
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Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office
|
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What is DRMO?
|
Method of saving valuable ship's resources by taking advantage of excess material.
|
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State how Credit is distributed for returned parts.
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Return it back to supply for proper credit.
May have been the right part, but the wrong size. |
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Define Plant property.
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Property with the unit cost of $5,000 or more and useful life over 2 years.
|
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Define Minor property.
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Property with the unit cost of $5,000 or less and useful life of less than 2 years
|
|
Acronym ACR.
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Allowance Change Request
|
|
Explain the purpose of the Allowance Change Request (ACR).
|
Change the number of items being ordered.
Add/Delete - Increase/Decrease |
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What is NAVSUP 1149?
|
Change of custody form.
|
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What is DD-1348?
|
Single Line Requisitioning Form.
Used for requisitioning non-NSN items. |
|
What is DD-200
|
Financial Liability Investigation of Property Loss (FLIPL)
Lost or stolen property form. |
|
What is NAVSUP 1250-2?
|
Form used to order non-NSN material.
|
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What is NAVSUP 1250-1
|
Form used to order NSN material.
|
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Acronym ARP.
|
Automotive Repair Parts
|
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Acronym CUU.
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Camouflage Utility Uniform
|
|
Acronym MLO.
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Material Liaison Office
|
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Acronym CSR.
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Central Storeroom
|
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Acronym CTR
|
Central Toolroom
|
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Acronym AEL.
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Allowance Equipage List
Parts Desired. |
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Acronym NC.
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Not Carried
|
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Acronym APL.
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Allowance Parts List
Parts allowed/needed |
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Acronym NIS.
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Not in Stock
|
|
Acronym COG.
|
Cognizance
Cognizance Symbol for Navy Stocked Publications |
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Acronym SIM.
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Selected Item Management
Demand base. Items carried that are in demand. |
|
Acronym NSN.
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National Stock Number
|
|
How many digits does a National Stock Number have?
|
13
|
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What are the forms for Report of Deficiency and Quality Deficiency Report
|
Report of Deficiency - SF 364
Quality Deficiency Report - SF 368 |
|
Explain a SF 364.
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Report of Deficiency.
Single malfunctioning parts or part of a package/lot. |
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Explain a SF 368.
|
Quality Deficiency Report.
Whole package/lot that is malfunctioning.. |
|
Acronym DLR.
|
Depot Level Rapairables
|
|
Acronym ROD.
|
Report of Deficiency
|
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Acronym QDR.
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Quality Deficiency Report
|
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Discuss the DLR (Depot Level Repairables) program.
|
Primary objective is to improve availability of DLRs resulting in improved fleet readiness.
Ex. Trading in an old car in return for a new car, while the old car gets fixed and re-stocked. A rotating spool to save dollars. |
|
Acronym RIP.
|
Remain in Place
|
|
Acronym NRFI.
|
Not ready for issue.
|
|
Explain the procedures on NRFI (not ready for issue) in regards to "Turn in available".
Code? |
Available to exchange on a one for one basis.
5G |
|
Explain the procedures on NRFI (not ready for issue) in regards to "Reimain in Place (RIP)".
Code? |
Refers to critical parts that cannot be removed as they will impact mission readiness. Parts may be sent to replace the part and old one sent back.
5S |
|
Commander NECC.
|
ADM Tillotson
|
|
NECC Force MC
|
Master Chief Foreceman
|
|
Commander In Chief
|
Honorable Barack Obama
|
|
CNO
|
ADM Gary Roughead
Training, opertation and readiness |
|
MSRON 5 CO
|
CDR Schram
|
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MCPON
|
Master Chief Petty of the Navy Rick West
|
|
Secretary of Defense
|
Honorable Robert Gates
|
|
MSRON 5 XO
|
CDR Shearon
|
|
Group 1 CO
|
CAPT Daniel
|
|
MSRON 5 CMC
|
Command Master Chief White
Enlisted advisor to the CO, Awards Program, EXW Program, Command Assessment Team, Ombudsman, Command Retention Team, Geographical Bachelor Program. |
|
Secretary of the Navy
|
Honorable Ray Maybus
|
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Group 1 CMC
|
Command Master Chief Grugriage
|
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Acronym OPLANs
|
Operational Plans
|
|
Acronym OPORDs
|
Operational Orders
|
|
What is an OPLAN?
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A detailed statement of a course of action....
to be followed to accomplish a future mission. |
|
What is an OPORD?
|
A formal statement issued by the senior officer to subordinate officers.
Puts an OPLAN into effect. |
|
Acronym EDVR.
|
Enlisted Distribution Verification Report
|
|
State the purpose and discuss the contents of the EDVR.
How many sections? |
Its a monthly statement of an activity's enlisted personnel account. A summary by distribution community of the present and future manning status of an activity.
12 Sections |
|
What is the difference between a Naval Message and E-mail?
|
Naval Message is FORMAL/SECURE.
Email is INFORMAL/UNSECURE |
|
Message precedence indicator:
Z = _____ Time = ____ |
Z = Flash
Time = 10 min |
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Message precedence indicator:
R = _____ Time = ____ |
R = Routine
Time = 6 hours |
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Message precedence indicator:
O = _____ Time = ____ |
O = Immediate
Time = 30 min |
|
Message precedence indicator:
P = _____ Time = ____ |
P = Priority
Time = 3 hours |
|
What message precedence category gets processed in 30 minutes?
|
Immediate
|
|
What message precedence category gets processed in 10 minutes?
|
Flash
|
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What message precedence category gets processed in 6 hours?
|
Routine
|
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What message precedence category gets processed in 3 hours.
|
Priority
|
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What letter indicator represents a PRIORITY msg precendence.
|
P
|
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What letter indicator represents an IMMEDIATE msg precendence.
|
O
|
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What letter indicator represents a ROUTINE msg precendence.
|
R
|
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What letter indicator represents a FLASH msg precendence.
|
Z
|
|
Security classification designator color for:
SECRET |
RED
|
|
Security classification designator color for:
UNCLASSIFIED |
GREEN
|
|
Security classification designator color for:
TOP SECRET |
ORANGE
|
|
Security classification designator color for:
CONFIDENTIAL / CALSSIFIED |
BLUE
|
|
Security classification color GREEN designates what type of message?
|
UNCLASSIFIED
|
|
Security classification color ORANGE designates what type of message?
|
TOP SECRET
|
|
Security classification color BLUE designates what type of message?
|
CLASSIFIED / CONFIDENTIAL
|
|
PAGE 2
|
Dependency Data
|
|
PG 4
|
Enlisted Qualifications History
|
|
PG 13
|
Administrative Remarks
|
|
Acronym OPREP
|
Operation Report
|
|
Discuss OPREP
|
Mission details
|
|
Acronym LOGREQ
|
Logistical Requirements
|
|
Discuss LOGREQ
|
Equipment required to pull into port.
Submit 72 hrs in advance |
|
Acronym SORTS
|
Status of Resources and Training System
|
|
Discuss SORTS
|
Status report of an acitivites personnel, equipement and training.
|
|
Acronym SITREP
|
Situational Report
|
|
Discuss SITREP
|
An incident report.
Ex: Domestic violence, DUI, death of a sailor... |
|
Discuss your responsibilities and conduct required as a combatant under the laws of Armed conflict.
|
How to behave during war and abide by the laws given. Who to fire upon..
|
|
Under the laws of Armed conflict. How do you identify a combatant and a non-combatant?
|
Combatant - Anyone wearing a uniform, someone with a weapon, someone firing at you or others
Non-Combatant - Chaplains, medical personnel, and civilians without weapons |
|
Discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the U.S. Navy.
|
During the American Revolution we needed a way to stop British supply lines. General George Washington commanded the first naval vessel.
|
|
State the qualities that characterize the Navy/Marine Corps team as instruments to support national policies.
|
Flexability
Mobility Sustainability Readiness |
|
Discuss the conditions that led to the creation of the Seabees.
|
During World War II, civilian contractors were in danger and needed to be armed. But with weapons they would be seen as Gorillas. We trained them and gave them uniforms and weapons.
|
|
Discuss the significance of March 5, 1942 as it pertains to the Seabees.
|
The official date of the Seabees.
Jan 13, 1942 (Construction Battalion) Known before as before - Construction Battalion. |
|
Creator / God Father of the Seabees.
|
Admiral Ben Morel
|
|
Discuss the importance of the following conflict:
Battle of Coral Sea |
May 8, 1942 (actually started the 7th)
US Carriers - USS Lexington and USS Yorktown Japanese Carriers - Shoho, Shokaku, Zuikaku Stopped Japan from invading Australia, Lost the USS Lexington, fought entirely with aircraft, both sides never saw each other. |
|
Discuss the importance of the following conflict:
Invasion of Normandy |
Navy's most notable Atlantic action on June 6, 1944.
D-day landings, operation overlord, largest amphibious assault in history. |
|
Discuss the importance of the following conflict:
Battle of Midway |
June 4, 1942 (ended June 7th) - 3 Day war
Carriers: USSYorktown, USS Hornet, and USS Enterprise Lost the USS Yorktown - Turning point of the war in the Pacific. - Stopped the Japanese from taking over Midway Island. - This would have given them a strategic advantage over our carriers. |
|
Discuss the conditions that led to the creation of Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD).
|
Navy Explosive Ordnance Disposal teams trace their history back to the first group of volunteers selected to work with the famed British UXO (Unexploded Ordnance) teams, following the initial German Blitzkrieg attacks in early 1940. In June 1941, these veterans returned to form the first class in what was originally named the Mine Recovery School.
|
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Concept |
Riverine operations integrate, and employ various types of ships, craft, aircraft, weapons, and Marine Corps and naval special warfare forces in a combined effort to achieve and/or maintain control of a riverine, coastal, or delta areas.
|
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Definition and Characteristics |
Riverine operations are conducted in a riverine area to achieve and/or maintain control of a waterway system and its adjoining land areas, or to deny their use to the enemy.
|
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Purpose |
1. Establish and maintain control of riverine lines of communications
2. Deny, by interdiction, barrier, or surveillance operations, use of riverine line of communications by hostile forces 3. Locate and destroy hostile forces, bases, and supplies contained within a riverine area. |
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Scope |
1. Intelligence collection
2. Planning 3. Embarkation of troops and equipment 4. Assault operations 5. Close air support |
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Types |
1. Assault - Control
2. Surveillance - Collect intelligence information 3. Interdiction - Deny hostile forces 4. Security - Perform security missions |
|
Discuss the following as they relate to Riverine Operations:
Supporting Operations |
Example of Supporting Operations:
1. Feints or demonstrations intended for purposes of deception 2. Isolation of the area of operation by interdiction of enemy forces 3. Operations to assist the gaining or maintenance of air, ground, or naval supremacy 4. Air, surface, or special operations to secure information 5. Psychological and unconventional warfare operations. |
|
What is considered pre-assult operations?
|
Operations conducted by elements of the mobile riverine force prior to the arrival of riverine assault forces.
Examples of such operations are waterway patrol and interdiction, mine countermeasures, obstruction clearance, and swimmer detection and defense. |
|
Commanding Officer
|
CDR Schram
|
|
CNO
|
ADM Gary Roughead
|
|
Group 1 CMC
|
CMDCM Grugriage
|
|
Commander NECC
|
RADM Tillotson
|
|
MCPON
|
MCPON Rick West
|
|
VP
|
Honorable Joe Biden
|
|
Group 1 CO
|
CAPT Daniel
|
|
NECC Force MC
|
Master Chief Forceman
|
|
SECDEF
|
Honorable Robert Gates
|
|
XO
|
CDR Shearon
|
|
President
|
Honorable Barack Obama
|
|
SECNAV
|
Honorable Ray Maybus
|
|
MSRON 5 CMC
|
MC White
|
|
Commander 5th Fleet
|
VADM Fox
|
|
What is N1?
|
ADMIN
YNC Abeldano |
|
What is N3?
|
OPS
LCDR Wharton |
|
What is N2?
|
Intel
CDR Hamilton |
|
What is N6?
|
Communications
LTJG Spearin |
|
What is N4?
|
Supply
LT Bellaire |
|
What is N7?
|
Training
LCDR Buen |
|
What is N43?
|
Maintenance / CESE (Civil Engineer Support Equipment)
GSCS Sanchez |
|
Seaward Security Officer (SSO)
|
LT Simmons
|
|
Landward Security Officer (LSO)
|
LTJG Leahy
|
|
State the mission, capabilites and projected operating ares for the following:
NECC (Navy Expeditionary Combat Command) |
Organize, train and equip our forces to meet the maritime security
operations and Joint contingency operations requirements. |
|
State the mission, capabilites and projected operating ares for the following:
NECC (Navy Expeditionary Combat Command) |
Naval Coastal Warfare (NCW) provides worldwide maritime and in-shore
surveillance, security and anti-terrorism force protection (ATFP) in bays and harbors, on airfields and piers, and onboard Navy vessels. |
|
What 12 commands fall under NECC?
|
1. EOD (Explosive Ordnance Disposal)
2. DIVERS (Mobile Diving and Salvage Units) 3. RIVERINE 4. MSRON (Maritime Expeditionary Security Squadron) 5. MESF (Maritime Expeditionary Security Force) 6. SEABEES 7. COMBAT CAMERA 8 ECRC (Expeditionary Combat Readiness Center) 9. NAVELSG (Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support Group) 10. MESG (Maritime Expeditionary Security Group) 11. MCAG (Maritime Civil Affairs Group) 12. NEIC (Navy Expeditionary Intelligence Command) 13. PSU (Port Security Unit) |
|
Acronym NAVELSG?
|
Navy Expeditionary Logistics Support Group
|
|
Acronym MESG.
|
Maritime Expeditionary Security Group
|
|
Acronym NEIC.
|
Navy Expeditionary Intelligence Command
|
|
Acronym MCAG
|
Maritime Civil Affairs Group
|
|
What is your 5th general order?
|
To quit my post only when properly relieved.
|
|
What is your 2nd general order?
|
To walk my post in a military manner, keeping always on the alert, and observing everything that takes place within sight or hearing
|
|
What is your 11th general order?
|
To be especially watchful at night, and, during the time for challenging, to challenge all persons on or near my post and to allow no one to pass without proper authority.
|
|
What is your 7th general order?
|
To talk to no one except in the line of duty.
|
|
What is your 3rd general order?
|
To report all violations of orders I am instructed to enforce.
|
|
What is your 10th general order?
|
To salute all officers and all colors and standards not cased.
|
|
What is your 1st general order?
|
To take charge of this post and all government property in view.
|
|
What is your 8th general order?
|
To give the alarm in case of fire or disorder.
|
|
What is your 4th general order?
|
To repeat all calls from posts more distant from the guard house than my own.
|
|
What is your 9th general order?
|
9. To call the Officer of the Deck in any case not covered by instructions.
|
|
What is your 6th general order?
|
To receive, obey and pass on to the sentry who relieves me, all orders from the Commanding Officer, Command Duty Officer, Officer of the Deck, and Officers and Petty Officers of the Watch only.
|
|
Sailors Creed
|
I am a United States Sailor. I will support and defend the Constitution of the United States of America and I will obey the orders of those appointed over me. I represent the fighting spirit of the Navy and those who have gone before me to defend freedom and democracy around the world. I proudly serve my country’s Navy combat team with Honor, Courage and Commitment. I am committed to excellence and the fair treatment of all.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 4 |
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 6 |
I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 1 |
I am an American fighting in the forces which guard my country and our way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 5 |
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 3 |
If I am captured, I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
|
|
Code of Conduct:
Article 2 |
I will never surrender of my own free will. If I am in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
|
|
Describe how equipment and cargo are to be prepared for air/sea/rail movement.
|
Prep for emabark/debark
- All power shut off - Less than 1/4 fuel tank (vehicles still mobile) - Clean / Label 3 sides of the ISU / inventory list on the outside. - MSDS idetification - All equipment strapped down |
|
Acronym MSDS.
|
Material Safety Data Sheet
|
|
What are the 7 types of HAZMAT?
|
FATCOC
Flamables Aerosols Toxins Combustibles Oxides Corrossives |
|
Acronym AMC.
|
Air Mobility Command
|
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
K-10 |
Extender - Aerial refueling / personnel / cargo
Intertheater - Strategic |
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
C-5 |
Galaxy (transport personnel/supply)
2 Ramps for loading (front/rear), hydraulics - Intertheater - Strategic |
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
C-141 |
Starlifter - Cargo / Troop transport. Ability to airlift combat forces over long distances.
Intratheater - Tactical |
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
C-17 |
Globemaster - tactical airlift and airdrop missions - also troops/cargo
|
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
C-130 |
Hercules - air dropping troops and equipment into hostile areas - oversized cargo
|
|
State name and the primary use and mission of:
KC-135 |
Stratotanker - principal mission is air refueling
|
|
What is the C-141 and its mission?
|
Starlifter - Cargo / Troop transport. Ability to airlift combat forces over long distances.
|
|
What is the C-130 and its mission?
|
Hercules - air dropping troops and equipment into hostile areas - oversized cargo
|
|
What is the KC-135 and its mission?
|
Stratotanker - principal mission is air refueling
|
|
What is the C-17 and its mission?
|
Globemaster - tactical airlift and airdrop missions - also troops/cargo
|
|
What is the KC-10 and its mission?
|
Extender - Aerial refueling / personnel / cargo
|
|
What is the C-5 and its mission?
|
Galaxy (transport personnel/supply)
|
|
Acronym MPF.
|
Maritime Prepositioning Force
|
|
Acronym MAGTF.
|
Marine Air-ground Task Force
|
|
Discuss the MPF Operations.
|
allows rapid deployment into secure areas where force introduction is essential.
- Mobile, flexible and can provide quick concentration of forces in specific areas - employs MAGTF (Marine Air Ground Task Force) - 3 Places (Naples, Guam, Diego Garcia) 13 Ships |
|
Describe the purpose of shipper declaration of dangerous goods.
|
need to know any property that is dangerous to ensure proper handling and prevent any mishaps; proper documentation for HAZMAT
|
|
Acronym TPFDD
|
Time-Phased Force Deployment Data
|
|
Discuss the info found on a TPFDD?
|
1. Time plus/minus 3 days for deployment
2. info on personnel/materials/supplies/weights for all 3. preparation for all shipments by plane, rail or sea |
|
Acronym MSC.
|
Military Sealift Command
|
|
Discuss the Military Sealift Command mission.
|
MSC's mission is to support our nation by delivering supplies and conducting specialized missions across the world's oceans.
|
|
How many ships operate during peacetime under MSC?
|
112
|
|
How many ships operate during war time under MSC?
|
162
|
|
How do you identify an MSC ship?
|
Blue and Gold Stripes
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
5 |
FIFE
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
2 |
TOO
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
7 |
SEV EN
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
4 |
FOW ER
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
1 |
WUN
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
6 |
SIX
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
0 |
ZE RO
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
9 |
NIN ER
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
3 |
TREE
|
|
Spell the following numeral:
8 |
AIT
|
|
What are the three methods of communications in areas where oral communications is not reliable.
|
1. Whistle
2. Hand and Arm Signals 3. Special Signals |
|
Describe the following signal:
Whistle |
1 short blast - Attention to Order
1 long blast - Cease Fire 3 long blast - Hostile aircraft / vehicle incoming |
|
Describe the following signal:
Special |
Lights, gun fire, flares, smoke
|
|
Discuss the factors that affect the capabilities of radio communications.
|
1. Weather
2. Terrain 3. Bad Antenna 4. Power 5. Environment 6. Distance |
|
What is Command and Control?
|
Command is the authoritative act of making decisions and ordering action.
Control is the act of monitoring and influencing this action. |
|
Discuss the term as it relates to Command and Control:
Nature and Purpose |
Type and Outcome
|
|
Discuss the term as it relates to Command and Control:
Process |
Ideas and Action
|
|
What is Naval Intelligence?
|
Fused all-source picture supporting OPS at sea, from the air and ashore.
|
|
Discuss the following terms as they relate to Naval intelligence:
Support to Operating Forces |
Support to operating forces is the cornerstone of naval intelligence.
Focal Point - Joint Intelligence Centers (JIC) in theater, info from DIA (Defence Intelligence Agency), CIA, National Security Agency (NSA), National Maritime Intelligence Center COMMUNICATION IS THE KEY |
|
Discuss the following terms as they relate to Naval intelligence:
Fundamentals of Naval Intelligence |
Apply across the spectrum of military operations - from peacetime, to operations other than war, to combat.
|
|
Principles as they apply to Fundamentals of Naval Intelligence.
|
1. Know the Adversary
2. Ensure Unity of Intelligence Effort 3. Plan for Combat 4. Use an All-Source Approach |
|
Key Attributes as they apply to Fundamentals of Naval Intelligence.
|
1. Timeliness
2. Objectivity 3. Usability 4. Availability 5. Thoroughness 6. Accuracy 7. Relevance |
|
Intel Sources as they apply to Fundamentals of Naval Intelligence.
|
1. HUMINT (Human Intelligence)
2. ELINT (Electronic Intelligence) 3. MEDINT (Medical Intelligence) 4. PHOTINT (Photographic Intelligence) 5. NUCINT (Nuclear Intelligence) 6. RADINT (Radar Intelligence) |
|
What is Intelligence Cycle as it relates to Naval Intelligence?
|
Commander levies intel requirements, information is collected and converted, then disseminated to users.
|
|
How many steps to the Intelligence Cycle?
|
5
|
|
What are the 5 steps to the Intelligence Cycle?
|
1. Planning and Direction
2. Collection 3. Processing 4. Production 5. Dissemination |
|
What is the following step in terms of the Intelligence Cycle:
Planning and Direction |
Commander must identify and prioritize his information requirements.
|
|
What is the following step in terms of the Intelligence Cycle:
Collection |
Gather information. The collection process determines what will be and what will not be available to support decision-making
|
|
What is the following step in terms of the Intelligence Cycle:
Processing |
The conversion of collected information into a form suitable for producing usable intelligence.
Ex: translating foreign languages, developing film from tactical reconnaissance aircraft, generating hard or soft-copy images provided by electro-optical or infrared sensors, converting raw electronic intelligence data into a standard message format suitable for automated handling. |
|
What is the following step in terms of the Intelligence Cycle:
Production |
The integration, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of information from all available sources into tailored, usable intelligence.
A key principle in production is the fusion of information from various sources to form a complete and accurate product. |
|
What is the following step in terms of the Intelligence Cycle:
Dissemination |
Getting the product to the user. The goal of the dissemination process is to provide the right amount of appropriately classified intelligence when, where, and how it is needed
|
|
What step is defined by the following as it applies to the Intelligence Cycle:
Commander must identify and prioritize his information requirements. |
Planning and Direction
|
|
What step is defined by the following as it applies to the Intelligence Cycle:
Gather information. The collection process determines what will be and what will not be available to support decision-making. |
Collection
|
|
What step is defined by the following as it applies to the Intelligence Cycle:
The conversion of collected information into a form suitable for producing usable intelligence. |
Processing
|
|
What step is defined by the following as it applies to the Intelligence Cycle:
The integration, analysis, evaluation, and interpretation of information from all available sources into tailored, usable intelligence. |
Production
|
|
What step is defined by the following as it applies to the Intelligence Cycle:
Getting the product to the user. The goal of the dissemination process is to provide the right amount of appropriately classified intelligence when, where, and how it is needed. |
Dissemination
|
|
What is Support for Expeditionary Forces at is relates to Naval Intelligence?
|
- Forward deployed Naval Forces unrestricted by host nation access, strong & flexible overseas presence to deter and respond.
- Information on environment, local infrastructure, medical conditions and hazards are vital. - Our proximity to threats mean less warning and reaction time for friendly forces. - To be most effective in expeditionary operations, naval intelligence personnel should be integrated into national, theater, and service intelligence organizations. Open-source Intel. |
|
What is Nature and Purpose as it relates to Naval Intelligence?
|
It supports both naval and joint operations. It is embedded in all major echelons of command and is deployed continuously with naval forces.
Naval intelligence includes centers ashore for maritime, scientific and technical intelligence, training, administration of intelligence programs, and systems acquisition. |
|
How many levels is naval intelligence broken down to, to support warfare?
|
3
|
|
What are the 3 levels of naval intelligence that support warfare?
|
1. Strategic Intelligence
2. Operational Intelligence 3. Tactical Intelligence |
|
Define the following level of naval intelligence:
Operational Intelligence |
Required for planning operations within regional theaters or areas of operations. It concentrates on intelligence collection, identification, location, and analysis to support the operational level of warfare.
|
|
Define the following level of naval intelligence:
Strategic Intelligence |
Required for the formation of policy and military plans at national and international levels. Intelligence is oriented toward national objectives and supports the formulation of policies and determination of priorities.
|
|
Define the following level of naval intelligence:
Tactical Intelligence |
Required for planning and conducting tactical operations at the component or unit level. It is oriented more toward combat than long-range planning.
|
|
Maximum transmission ranges for the following setting:
M (medium power) |
400 M - 5 KM (Manpack/Vehicular)
|
|
Maximum transmission ranges for the following setting:
LO (low power) |
200 M - 400 M (Manpack/Vehicular)
|
|
Maximum transmission ranges for the following setting:
HI (high power) |
5 KM - 10 KM (Manpack/Vehicular)
|
|
Maximum transmission ranges for the following setting:
PA (power amplifier) |
10 KM - 40 KM (Vehicular Only)
|
|
What's the setting for the following transmission rage:
5 KM - 10 KM (Manpack/Vehicular) |
HI (high power)
|
|
What's the setting for the following transmission rage:
200 M - 400 M (Manpack/Vehicular) |
LO (low power)
|
|
What's the setting for the following transmission rage:
400 M - 5 KM (Manpack/Vehicular) |
M (medium power)
|
|
What's the setting for the following transmission rage:
10 KM - 40 KM (Vehicular Only) |
PA (power amplifier)
|
|
What kind of radios are the frequencies applicable to?
|
Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SINCGARS) radios, which are not standard MIUWU nor IBU equipment.
|
|
What are the above ranges of transmission based on?
|
Line of sight and average for normal conditions.
|
|
What does the transmission range depend on?
|
Location, sighting, weather, and surrounding noise level, among other factors.
|
|
Acronyms:
COMSEC & CMS |
Communications Security & Communications Security Material System (CMS) Custodian
|
|
Discuss COMSEC (Communications Security).
|
Protective measures to deny unauthorized persons information/telecommunications relating to national security.
Crypto, Physical, Transmissions, Emissions |
|
Discuss CMS (Communications Security Material System) custodian.
|
- Correct accountability and maintenance of CMS account.
- Advising the CO on matters concerning the physical security and handling of CMS publications and materials; stowage of CMS publications and materials, as well as the drawing, correcting and authorized destruction. |
|
Acronym TPI and definition.
|
Two Person Integrity - Prevent single person access. Witness.
|
|
Define the following term:
Access |
The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information.
|
|
Define the following term:
Classification |
The determination that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designation signifying that such a determination has been made.
|
|
Define the following term:
Compromise |
A security violation which has resulted in confirmed or suspected exposure of classified information or material to an unauthorized person.
|
|
Define the following term:
Need to Know |
A determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information.
|
|
Define the following term:
Clearance |
A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program.
|
|
What are the 3 types of clearances?
|
1. Confidential
2. Secret 3. Top Secret |
|
Define the following clearance type:
Secret |
Access to secret and confidential classified material
|
|
Define the following clearance type:
Top Secret |
Access to Top Secret, Secret, and Confidential classified material.
|
|
Define the following clearance type:
Confidential |
Access to confidential material
|
|
What term is defined by the following:
A determination made by an authorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information. |
Need to Know
|
|
What term is defined by the following:
A security violation which has resulted in confirmed or suspected exposure of classified information or material to an unauthorized person. |
Compromise
|
|
What term is defined by the following:
A formal determination that a person meets the personnel security standards and is thus eligible for access to classified information other than that protected in a special access program. |
Clearance
|
|
What term is defined by the following:
The determination that official information requires, in the interests of national security, a specific degree of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designation signifying that such a determination has been made. |
Classification
|
|
Define the following term:
Minimize |
Minimize Message - Drastically reducing normal message and telephone traffic so that vital messages connected with the situation indicated will not be delayed.
The Chief of Naval Operations (CNO), fleet commanders in chief, and area coordinators are authorized to impose minimize conditions. During minimize conditions, FLASH and IMMEDIATE traffic should be restricted to a maximum of 100 and 200 words |
|
Acronym EEFI.
|
Essential Elements of Friendly Information
|
|
Define the following term:
Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI) |
EEFIs identify specific items of information which, if revealed, that is transmitted immediately to and correlated with other information, would degrade the unit disclosing an EEFI. The code word notifies the security of the military operations, projects, or missions unit that it has committed a disclosure, and in what applicable area.
EEFI's can vary from operation to operation or from area to area. |
|
Define the following term:
BEADWINDOW |
A real-time procedure used to alert circuit operators that an unauthorized disclosure has occurred over a NON-SECURE circuit.
BEADWINDOW also warns other operators on the net of the disclosure. This serves as an educational aid. The long-term benefits of the BEADWINDOW procedure include an increased awareness of the proper use of voice circuits throughout the fleet and better security of uncovered Navy voice communications. If a Beadwindow is called on your transmission, the only proper response is... |
|
If a Beadwindow is called on your transmission, the only proper response is...
|
Roger out
|
|
How many Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI) codes are there?
|
7
|
|
What are the 7 Essential Elements of Friendly Information (EEFI) codes?
|
1. Position
2. Capabilities 3. Operations 4. Electronic Warfare 5. Personnel 6. COMSEC 7. Wrong Circuit |
|
What are the following acronyms:
HF VHF UHF |
High Frequency
Very High Frequency Ultra High Frequency |
|
What is the radio frequency range for the following:
VHF - Very High Frequency |
30 Mhz – 300 Mhz
|
|
What is the radio frequency range for the following:
HF - High Frequency |
3 Mhz – 30 Mhz
|
|
What is the radio frequency range for the following:
UHF - Ultra High Frequency |
300 Mhz – 3 Ghz
|
|
Discuss HF - High Frequency.
|
The Navy began using HIGH FREQUENCIES for radio communications around World War I. One of the prominent features of high-frequency - long-distance communications
|
|
Discuss VHF - Very High Frequency.
|
Known as line-of-sight transmission bands.
|
|
Discuss UHF - Ultra High Frequency.
|
Because this is line-of-sight communications, the transmitting antenna is in a direct line with the receiving antenna and not over the horizon.
|
|
What radio frequency is defined by the following range:
3 Mhz – 30 Mhz |
HF - High Frequency
|
|
What radio frequency is defined by the following range:
30 Mhz – 300 Mhz |
VHF - Very High Frequency
|
|
What radio frequency is defined by the following range:
300 Mhz – 3 Ghz |
UHF - Ultra High Frequency
|
|
Discuss the factors that affect the capabilities of radio communications for:
HF (High Frequency) |
Successful transmission of HF signals over a long distance is dependent upon refraction of radio waves by layers of the ionosphere. The height and density of these layers is formed mainly by ultraviolet radiation from the sun. They vary significantly with the time of day, season of the year, and the eleven-year cycle of sunspot activity.
|
|
Discuss the factors that affect the capabilities of radio communications for:
VHF (Very High Frequency) UHF (Ultra High Frequency) |
In the VHF and UHF bands, certain atmospheric and ionospheric conditions can also cause the normal line-of-sight range to be extended. Frequencies at the lower end of this band are capable of overcoming the shielding effects of hills and structures to some degree; but as the frequency is increased, the problem becomes more pronounced.
|
|
What does Company Headquarters provide in terms of Camp Layout?
|
Company headquarters provides command and control, training, administrative, and logistical support required to conduct operations to support the mission and health and welfare of residents of the camp.
|
|
What is the mission of the expeditionary camp team?
|
Give deployed military members a brief respite from the rigors of duty. The team consists of many elements that come together to complete the mission.
|
|
How many core elements make up a team?
|
8
|
|
What are the 8 core elements that make up a team?
|
1. Security
2. Supply/Logistic 3. Administration 4. Operations 5. Intelligence 6. Training 7. Medical 8. Maintenance |
|
How many basic phases are there to an expeditionary camp layout?
|
5
|
|
What are the 5 basic phases to an expeditionary camp layout?
|
1. Planning
2. Site Survey / Security 3. Camp Establishment 4. Camp Maintenance 5. Camp Teardown |
|
Explain the Planning phase to an expeditionary camp layout.
|
1. Reason for the camp
2. Type of camp a. Base b. Expeditionary c. Unit d. Logistics Hub 3. Terrain 4. Climate 5. Threat Level |
|
What teams are involved in the Site Survey/Security phase to an expeditionary camp layout.
|
1. Site survey/preparation team
2. Site security team 3. Camp setup team |
|
What does the Site Survey/Security team do?
|
Survey's future site by aerial photography, satellite imagery or reconnaissance patrol.
|
|
What does the Site Security Team do?
|
a. Advance scout team
b. Secure and barracade off area |
|
What does the Camp Setup Team do?
|
a. Arrives after site has been secured and begins unloading equipment
b. Begins camp layout and construction. |
|
Site Survey/Preparation plan layout starts with...
|
Site surveys start with simple over view of the area of operation (AO)
|
|
Site Survey/Preparation plan layout detail of camp starts to...
|
..starts to take shape once the area of operation (AO) has been decided upon and the camp details start to take shape.
|
|
Discuss Camp Establishment phase..
|
Main:
* MEDICAL * MAINTENANCE * TRAINING * GALLEY * BERTHING * WASH STATION - Billeting activities - Food service - Shower and head facilities - Field armory - First aid station - Combined maintenance engineering logistics (CMEL) - Laundry service - An administrative services - A fire fighting team - Facilities for MWR activities - A resident unit ministry team |
|
First aid station duties.
|
- Emergency response teams
- Minor surgeries - Patient monitoring - Medical evacuation - Pharmacy - Medical Administration Medical is not only at the base camp but in the field as well. |
|
Explain the Maintenance phase to an expeditionary camp layout.
|
- Combined Maintenance Engineering Logistic (CMEL)
- A utilities team for utilities operation - A supply company for potable water supply Maintenance can consist of logistical operations to the up keep of campsite equipment such as generators, light plants, vehicles and boats. |
|
Discuss the purpose of leach fields.
|
A leach field is a series of drain lines that allow the sewage from the septic tank to drain over a large area of ground. Leaching fields are an integral component of a septic tank individual sewage disposal system. Leaching field may be reffered to as tile fields or absortion trenches.
|
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to camp maintenance:
Trouble Desk |
Trouble Desk (COW) - The trouble desk attendant receives all customer trouble calls, enters this information into the trouble desk log and fills out emergency/service authorization (ESA) froms. The attendant makes sure that ESA forms are properly routed and that outstanding ESAs are completed within the required deadlines. Normally, all facility history jackets are maintained at the trouble desk.
|
|
What are the four priority work classifications in reference to camp fundametals?
|
1. Safety
2. Function 3. Preventive 4. Appearance |
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to "Four Priority Work Classifications":
Safety |
Work required primarily for safety reasons.
|
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to "Four Priority Work Classifications":
Function |
Work primarily identified with the mission of the activity.
|
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to "Four Priority Work Classifications":
Preventive |
Work primarily required to prevent significant deterioration of the plant property or equipment caused by continued use or from natural forces.
|
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to "Four Priority Work Classifications":
Appearance |
Work done primarily for preserving or upgrading the appearance of a facility.
|
|
Discuss the following as it pertains to camp maintenance:
Operator Inspection |
Operator inspections consists of examining, lubricating, and making minor adjustments. Operator inspections of constantly attended equipment are another from of PM (preventive maintenance), but they are performed by the operator assigned to the equipment as part of the day-to-day responsibilities.
|
|
Discuss the following camp water related terms:
Potable Water |
Water suitable for drinking, cooking, and personal use.
|
|
Discuss the following camp water related terms:
Chlorination |
The disinfection of a substance or container by a chlorine chemical or gas. Plain or simple chlorination is the single application of chlorine as the only treatment before discharge to the distribution system.
|
|
Discuss the following camp water related terms:
Super Chlorination |
Chlorination with doses that are deliberately selected to produce water free of combined residuals so large as to require de-chlorination.
|
|
How many categories is the Standard 782 divided into?
|
3
|
|
What are the 3 categories for the Standard 782 gear?
|
1. Fighting/Load carrying equipment.
2. Bivouac equipment (camp) 3. Protective These three categories can be combined and mixed as necessary. |
|
Standard 782 gear consists of...
|
- Pistol belt with two magazine pouches
- Pack, usually a medium size - H-harness or suspenders May also consists of: - Wet weather gear, gloves tactical holsters - Sleeping bags and poncho liners - Canteens or Camelbaks - Ballistic vests and helmets - Any other item of non-personal nature |
|
What are the fighting positions?
|
1. Hasty / Skirmisher's Position
2. Improved One Man 3. Improved Two Man |
|
Discuss the Hasty/Skirmisher's fighting position.
|
The simplest type of dug-in emplacement is the SKIRMISHER’S TRENCH. This shallow pit type of emplacement provides a temporary, open, prone firing position for the individual rifleman.
bed down, pile dirt and leaves in from of yourself and hide. With his entrenching tool, he scrapes and piles the soil in a low parapet between him and the enemy. |
|
Define the Improved One-Man Fighting Position.
|
A one man fighting hole made as small as possible to present the smallest target to the enemy, but wide enough to accommodate a man’s shoulders, and deep enough to use entrenching tools at the bottom.
|
|
Describe how a One Man Fighting Hole is built for the Improved One-Man Fighting Position.
|
A sump should be built below the firing step,
atone end, to catch rainwater. The firing step should be deep enough to protect most of a man’s body while firing. A circular grenade sump, large enough to accept the largest known enemy grenade, is sloped downward at an angle of 30 degrees and is excavated under the fire step. Hand grenades thrown into the fighting hole are exploded in this sump, and their fragmentation is restricted to the unoccupied end of the fighting hole. The soil from the hole is used to build a parapet. The edge of the hole is used for an elbow rest while firing. Be sure to camouflage the soil used for your parapet to help avoid detection. |
|
State the length for the following in terms of One Man Fighting Hole:
Elbow Rest |
1 ft (30 cm)
|
|
State the length for the following in terms of One Man Fighting Hole:
Hole Size (length & width) |
1 M16 x 1 M16
|
|
State the length and angle for the following in terms of One Man Fighting Hole:
Grenade Sump |
One arms length
1 1/2 ft (45 cm) 30 degree angle |
|
State the length for the following in terms of One Man Fighting Hole:
Depth |
Deep enough to protect most of a man’s body while
firing. (shoulders) |
|
Define the Improved Two-man fighting position.
|
TWO-MAN FIGHTING HOLE that is essentially two one-man holes.
Disadvantage - provides less protection from tanks, bombing, strafing, and shelling. |
|
State the length for the following in terms of Two-man Fighting Hole:
Depth |
The depth is as deep as the shortest mans shoulders.
|
|
State the length for the following in terms of Two Man Fighting Hole:
Hole Size (length & width) Grenade Sump |
2 M16's X 1 M16
2 Sumps 30 degree angle each |
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Fighting Position |
Color code to natural environment. Naturally blend into the environment. DONT OVER DO IT! Camouflage agains both air and ground observation.
|
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Personal Equipment |
Take advantage of available natural concealment. Camouflage agains both air and ground observation.
|
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Individual |
- Skin covered, exposed skin reflects light
- Paint not avail - Use charcoal, burnt cork, lamp black, or any other material - Black is not a good night color camouflage |
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Vehicles |
- Use natural environment to conceal vehicles, use drape netting when available.
|
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Buildings |
Netting draped over the building.
|
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Supply points |
- Disperse supplies to minimize damage from single attack
- Camouflage with natural environment |
|
Explain the general rules of camouflage and how they apply to:
Water Points |
Use natural or artificial camouflage to keep the enemy from observing the shine of the water.
|
|
State what actions to be taken if you are caught in the light of a ground flare or overhead flare.
|
Overhead - Get down and find cover
Ground - Get out of the area. |
|
Acronym KOKOA.
|
Key Terrain
Observation and Fields of fire Cover and concealment Obstacles to movement Avenues of approach |
|
Discuss the fi K in KOCOA?
|
Key Terrain - Key terrain features must be considered in formulating defensive tactics. Their selection is based on the mission of the command. Tactical use of terrain often is directed at increasing the ability to apply combat power.
|
|
Discuss the O in KOCOA?
|
Obeservation and Fields of Fire are so closely related that they are considered together. Fields of fire are based on observation because a target must be seen to bring effective fire upon it.
Observation considers: Weather conditions Time of day Vegetation Surrounding terrain |
|
Discuss the C in KOCOA?
|
Cover and concealment is used together to provide protection from the effects of fires and observation.
|
|
Discuss the O in KOCOA?
|
Obstacles are anything, including a natural or artificial terrain feature, that stops, impedes, or diverts military movement.
|
|
Discuss the A in KOCOA?
|
Avenues of approach are routes the enemy is likely to travel to reach its objective. When setting up the defense positions, the platoon commander visualizes all possible enemy avenues of approach into the area.
|
|
What is required for basic land navigation?
|
Map
Compass Pace Count |
|
Explain the use of a Map in regards to basic land navigation.
|
First, orient the map with the ground. Know your position on the map. Read the map top to bottom, right to left.
|
|
Explain the use of a Lensatic Compass in regards to basic land navigation.
|
- When a compass rose appears on the map, place the compass over the Magnetic North Line.
- Turn the map until the north arrow of the compass is aligned. - For maps with no compass rose, use the N/S grid line. |
|
Acronym BAMCIS.
|
Begin planning
Arrange recon Make recon Complete the plan Issue the order Supervise |
|
Discuss B in BAMCIS.
|
Begin Planning - Estimate of the Situation, Mission analysis, Enemy forces, terrain/ weather analysis.
|
|
Discuss A in BAMCIS.
|
Arrange the recon - Consider route, security, subordinates to accompany and time available.
|
|
Discuss M in BAMCIS.
|
Make reconnaissance -The recon will either confirm the plan or cause him to adjust it
|
|
Discuss C in BAMCIS.
|
Complete the plan - After updating his estimate with information gained during the recon.
|
|
Discuss I in BAMCIS.
|
Issue the order - Issue the order to subordinate leaders.
|
|
Discuss S in BAMCIS.
|
Supervise - Ensures plan is adhered to. Listen, inspect and observe.
|
|
Acronmy SMEAC
|
Situation
Mission Execution Admin and Logistics Command and control |
|
Discuss S in SMEAC.
|
Situation - always has three subparagraphs: Enemy Forces, Friendly Forces, and Attachments and Detachments. This paragraph contains information only. It does not include plans or instructions.
|
|
Discuss M in SMEAC.
|
Mission - concise statement of mission, includes what, how, where and why.
|
|
Discuss E in SMEAC.
|
Execution - assigns definite tasks to each element of the command.
|
|
Discuss A in SMEAC.
|
ADMINISTRATION AND LOGISTICS contains administrative and logistic instructions, when an administrative order is not issued. When an order is issued, this paragraph refers to that order.
|
|
Discuss C in SMEAC.
|
COMMAND AND SIGNAL contains instructions about the command, command relationships, and the operations of communications and electronics.
|
|
Acronym SALUTE.
|
Size
Activity Location Unit Time Equipment |
|
Discuss SALUTE
|
A SALUTE report is used when the observed activities of the enemy do not pose a threat to the company
|
|
Acronym SPOT.
|
Size
Position Observation Time |
|
Discuss SPOT.
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A SPOT report is a rapid way to inform the COC of vital information and should be followed up with a SALUTE report. A SPOT report is a hastily modified SALUTE report containing less detail.
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Describe the purpose of:
Security Patrol |
Security Patrol concerned with defensive combat; therefore, when training your men in patrolling, your emphasis should be on security patrolling, rather than aggressive patrolling.
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Describe the purpose of:
Reconnaissance Patrol |
Information gathering patrols, gathering intel.
Avoid combat, accomplish their mission by stealth |
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How many steps to patrol planning and preparation?
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12
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What are the 12 steps to patrol planning and preparation?
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1. Study the mission
2. Plan the use of time 3. Study the terrain and situation 4. Organize the patrol 5. Select personnel, equipment, and weapons 6. Issue the warning order 7. Coordinate 8. Make recon 9. Complete detailed plan 10. Issue patrol order 11. Supervisor 12. Execute Mission |
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Discuss the priorities of establishing a defense.
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Fields of fire
Cover Concealment Obstacles Avenues of approach SECURITY MUTUAL SUPPORT DEFENSE IN DEPTH ALL-AROUND DEFENSE COORDINATED FIRE PLAN USE OF BARRIERS FLEXIBILITY DISPERSION |
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Describe the battalion defensive areas.
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Defensive Areas - established at the defensive perimeter, include the security area.
Squadron Security - The Battalion security area begins at the defensive perimeter and normally extends 500 meters to the front and to the flanks of the battalion. Forward Defense - The Forward defense area extends rearward from the defensive line or FEBA to the rear boundaries of the frontline companies that are used as the forward defense echelon of the battalion. Reserve Area - Extending from the rear boundary of the forward defense echelon (frontline companies) to the rear boundary of the defense battalion is the reserve area. |
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Discuss the elements of a fire plan sketch.
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Individual sectors of fire
Individual fighting positions Automatic riflemen Crew-served weapon positions key Terrain features Position of the fire team leader |
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Discuss sectors of fire and fire discipline.
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A sector of fire is an area of responsibility assigned to a squad, a platoon, or a crew-served weapon to be covered by fire.
1. Lateral Limits: Readily identifiable terrain features are selected to show the line of sight along each side of the sector. 2. Forward Limits: The forward limit is established at the range at which the weapon will open fire. Fire Discipline may generally be defined as a set of ROE (rules of engagement), primarily designed to deliver optimal weapons fire on the enemy, while consuming the least amount of ammunition and minimizing any friendly casualties. |
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Squad Leader |
Carries orders of the platoon commander, maintenance of weapons and equipment
In combat - fire discipline, fire control, maneuvering squad. |
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Grenadier |
The grenadier carries out the orders of the squad leader and is responsible to him for the effective care, maintenance, and employment of his weapon, the M203 grenade launcher. In combat, the grenadier always moves with or is close to the squad leader.
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Fire team leader |
The fire team leader carries out the orders of his squad leader and is responsible to him for the effective employment of his fire team. His primary responsibility is to control his fire team in combat.
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Automatic Rifleman |
The automatic rifleman provides heavy firepower and is the backbone of the fire team. He is responsible to the fire team leader for the effective employment of his automatic rifle as well as its condition and care.
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Rifleman # 1 |
Rifleman number 1 carries extra ammunition for the automatic rifleman. The automatic rifle must be kept in action at all times; if the automatic rifleman becomes a casualty, rifleman number 1 moves up and replaces him.
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Duties and responsibilities of the following members of a rifle squad:
Rifleman # 2 |
Rifleman number 2 serves as a rifleman and protects the flank of the fire team. He is point man for all team formations and may also serve as a scout.
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Discuss an individual responsibilities under the code of conduct.
When they were established? When they were implemented? |
August 15, 1955
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Describe the procedures for handling detainees/Enemy Prisoner of War.
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search
secure silence segregate safeguard speed the prisoners to the rear Tag Cant deny: food, medical treatment, or the right to practice religion. |
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE I |
I am an American, fighting in the Forces which guard my country and out way of life. I am prepared to give my life in their defense.
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE II |
I will never surrender of my own free will. If in command, I will never surrender the members of my command while they still have the means to resist.
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE III |
If I am captured I will continue to resist by all means available. I will make every effort to escape and aid others to escape. I will accept neither parole nor special favors from the enemy.
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE IV |
If I become a prisoner of war, I will keep faith with my fellow prisoners. I will give no information or take part in any action which might be harmful to my comrades. If I am senior, I will take command. If not, I will obey the lawful orders of those appointed over me and will back them up in every way.
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE V |
When questioned, should I become a prisoner of war, I am required to give name, rank, service number, and date of birth. I will evade answering further questions to the utmost of my ability. I will make no oral or written statements disloyal to my country and its allies or harmful to their cause.
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Code of Conduct:
ARTICLE VI |
I will never forget that I am an American, fighting for freedom, responsible for my actions, and dedicated to the principles which made my country free. I will trust in my God and in the United States of America.
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Describe enemy procedures for handling detainees/Enemy Prisoner of War (EPW).
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- Never attached those who surrender
- Never Kill, torture, or mistreat prisoners - Never take personal property - Do not violate their civil rights - You may have to relocate civilians - You may no use poison or poison weapons |
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Describe force protection threat conditions (FPCONS).
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It's a terrorist threat system overseen by the Department of Defense directive, and describes the amount of measures needed to be taken by security agencies in response to various levels of terrorist threats against military facilities.
- Normal - Alpha - Bravo - Charlie - Delta |
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Describe the following FPCON:
NORMAL |
Describes a situation of no current terrorist activity although there's always a possibility. The only security forces needed are enough to stop the everyday criminal, similar to civilian police forces.
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Describe the following FPCON:
ALPHA |
Describes a situation where there is a small and general terrorist activity that is not predictable. However, agencies will inform personnel that there is a possible threat and standard security procedure review is conducted.
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Describe the following FPCON:
BRAVO |
Describes a situation with somewhat predictable terrorist threat. Security measures taken by agency personnel may affect the activities of local law enforcement and the general public.
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Describe the following FPCON:
CHARLIE |
Describes a situation when an instance occurs or when intelligence reports that there is terrorist activity imminent.
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Describe the following FPCON:
DELTA |
Describes a situation when a terrorist attack is taking place or has just occurred. FPCON DELTA usually occurs only in the areas that are most vulnerable to or have been attacked.
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Discuss who defines rules of engagement, how it applies and who is responsible for enforcing.
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Set by Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff (ADM MULLEN)
Enforced by the Commander |
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Describe circumstances where deadly force would normally be authorized.
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- Serious Offenses against persons
- Protect public health and safety - Arrest or apprehention - Escape |
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Describe the 3 classes of wire entanglement.
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- Tactical-wire
- Protective-wire - Supplementary-wire |
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Define:
Tactical-wire Entanglement |
- Used parallel to and along the friendly side of the final protective line.
- Break up enemy attack formations - Hold the enemy in areas covered by the most intense defensive fire. |
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Define:
Protective-wire Entanglement |
- Prevent surprise assaults from points close to the defense area.
- Placed close enough to the defense area for day/night observation. |
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Define:
Supplementary-wire Entanglement |
- Placed directly in front of the forward edge of the battle area.
- Conceal the exact line of the tactical wire. - Also used in the rear of the FEBA (enlose the entire defensive position by connectin the protective-wire entanglements. - Also used to break up the line of tactical wire. |
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State the purpose of the following:
Triple-Standard concertina fence |
This fence consists of two lines of concertinas serving as a base, with a third line resting on top. All lines are installed with staggered joints. Each line is completed before the next is started.
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State the purpose of the following:
Double-apron Fence |
The standard double-apron fence is one of the best obstacles that can be made with barbed tape. The
effectiveness of this obstacle is increased by (1) raising the top wire to preclude crossing the obstacle by stepping over it and (2) placing low wires 4 inches above the ground to prevent personnel from crawling under the obstacle. |
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State the purpose of the following:
Low Wire Entanglement |
- 4 and 2 pace double-apron fence
- Medium pickets replace long pickets in the center line - Passage underneath this fence is difficult. - Used where concealment is essential - Particularly effective as a surprise obstacle |
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State the purpose of the following:
Tangle foot |
- Used where concealment is essential and to prevent the enemy from crawling between
fences and in front of emplacements. Site tanglefoot in scrub, if possible, using bushes as supports for part of the wire. Control the growth of grass to help prevent the enemy from secretly cutting lanes in, or tunneling under, the entanglement. |
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What are the four basic fire team formations?
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- Column
- Wedge - Skirmishers (right and left) - Echelon (right and left) |
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Discuss the following basic fire team formations:
Column |
The fire team column formation is used when speed and control are governing factors, such as
moving through woods, fog, smoke, and along roads and trails. This formation is favorable for fire and maneuvers to either flank but is vulnerable tfire from the front because its own fire in that direction is limb. |
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Discuss the following basic fire team formations:
Wedge |
- Used when the enemy situation is unknown but contact is possible.
- Provides all-around protection and flexibility and is easy to control. |
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Discuss the following basic fire team formations:
Skirmishers (right or left) |
- When assaulting a known enemy position.
- Also useful for "mopping up" operations and crossing short, open areas. - Provides maximum firepower to the front. However, the formation is difficult to control. |
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Discuss the following basic fire team formations:
Echelon (right or left) |
- Used primarily to protect an exposed flank.
- Permits heavy firepower to both the front and the direction of echelon. - Difficult to control; movement is generally slow |
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Discuss immediate actions during enemy contact in a convoy.
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- Drive throught the kill zone
- Return fire immediately if possible - When clear and disabled vehicles are still in the zone, stop and take immediate offensive action. |
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Discuss challenge and password.
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- Two secret words used to determine friend or foe.
- Form of authentication by repeating back a password after a challenge. |
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Describe the procedures to establish a LZ.
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Daylight Landing - A level area approx 100 ft larger than the diameter of aircraft rotor blades.
Night Landing - A level area approx 150 ft larger than the diameter of aircraft rotor blades. |
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Discuss the purpose of combat hand signals and arm signals in the field.
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Used in conditions where oral communication is not practical.
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What are the types of security zones?
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1. Assesment Zone
2. Intercept Zone 3. React Zone |
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Describe the following security zone:
Assesment Zone |
Security boats passively observe craft in the assessment zone and indentify any inbound contacts.
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Describe the following security zone:
Intercept Zone |
In the warning zone, acces by unauthorized craft is challenged. Security boats actively interact with unknown craft for classification as either a threat or non-threat, to determine hostile intent.
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Describe the following security zone:
React Zone |
The threat zone is the innermost layer around the HVA. No hostile craft should be permitted to enter this zone.
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Discuss the different types of waterways.
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1. Western Rivers - means the Mississippi River, its tributaries, South Pass and Southwest Pass
2. Great Lakes - means the Great Lakes and their connecting tributary waters, the Chicago River 3. Inland Waters - means the navigable waters of the United States |
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Discuss the sections of a patrol brief.
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The COG (Chief of the Guard) or designated supervisor, conducts the briefs and inspection. Standard brief should include:
- Intel Update - Previous watch events - Current FPCON Levels - Chain of Command - Communication procedures - Location of resources, medical and host nation friendly forces. - Weapon issue/return |
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Discuss the following reports/documents:
SORTS (Acronym) |
Status Report (SORTS) - is the principle status reporting system to report identification and general data within the U.S. Navy.
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Discuss the following reports/documents:
CASREP (Acronym) |
Casualty Report (CASREP) - has been designed to support the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and fleet commanders in the management of assigned forces.When casualties are reported, operational commanders and support personnel are made aware of significant equipment malfunctions that may degrade a unit’s readiness. The CASREP also identifies the unit’s need for technical assistance or replacement parts to correct the casualty.
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Discuss the High Seas AT/FP Program.
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The AT/FP plan produced at the conclusion of the planning process should provide an integrated, comprehensive approach to deter, detect, defend against and mitigate terrorist threats.
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Discuss waterborne threats.
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- Small Boats
- Deep Draft Boats - Subsurface (swimmer/mines) |
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Discuss the following security boat term:
Procedure |
ATFP operations are to be clearly delineated in concise standard operating
procedures, preplanned responses and tactics. |
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Discuss the following security boat term:
Blocking and Shouldering |
Maneuvering own vessel in contact with another vessel to turn away.
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Acronym.
SCOFF |
Seaward Continuum of Force
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Discuss waterborne warning procudures.
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Escalation of Force or Seaward Continuum of Force (SCOFF) consists of 4 levels.
1. Advisory Basic - Blue Lights, sirens, horn, waving of hands, hail on VHF radio, spotlight at nigh, Weapons ready (positive control). 2. Advanced Avisory - Shoot flare, more agressive hail, herding of contact of interest, Surface Action (condition one weapon). 3. Warning shorts from Crew Serve weapons across bow of contact. 4. Open Fire (Disabling or Destructive Fire) |
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Discuss Tactical use of waterside small arms.
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Shoot to stop forward motion. When engaging a hostile craft, fire should be direted at the engines, not the coxswain. A bot's forward motion can continue even if no one is at the helm, but a boat with disabled engines will stop quickly.
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Discuss waterborne defense in depth.
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Waterbourne defense around an HVA is established by creating an Assessmen, Warning and Threat Zones. Commanders should create zones large enought to determine hostile intent and, if necessary, engage a small boat threat as far away as possible from the HVA. Ideally, zones that are 500 meters in width allow for effectve small boat engagement and prevention of standoff attacks from RPG's, improvised explosive decives (IED's) or other known threats.
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Discuss use of concussion grenades verses swimmers.
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The MK 3A2 Concussion Grenade - Internal injuries from an MK 3A2 concussion grenade force the swimmer to surface, thereby neutralizing a potential threat and permitting apprehension by security personnel.
Kill Range - 5 ft Stun Range - 25 - 30 ft Ear injuries occur - 150 ft |
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Discuss waterborne warning shots.
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Warning shorts are a means of communication and provide an additional tool to determine hostile intent.
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Discuss waterborne warning shots procedures.
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Only appropriate when:
1. An unauthorized vessel has entered a naval vessel protective zone and continues to approach a Navy or naval service vessel. 2. An unauthorized vessel approaches at a high rate of speed. 3. Other means within the Escalation of Force, VHF radio calls, loudhailers, flares, have failed *** Use of deadly force to protect ship and its crew against a small boat attack is not contingent on firing a warning shot first. |
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Discuss pre-planned responses for the following waterborne threat:
SURFACE |
1. Show a waterborne presence.
2. Detect and report contact. 3. Intercept contact approaching the warning zone. 4. Assume a blocking position between the contact and the HVA. 5. Conduct Escalation of Force (SCOF Levels). 6. Classify contact as unknown. friendly, or hostile. |
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Discuss pre-planned responses for the following waterborne threat:
SUBSURFACE (Swimmer Attack) |
1. Determine weapons/measures to be used against subsurface threat.
2. Identify floating debris. 3. Lookout for air bubbles, snorkels, or piles of floating debris (to conceal a swimmer). 4. Turn screws, maintain sea suction and shift rudders. 5. Activate sonar 6. Rig shark nets 7. Deploy underwater lights 8. Use draglines |
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Discuss 3 zones that add structure to defense in depth and factors that effect zone size/location.
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1. Assessment zone (2,000yds or 1 NM) - The outermost defese zone, assessment of all contacts is made in this zone.
2. Warning/Intercep zone (1,000 yds) - Security forces must classify contacts in the warning zone, and warn all unknown/hostile contacts in the warning zone. 3. Threat/React zone (500 yds) - The threat zone is the innermost layer of defense in depth, no hostile contacts should be allowed in the threat zone. ** Zone size and location are dependent upon, host nation restriction, geography, threat areas, capabilities of US forces, and proximity of targets. |
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Discuss Security Boat Tactics.
- General - Single-Boat Defense - Multiple-Boat Defense |
The principle tast of securtiy forces, with respect to waterborne vessels, is to determine hostile intent as far from the HVA as possible.
Single- The security boat should maintain static position; close to the HVA. The boat's tast is to assess all craft near the HVA and only react to vessels that are deemed potential threats. Multi - When two or more security boats are on patrol, sectors must be assigned. Boats will randomly patrol near the outer edge of the warning zone sectors and assess all vessels in their vicinity. |
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Discuss the following term in relation to waterway operations:
Selection of Landing Areas/Sites |
1. Scheme of maneuver
2. Enemy situation 3. Hydrography 4. Obstacles 5. Terrain/river bank |
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Discuss the following term in relation to waterway operations:
Selection of waterway routes |
1. Hydrography
2. Enemy capabilities 3. Capabilities to support primary and alternate plans 4. Terrain/bank characteristics |
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Discuss the following term in relation to waterway operations:
Selection of base sites |
1. Choose area which can be defended without jeopardizing offensive capabilities.
2. Provide moorin for ships to accommodate forces ashore. 3. Within operational/communication range of the MRF 4. Potential for deployment of combat service support area. |
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Discuss the following reverine operations:
Assault |
Assault. These operations employ maritime, ground,
air, and/or SOF (special operations forces) to achieve one or more of the following objectives: (1) Establish control of waterways in a geographic area. (2) Establish control of land areas, population, and resources. (3) Locate and destroy hostile forces, enemy installations, and enemy supplies. (4) Establish and secure an area for a combat support base. |
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Discuss the following reverine operations:
Waterway interdiction, surveillance, barrier and security. |
Waterway interdiction, surveillance, barrier, and
security operations can be conducted to gain control of waterways preparatory to subsequent riverine assault operations, or they may be conducted by maritime or air components alone.. ** Waterway interdiction and surveillance and security operations serve five basic purposes: (1) Protect friendly LOCs (lines of communication). (2) Deny hostile forces the use of waterways. (3) Collect intelligence information. (4) Perform security missions. (5) Enforce population and resource control. |
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Discuss the following reverine operations:
Special Operations |
Operations conducted by specially
trained, equipped, and organized DOD forces against strategic or tactical targets in pursuit of national military, political, economic, or psychological objectives. These operations may be conducted during periods of peace or hostilities. |
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Acronym:
MIO |
Maritime Interception Operations
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Discuss maritime interception operations.
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Historically its a peacetime mesure designed to enforce embargoes sanctioned by UNSC (united nations security council), national authority, or other regional organization.
The line between peacetime and MIO during international armed conflict can become blurred. |
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Discuss NCW operations.
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Littoral Surveillance Support Operations - massing U.S. and allied forces and moving them ashore to deter any poss threat. Also, using a wide array of sensors to monitor air, surface, and subsurface areas of interest to the United States.
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What two threat orientations are NCW forces suited to address simultaneously?
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- Harbor Defense (HD)
- Port Security (PS) HD/PS collectively |
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Discuss Host Nation and U.S. Interagency Support.
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Host-Nation Support - is highly situational and heavily dependent on the operational capabilities of the host nation and its political acceptance of US policies. The type and ammount of support depends on the agreements of both nations.
Planning Factors: 1. HN international agreements and treaties 2. cabability, dependability, and willingness of the HN to provide and sustain resources. 3. shortfalls in NCW forces supplemented by HN 4. Implications of HNS on the political structure both within the host nation and the region. 5. Effects on security, OPSEC |
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Discuss the mission and role of Coast Guard Captain of the Port and Marine Safety Office (MSO).
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Captain of the Port (COTP) - has the statutory authority within their respective areas for port safety, security and marine environmental protection regulations, including without limitation, regulations for the protection and security of vessels, harbors and waterfron facilities, anchorages, security zones, safety zones, regulated navigation areas, deepwaer ports, water pollution and ports and waterways safety.
Marine Safety Office (MSO) - ensures the safety, security, and environmental protection of CONUS ports and surrounding areas. |
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Explain the following:
Chemical Warfare |
Chemical Warfare (CW) - 2 Categories
1. Chemical Agents - Chemicals intended for military operation to kill, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel. Chemical Compounds - are less toxic and include tear and vomiting gases that cause temporary disability. |
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Explain the following:
Biological Warfare |
Biological Warfare (BW) - is the use of biological agents (pathogens or toxins) as a weapon.
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Explain the following:
Radiological Effects |
Radiological Effects - is when radiation (Nuclear Bomb) is used as a weapon.
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Explain the following:
Routes by which agents enter the body. |
Absorbtion
Inhalation Digestion |
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Describe the purpose of the following:
MCU-2/P |
Protective Mask (MCU-2/P) - Provides protection against tactical concentrations of chemical biological agents, toxings and radiological fallout particles.
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Describe the purpose of the following:
Chemical Protective Overgarment |
Chemical Protective Overgarment - A chemical protective over garment made of a Nylon-Cotton that is treated to repel water and oil and an inner liner containing activated carbon.
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Describe the purpose of the following:
Wet-weather clothing |
Wet-weather clothing consists of a parka and overalls. The system is designed to protect against all liquid chemical warfare agents in a cold and/or wet climate both ashore and aboard ship.
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Describe the purpose of the following:
1. Atropine 2. Pralidoxime Chloride (Oxime) |
Atropine - drug that blocks action of acetylcholine (chemical compound formed from acid and alcohol which cause muscles to contract and increases pulse rate and cardiac output.
2. Pralidoxime Chloride (Oxime) - 2 PAM Chloride - reactivates acetyl cholinesterase (enzyme which stops (inactivates) the action of acetylcholine) that are inhibited by nerve agents. |
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Describe the purpose of the following:
Pocket dosimeter |
The IM series dosimeters are self-reading pocket radiaometers which measure and indicate the accumulated dose of X-ray and gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed.
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Explain the 3 types of chemical warfare agents and their physical symptoms.
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Casualty Agents - are highly poisonous and are intended to kill or seriously injure. Included in this group - nerve, blister, choking and blood agents.
Non-lethal Incapacitating Agent - incapacitates personnel of performing their duties by interfering with the mental process that control bodily functions. Reactions vary. Harassing Agents - include tear and vomiting gases that cause temporary disability. Effects disappear in 5-10 min after the person dons a protective mask or gets fresh air. |
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Acronym NAAK.
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Nerve Agent Antidote Kit, MARK I
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What does the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) contain?
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-Mark 1 kit consists of: 3 atropine auto injectors, 3 2PAM Cl auto injectors, plastic clip, and foam carrying case.
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Describe the following types of nuclear explosions:
Air Burst |
Immediately after a nuclear explosion, a huge, intensely hot fireball is formed. 100,000 feet; mess up comms, weather; air blast, thermal radiation and initial radiation.
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Describe the following types of nuclear explosions:
Surface Burst |
Produces the worst fallout. The fireball touches the ground. Air blast, thermal radiation, initial radiation, thransit radiation.
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Describe the following types of nuclear explosions:
Underwater Burst |
A fireball is formed, but is smaller than an airburst and normally is not visible. Underwater shock and transit radiation.
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Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions:
Blast |
Extremely high temperature and pressure generated by a nuclear burst immediately converts all material in the firebal into hot compressed gases. The gases expand rapidly in all directions, creating a shock wave in the surrounding areas.
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Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions:
Burns |
Burns (Thermal Radiation) - Thermal energy is actually a form of electromagnetic radiation which travels at the speed of light and temperature reaches tens of millions of degrees. As the weapon yield is increased, the range at which thermal radiation can cause skin burns and eye injuries to exposed personnel increases.
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Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions:
Nuclear Radiation |
4 types of Nuclear Radiation released from a Nuclear explosion:
1. Alpha Particles - They travel only a few centimeters in air before they are stopped. Cannot penetrate a sheet of paper. 2. Beta Particles - They can travel several feet in air, bu they cannot penetrate a sheet of aluminum. 3. Gamma Rays - They are a form of electromagnetic radiation, indistinguishable from X rays. |
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Describe the following effects of nuclear explosions:
Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) phenomenon |
An Electromagnetic Pulse (EMP) phenomenon will be produced by high-altitude bursts, airbursts and surface bursts. The initial nuclear ionizing radiation ionizes the atmosphere around the point of detonation. This action produces an EMP, which will contain frequency components in the range from a few to several hundred kilocycles per second.
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Define Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP).
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Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP) - is a management tool, which coordinates individual and collective protection activities and shipboard systems into effective countermeasures against CBR threats.
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What is MOPP Level II?
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POSSIBLE - Overgarment (Worn, open or closed based on temp); overboots (worn), mask with hood (carried), gloves (carried).
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What is MOPP Level IV?
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IMMINENT - Overgarment (worn, closed), overboots (worn), mask with hood (worn, hood closed), gloves (worn)
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What is MOPP Level I?
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SUSPECTED - Overgarment (worn, open or closed based on temp), overboots (carried), mask with hood (carried), gloves (carried).
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What is MOPP Level III?
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PROBABLE - Overgarment (Worn, open or closed based on temp); overboots (worn); mask with hood (worn, hood open or closed based on temp); gloves (carried).
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Describe the correct procedures for inspecting, maintaining, and donning the chemical protective ensemble.
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1. Inspect - Packaging, exp date, wear and tear
2. Maintain - Keep dry, Store in bag when not worn, 3. Donning - 1. Don the trousers and tighten the waist by using the hook and pile fasteners.2. Bring the straps over your shoulders and cross them across your chest. Insert straps into the belt loops and secure them snugly.3. Don the smock.4. Secure bottom of smock with hook and pile fasteners. Donning the overboots. 1. Attach the laces to the toe loop, making sure that the laces are centered. 2. Put a lace through each of the holes on the sides of the boot and pull them up snug. 3. Cross the laces over the instep. 4. Put one lace through each of the holes at the heal, inserting them from inside to outside and pulling the laces snug. 5. Again cross the laces ver the instep. 6. Thread the laces through the holes on the side again from inside to outside 7. Cross the laces over the instep one more time and pull them snug 8. Wrap the laces behind the ankle and back to the front. Tie the laces securely. |
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Describe the correct procedures for inspecting, maintaining, and donning the chemical protective ensemble.
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1. Inspect - Packaging, exp date, wear and tear
2. Maintain - Keep dry, Store in bag when not worn, 3. Donning - 1. Don the trousers and tighten the waist by using the hook and pile fasteners.2. Bring the straps over your shoulders and cross them across your chest. Insert straps into the belt loops and secure them snugly.3. Don the smock.4. Secure bottom of smock with hook and pile fasteners. Donning the overboots. 1. Attach the laces to the toe loop, making sure that the laces are centered. 2. Put a lace through each of the holes on the sides of the boot and pull them up snug. 3. Cross the laces over the instep. 4. Put one lace through each of the holes at the heal, inserting them from inside to outside and pulling the laces snug. 5. Again cross the laces ver the instep. 6. Thread the laces through the holes on the side again from inside to outside 7. Cross the laces over the instep one more time and pull them snug 8. Wrap the laces behind the ankle and back to the front. Tie the laces securely. |
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Describe the colors and markings on this North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) marker sign:
Chemical |
Yellow w/ red; GAS (marking)
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Describe the colors and markings on this North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) marker sign:
Radiological |
White with black; ATOM (marking)
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Describe the colors and markings on this North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) marker sign:
Biological |
Blue w/ red; BIO (marking)
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Describe the color that the M-9 paper turns after it comes in contact with a liquid nerve or blister agent.
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Various shades of red
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Describe the color that the M-8 paper turns after it comes in contact with a liquid nerve or blister agent.
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Yellow-gold=G (nerve) agent
Red-pink=H (blister) agent Dark green=V (nerve agent |
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Explain the following as it applies to nerve agents.
Symptoms |
Mild - Unexplained runny nose, sudden headache, drooling.
Severe - Strange and confused behavior, vomiting, red eyes with tearing, convulsions |
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Explain the following as it applies to nerve agents.
Contents of Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) MK 1 |
Mark 1 kit consists of:
- 3 atropine auto injectors - 3 2PAM Cl auto injectors, plastic clip, and foam carrying case. |
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Explain the following as it applies to nerve agents.
Treatment (self and buddy aid) |
Mild Symptoms - One Mark 1 NAAK, move to med room and wait 5 min
Severe symptoms - Three Mark 1 NAAK, move to med room |
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Describe the steps and procedures in utilizing the M-295 and M-291.
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Used to decontaminate exposed skin in a chemical environment.
Steps: 1. Tear open a packet at the tear line, remove pad and unfold. 2. For the M-291 place two fingers inside the strap with the pad on the inside of the hand. For the M-295 place your hand inside with the pad on the inside of the hand. 3. Thoroughly scrub the contaminated aread until it is covered with the black powder and repeat as required. |
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State how long the Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) suit will provide protection from chemical agents once they are removed from the packaging under the following conditions:
Exposed to chemical agents |
Exposure - Shelf life 24 hrs
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State how long the Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology (JSLIST) suit will provide protection from chemical agents once they are removed from the packaging under the following conditions:
Not exposed to chemical agents |
No Exposure (opened) - Shelf life 45 days, 6 washings max
No exposure (sealed) - Shelf life 5 yrs |
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Discuss laundering procedures for the JSLIST.
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Washings (uncontaminated) - up to six washings; only on uncontaminated garments. Only with marked laundry bag.
No chlorine beach, low temperatures. (110-120 F) |
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Discuss the following types of decontamination.
Immediate |
To minimize casualties, save lives, and limit the spread of contamination.
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Discuss the following types of decontamination.
Operational |
To sustain operations, reduce the contact hazard and limit the spread of decontamination.
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Discuss the following types of decontamination.
Thorough |
To reduce or eliminate the need for individual protective clothing. Carried out to reduce contamination on personnl, equipment/material or working areas.
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Discuss the procedure for setting up a personnel decontamination line.
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The DTD is set up in a secure, uncontaminated area located as far forward as the tactical situation permits. Personnel from both the decontamination and the supported unit operate the DTD under the supervision of the Chemical, Biological, and Radiological Defense Officer or the Disaster Preparedness Operations and Training Specialist. Removing contaminated MOPP gear, including the Protective mask, is the major action in Detailed Troop Decontamination (DTD).
The contaminated unit is responsible for setting up, Operating, and closing the DTD in a thorough decon site. The CBR Officer recommends to the COC the general location of the DTD within the decon site. |
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Discuss the procedure for setting up a detailed equipment decontamination line.
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The site shall be established and posted in a secluded area away from the main portion of the camp where runoff water will not flow into the camp, or onto equipment.
Consider When Selecting: 1. Adequate water supply w/ hose (min 50 gal treated w/ 4 ounces of bleach per gallon of water). 2. Protection from downwind vapor hazards and proper waste disposal. 3. Tactical protection for personnel conducting decontamination. |
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State the purpose and the optimum location of the M-22 chemical alarm.
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Chemical Warfare Directional Detector (CWDD) - is a passive infrared imaging sensor tha provides U.S. Navy with the capability for detection of "G" and "V" series chemical nerve agent attack.
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Discuss the following as it relates to CBR.
Pre-attack actions |
Before attack, the commander should designate a level of Mission Oriented protective Posture (MOPP) for the unit.
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Discuss the following as it relates to CBR.
Attack |
Stop breathing, don protective mask, give the alarm, continue the mission and wait for further orders, and when the situation permits, assist others who need help.
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Discuss the following as it relates to CBR.
After-attack |
Whether it comes in the form of a vapor, aerosol spray, or a liquid agent, remain in protective gear and continue the mission. When the time and the mission permit, give first aid to casualties in the immediate vicinity and report findings.
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Explain and discuss the following dosimetry equipment.
DT-60/PD |
Radiac Detector Dosimeter is used in conjunction with the CP-95/PD for the detection of X-Ray and/or gamma radiation.
* 7 digit serial number used for tracking that individual dosimeter in a nuclear or radiological recovery environment. |
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Explain and discuss the following dosimetry equipment.
IM 143/PD |
Dosimeters are self-reading pocket radiacmeters which measure and indicate the accumulated dose of X-ray and gamma radiation to which the wearer has been exposed.
* high range, self reading, size and shape of a ball point pen, callibrated every 24 months |
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Explain and discuss the following dosimetry equipment.
CP-95A/PD |
Is portable equipment designed for computing and indicating the total amount of x-ray and gamma radiation.
*normally set up at the clean side of decontamination station, readings are recorded in a medical transcript log, |
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Discuss electrical and electronic safety and tag-out precautions.
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When necessary for electrical safety, it is permissible to post tags on electrical panel covers.
However, tags should be posted directly on circuit breakers and switches whenever possible. |
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Discuss the 4 principles of ORM.
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- Accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost.
- Accept no unnecessary risk - Anticipate risk by planning - Make risk decisions at the right level. |
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Discuss safety and occupational health training requirements.
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The program w i l l work with the
training communi ty t o i d e n t i f y the training requirements for assessed manpower needs and e s t a b l i s h e d u s e r population. Training shall support safe and efficient mission accomplishment. |
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Discuss safety precautions when working with ordnance.
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Fly the BRAVO flag, set HERO condition, secure smoking lamp. N8 (or J8) is office code for ordnance.
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State the various types of Civil Engineer Support Equipment (CESE) found in Mobile Inshore Undersea Warfare Unit Table of Allowance (TOA).
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The TOA identifies and quantifies the basic personnel, material, and
equipment for the performance of the unit's mission(s) in contingency, wartime, and disaster recovery operations. The TOA is designed to sustain construction operations for 60 days without resupply, except that ammunition is limited to 15 days, subsistence rations are limited to five days, and fuel limit is three days. |
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Define the following term.
MHE |
MHE-Material Handling Equipment (ex. Forklift)
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Define the following term.
WHE |
WHE-Weight Handling Equipment (ex. Crane)
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Explain the procedures in filling out and submitting an operator's inspection guide, trouble report (hard card), and vehicle trip ticket.
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1. Pre-start and post-op inspection consists of performing the services listed on the pertinent MRC (maintenance requirement card) and annotating discrepancies on the Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, NAVFAC Form 9-11240/13.
2. NAVFAC Form 9-11240/13 "Hard Card", or computer-generated form: fuel, oil water, battery levels, tires, hydraulic fluid, lights, lug nuts, safety devices, belts, interior/exterior damage. |
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Explain the difference between organic and augment CESE and how they are identified.
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Organic - equipment on our TOA (red).
Augment - borrowed or lease equipment to support mission (white). |
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State the purpose of a Standard Form 91 Mishap report.
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Establish policy, responsibility and procedures for the reporting of accidents which result from operation of Unit CESE.
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Acronym BEEP.
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Battalion Equipment Evaluation Program
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State the purpose of the Battalion Equipment Evaluation Program (BEEP).
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1. To pass all special knowledge of CESE maintenance operations techniques.
2. To provide the relieving battalion with a realistic and depth condition evaluation of CESE allowance, facilities, tools, and materials 3. To use the full expertise and efforts of the two equipment forces to provide accurate turnover to conduct a successful deployment. |
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Discuss the purpose of the following publications and instructions:
P-300 |
NAVFAC P-300 - to assist management at all levels in properly discharging their responsibilities in the efficient management of the transportation program.
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Discuss the purpose of the following publications and instructions:
COMFIRSTNCDINST 11200 |
COMFIRSTNCDINST 11200 - The goal of the equipment management program is to realize maximum available operating hours throughout the life expectancy of each piece of USN-numbered equipment.
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Discuss the purpose of the following publications and instructions:
P-307 |
NAVFAC P-307 - Management of Weight Handling Equipment Ensure the equipment is safe to operate, operations are conducted efficiently and ensure optimum equipment service life. Meets or exceeds all OSHA requirements for maintenance, inspection, test, certification, repair, alteration, operation and/or use of weight handling equipment.
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
Equipment Officer |
The Equipment Officer is appointed by the
Commanding Officer and is personally responsible for the proper use and maintenance of all CESE assigned to the unit and ensures that all equipment is under a dispatching authority and is properly controlled. |
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
Operation Supervisor |
The Operations Supervisor supervises all
personnel who operate equipment and enforces the policies of the Equipment Officer. |
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
Dispatcher |
The Dispatcher's primary duty is to
manage the equipment resources of the unit efficiently. Duties include to receive and evaluate requests for vehicles and then dispatch suitable equipment from authorized resources. |
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
Equipment Yard Supervisor |
The Equipment Yard Supervisor manages the equipment yard and the vehicles parked in it, and establish and enforce
traffic control through the yard, such as stop signs, speed limits, and one-way traffic flow. The Yard Boss is in charge of yard maintenance and establishes parking lines and areas such as ready line and awaiting-entry-into-shop line; and ensures that all operator maintenance procedures are performed correctly to reduce vehicle misuse. |
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
License Examiner |
The License Examiner plans and administers a
Unit's licensing program and supervises the unit's operator training program. |
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Explain the duties and responsibilities of the following:
Operator |
Every person who drives or operates any item of equipment is
called an operator. All military operators who use government-owned or rented equipment must be examined and licensed in accordance with this chapter. Operators are responsible for the use of CESE for authorized official business only, and must comply with all traffic laws, ordinances, and regulations. |
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State the purposes and uses of the following licenses.
OF/346 |
U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator's Identification Card
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State the purposes and uses of the following licenses.
11260/2 |
Construction Equipment and Weight Handling Equipment Operator License
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State the basic responsibilities of the following:
RSSC Watch Officer |
1. Direction of the RSSC (Radar Sonar Surveillance Center) Watch to ensure that timely, accurate, and concise reports are made to the SSO/HDC and Commanding Officer.
2. Adherence to the procedures established by this instruction for all watch standers. 3. Ensuring the proper use of the RSSC displays and the maintenance of the logs. 4. The receipt, custody, and transfer of COMTAC/COMSEC publications and materials for the conduct of the watch. 5. Also called SSWO. |
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State the basic responsibilities of the following:
Seaward Security Officer |
Seaward Security Officer - The command excercising tactical control of an inshore boat unit (IBU) task element will have formal command over the IBU assets.
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State the basic responsibilities of the following:
Patrol Leader |
(Inshore Boat Unit Coxswains) = Patrol Leader
1. Responsible for directing all of the boats in a specific boat detachment to accomplish the tasking from the SSO Watch Officer. 2. Will have TACON (tactical control) over all maneuvers and fire direction at all times when in visual or radar contact. 3. Will have the responsibility for safe operation of all boats in the detachment, and also responsible for obtaining briefs on ROE from the SSO and will ensure his boat crews are familiar with them before getting under way. |
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State the basic responsibilities of the following:
Chief of the Guard (COG) |
1. Conducting guard mount and overseeing proper watch turnover.
2. Roving around the pier, ensuring watchstanders are alert, informed, and properly equipped. 3. Directing the employment of watchstanders and reaction forces in the event of an incident. 4. Executing the orders of the Commander. 5. Sells soda and candy bars to the troops. |
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Discuss the Missions for the following:
Port Security |
The safeguarding of vessels, harbors, ports, waterfront facilities, and cargo from internal threats such as destruction, loss, or injury from sabotage or other subversive acts; accidents; thefts; or other causes of similar nature.
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Discuss the Missions for the following:
Harbor Defense |
The defense of a harbor or anchorage and its water approaches against external threats such as: Submarine, submarine-borne, or small surface craft attack; enemy minelaying operations; sabotage
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Discuss the Protection of High Value Assests (HVA) as it applies to harbor defense.
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The defense of an HVA within the harbor or anchorage against external threats such as; submarine, enemy minelaying operations, and sabotage...
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Define Hostile contact of interest (COI) identification.
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Depends on rules of engagement and local operational environment.
- Visibly frantic behavior by the COI crew. - Visible weapons or the obvious preparation of shielded positions on deck - Target acquisition radars locking onto patrol craft. - Cargo being thrown over the side. - Lines being lowered into the water. |
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Explain the following:
Threat Zone |
The HVA is located within the innermost ring of security called the "threat zone." No potentially hostile threat is allowed to approach the HVA inside this minimum distance.
***Threat Zone is 1,000 yds radius from the HVA. |
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Explain the following:
Warning Zone |
The "warning zone" is established to increase the time to react to a threat. The warning zone is a ring around the threat zone and the HVA in which access is controlled.
The warning zone is typically divided into two or more sectors based on the number of available boats. ***Warning Zone is 1,000 yds out from the Threat Zone. |
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Explain the following:
Assessment Zone |
The outermost zone is the "assessment zone" and it is where surveillance systems monitor activities from the warning zone and beyond.
The outer limit of the assessment zone should extend well beyond the estimated range of enemy waterborne weapons. |
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Discuss the following as it pertains to use of force:
Rules of Engagement |
Set of rules that determine when, where, and how force shall be used.
ROE are applicable during all military operations, contingencies, and terrorist attacks occurring outside the territorial jurisdiction of the United States. ROE are promulgated through the chain of command and apply to all subordinate commands. The TACON (tactical control) authority, patrol leaders, boat coxswains, and boat crewmembers must know and understand the ROE in force at all times. |
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Discuss the following as it pertains to use of force:
Rules on Use of Force |
Rules on Use of Force (RUF) - Similar to ROE and deadly force. Applies to all DOD military and civilian personnel performing LE and security duties.
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Discuss situational awareness of fields of fire for crew served fixed fighting positions.
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IAW the defensive fireplan, the gunners coordinate their fire with each other and other boats' fields of fire to maximize the firepower directed at the enemy.
All gunners must be aware of their assigned field of fire at all times, and the Field of Fire assignments must be briefed during the patrol order. Coxswains should plan firing positions in advance with consideration given for likely avenues of approach. |
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State the locations of all MIUWU active and reserve.
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Per NWP 3-10 (Nov 2003) - There were 22 RESERVE MIUWU's at locations througout the United States.
There are two ACTIVE MIUWU's in the US. MIUWU 401 located in Norfolk, VA; MIUWU 501 located in San Diego, CA. |
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Discuss the three security threat levels.
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Level I - Enemy agents, saboteurs, terrorists, unorganized guerilla forces, and special operations units of platoon size or smaller (>30)
Level II - Large enemy presence capable of unconventional warfare with forces of up to company strength (100-150 personnel) Level III - Conventional combat forces of greater than company strength. |
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Define ECP and discuss its importance to campsite security.
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The ECP (entry control point), as the point of first contact with security forces for those seeking access, is the most critical part in the installation's defense.
ECP's include access points to installations, piers, flightlines, and other restricted areas. |
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Explain the following pertaining to the Entry Control Point (ECP):
Threat Zone |
Threat Zone - The area past the post-ECP standoff zone to the protected asset or area is the threat zone. No authorized personnel should be allowed in this area. All watchstanders understand use of force is authorized in this zone.
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Explain the following pertaining to the Entry Control Point (ECP):
Warning Zone |
The warning zone at an ECP is a physically separated area closer to the critical asset than the assessment zone where unknown and unathorized personnel are inspected and identified. In this zone, ID's and access list checked and purpose visit confirmed.
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Explain the following pertaining to the Entry Control Point (ECP):
Assessment Zone |
The assessment zone around an ECP includes the visual range of the base gate guard, pier watch, or Quarderdeck watch. It is within the assessment zone that active and passive security measures are employed to identify, detect, classify, and assess possible threats.
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Identify and discuss the four Terrorist threat levels.
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1. Low - No terrorist group is detected or the group activity is non-threatening.
2. Moderate - Terrorist groups are present but there is no indication of anti-U.S. activity. The operating environment favors the host nation/US. 3. Significat - An anti-US terrorist group is operationally active and their preferred method of operation is to attack personnel; or the terrorist group's preffered method of operation is to execute large casualty producing attacks but has limited operational activity. Operating environment is neutral. 4. High - An anti-US terrorist group is operationally active and uses large casualty producing attacks as their preferred method of operation. There is a substantial DOD presence and the operating environment favors the terrorist. |
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List the five Force Protection Conditions (FPCON).
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- FPCON NORMAL
- FPCON ALPHA - FPCON BRAVO - FPCON CHARLIE - FPCON DELTA |
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Describe the following Force Protection Condition (FPCON):
ALPHA |
Applies when there is an increased general threat of possible terrorist activity against personnel or facilities. Unpredictable. Must be capable of being maintained indefinitely.
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Describe the following Force Protection Condition (FPCON):
CHARLIE |
Applies when an incident occurs or intelligence is received indicating some form of terrorist action or targeting against personnel or facilities is likely. Prolonged implementation may create hardship and affect unit and personnel.
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Describe the following Force Protection Condition (FPCON):
BRAVO |
Applies when an increased or more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists. Prolonged periods may affect operational capability and relations with local authorities.
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Describe the following Force Protection Condition (FPCON):
NORMAL |
Applies when a general global threat of possible terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture.
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Describe the following Force Protection Condition (FPCON):
DELTA |
Applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence is received that terrorist action against a specific location or person is imminent. Normally declared as a localized condition. Not intended for long periods.
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