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325 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The use of low-grade or an air/ fuel mixture which is too lean may cause
Pre-ignition Detonation Engine knock |
Detonation
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Where is the Sprague Clutch located on the R-22 Beta II?
In the center of the Upper Bearing In the center of the Upper Sheave In the center of the Main Rotor Gear Box |
In the center of the Upper Sheave
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What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
Maneuvering speed. Turbulent or rough-air speed. Never-exceed speed. |
Never-exceed speed.
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If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
70-foot increase in indicated altitude. 70-foot increase in density altitude. 700-foot increase in indicated altitude. |
700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
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What are the minimum and maximum oil levels in quarts for the R-22 Beta II?
4 Min. / 6 Max. 3 Min. / 7 Max 6 Min. / 6 Max |
4 Min. / 6 Max
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What is the voltage and amperage of the battery in an R-22 Beta II?
14 volts, 25 amps 12 volts, 25 amps 14 volts, 60 amps |
12 volts, 25 amps
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Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
Presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass. Difference in the location between true north and magnetic north. Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force. |
Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
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What kind of circuit breakers are in the R-22 Beta II?
Twist to reset Pull to reset Push to reset |
Push to reset
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What is the purpose of the cyclic?
The function of the cyclic is to tilt the main rotor disc in the direction of desired horizontal flight. To cycle the tail rotor in the direction of desired yaw To gain or lose altitude |
The function of the cyclic is to tilt the main rotor disc in the direction of desired horizontal flight.
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What is the purpose of the clutch?
To disengage the heavy main rotor from the engine so that during startup there is less strain on the starter motor. To allow for smoother gear changes in the main rotor transmission. To disengage the main and tail rotors from the engine for autorotation purposes. |
To disengage the heavy main rotor from the engine so that during startup there is less strain on the starter motor.
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What type of tail rotor system does the R-22 have?
Fully Articulated Rigid Semi-Rigid |
Semi-Rigid
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During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight. As long as the airspeed is constant. During turns if the bank does not exceed 18° |
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
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What is the diameter of the R22 main rotor?
22 ft 5 in 25 ft 2 in 25.2 ft |
25.2 ft
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What is the time before overhaul limit for the R-22?
2300 hours 2100 hours 2200 hours |
2200 hours
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What is the RPM of the engine in an R-22 @104%
2652 2562 2552 |
2652
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Where is the green navigation light located on the R-22?
On the end of the tail boom facing backwards Below the passenger door (left side) Below the pilots door (right side) |
Below the pilots door (right side)
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What is the type of fuel approved for the R-22?
100 octane automotive fuel 100LL aviation fuel 80/ 87 aviation fuel |
100LL aviation fuel
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What are the useable fuel capacities for the R-22 main and aux tanks?
19.2 and 10.5 US gallons 19.8 and 10.9 US gallons 19.5 and 10.2 US gallons |
19.2 and 10.5 US gallons
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What is the lower red line of the rotor tachometer?
101% 70% 90% |
90%
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What type of airfoil are the blades on the R-22?
Asymmetrical Symmetrical Bisymmetrical |
Symmetrical
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Thrust can be best defined as
Downward force due to the pull of gravity The force that propels the helicopter through the air Upward force created by the Airfoils. |
The force that propels the helicopter through the air
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A low frequency vibration is associated with what source?
Engine Tail Rotor Main Rotor |
Main Rotor
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In regards to the three axes, which series of associations is correct?
Longitudinal axis = Pitch, Vertical axis = Yaw, Lateral axis = Roll Vertical axis = Pitch, Longitudinal = Yaw, Lateral = Roll Lateral = Pitch, Longitudinal = Roll, Vertical = Yaw |
Lateral = Pitch, Longitudinal = Roll, Vertical = Yaw
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What type of Tail Rotor blades are on the R-22 Beta II?
Symmetrical Asymmetrical Reverse Camber |
Asymmetrical
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As altitude increases, its density does what?
Decreases Remains constant Increases. |
Decreases
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Parasite Drag is
The sum of Form Drag and Skin Friction. A by-product of the creation of lift. The drag created by any object not producing lift. |
The drag created by any object not producing lift.
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What is the purpose of the Tail Rotor?
To control the rate of turn in forward flight. The anti-torque rotor, or tail rotor, acts to prevent the fuselage from turning by counteracting the torque from the main rotor. To keep the aircraft from rolling to the left due to the torque of the Main Rotor. |
The anti-torque rotor, or tail rotor, acts to prevent the fuselage from turning by counteracting the torque from the main rotor.
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What is sympathetic resonance?
A series of shocks causing the Main rotor to become unbalanced. The periodic and automatic pitch changes in a fully articulated rotor system. In the range of 60% - 70% main rotor rpm, the frequency of the main rotor rotation begins to interact with the frequency of the tail rotor rotation which can cause premature tail rotor driveshaft failure. |
In the range of 60% - 70% main rotor rpm, the frequency of the main rotor rotation begins to interact with the frequency of the tail rotor rotation which can cause premature tail rotor driveshaft failure.
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What is Newton’s Third Law?
Force = Mass X Acceleration For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. A body at rest will remain at rest, and a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force. |
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
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Bernoulli’s Principal states that
As the cross-sectional area of a passage decreases, the velocity of air going through that passage increases. Any surface that alters airflow (i.e. an airfoil) causes the development of lift. As the velocity of a streamlined flow of air increases, the pressure of that volume of air decreases. |
As the velocity of a streamlined flow of air increases, the pressure of that volume of air decreases.
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Ground Resonance can occur on which type of rotor system?
Rigid. Semi-Rigid Fully Articulated |
Fully Articulated
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A Semi-Rigid rotor system can
Feather. Feather and Flap Feather, Flap, Lead, & Lag |
Feather and Flap
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An Asymmetrical airfoil produces what compared to a Symmetrical airfoil?
Less lift for a given chord size. The same lift for a given chord size More lift for a given chord size |
More lift for a given chord size
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Lift can be best defined as
Downward force due to the pull of gravity. The force that propels the helicopter through the air. Upward force created by the Airfoils. |
Upward force created by the Airfoils.
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A high frequency vibration is associated with what source in the R-22?
Engine Tail Rotor Main Rotor |
Tail Rotor
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As altitude decreases, its density does what?
Decreases Remains constant Increases. |
Increases.
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As the Angle of Attack decreases, the drag on the airfoil will
Increase Decrease moderately Decrease |
Decrease
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A Fully Articulated rotor system can
Feather. Feather, Flap, Lead, & Lag Feather and Flap |
Feather, Flap, Lead, & Lag
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The angle between the chord line and the relative wind is what?
Relative Wind Angle of Attack Pitch Angle |
Angle of Attack
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The force that propels the helicopter through the air is
Thrust Lift Drag |
Thrust
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Gyroscopic Precession is best defined as
The forces produced by the rotation of the main rotor system A force applied to a spinning object at a specific point in the rotation will have maximum effect approximately 90 degrees later in the plane of the rotation The forces felt in the cyclic produced by the main rotor system. |
A force applied to a spinning object at a specific point in the rotation will have maximum effect approximately 90 degrees later in the plane of the rotation
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When operating at high forward airspeeds, retreating blade stalls are more likely to occur under which condition?
Low gross weight and low density altitude. High RPM and low density altitude. Steep turns in turbulent air. |
Steep turns in turbulent air.
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The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as
Transverse flow effect. Dissymmetry of lift. Hunting tendency. |
Dissymmetry of lift.
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Static Rollover occurs at what degree?
15 Degrees. 24 Degrees. 42 Degrees. |
42 Degrees.
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When a blade flaps up, the CG moves closer to its axis of rotation giving that blade a tendency to
Decelerate. Accelerate. Stabilize its rotational velocity. |
Accelerate.
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The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by
Retreating blade stall. The rotor RPM red line. Solidity ratio. |
Retreating blade stall.
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The purpose of the lead-lag (drag) hinge in the three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system is to compensate for
Coriolis effect. Coning. Geometric unbalance. |
Coriolis effect.
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If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?
Ground resonance when ground contact is made. A settling-with-power condition. Blade stall vibration could develop. |
A settling-with-power condition.
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What are the conditions necessary to develop Settling-with-Power?
Less than ETL, at least 20 percent engine power, and less than 300 FPM rate of decent. Less than 50 knot of airspeed, less that 20 percent engine power, and greater that 300 FPM rate of decent. Less than ETL, at least 20 percent engine power, and greater that 300 FPM rate of decent. |
Less than ETL, at least 20 percent engine power, and greater that 300 FPM rate of decent.
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The upward bending of the rotor blades resulting from the combined forces of lift and centrifugal force is known as
Coning Blade slap Blade sailing |
Coning
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During a hover, a helicopter tends to drift to the right. To compensate for this, some helicopters have the
Tail rotor tilted to the left. Tail rotor tilted to the right. Rotor mast rigged to the left side. |
Rotor mast rigged to the left side.
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What does LTE stand for?
Effective Translational Lift. Loss of Tail Rotor Effectiveness. Emergency Locator Transmitter. |
Loss of Tail Rotor Effectiveness.
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What are the requirements for a dynamic rollover?
Thrust less than weight, rolling moment, and a pivot point. Thrust greater that weight, rolling moment, and a pivot point. Thrust greater that weight, rolling moment. |
Thrust greater that weight, rolling moment, and a pivot point.
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How is Dissymmetry of Lift corrected?
Blade Flapping The Lead/Lag hinge The Coning Hinge |
Blade Flapping
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What does ETL stand for?
Loss of Tail rotor Effectiveness. Emergency Locator Transmitter. Effective Translational Lift. |
Effective Translational Lift.
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Translating Tendency can best be defined as
The tendency of the helicopter to move laterally in the direction of the tail rotor thrust. Additional lift gained by an increase in ground speed. The lack of tail rotor thrust causing the helicopter to move laterally in the direction of tail rotor thrust. |
The tendency of the helicopter to move laterally in the direction of the tail rotor thrust.
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During forward cruising flight at constant airspeed and altitude, the individual rotor blades, when compared to each other, are operating
With increased lift on the retreating blade. With a decreasing angle of attack on the advancing blade. At unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and equal lift moment. |
At unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and equal lift moment.
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At what height above ground does “In Ground Effect” hovering take place?
When hovering less than one rotor diameter above the ground. At a 25’6” skid height on the R22. When the aircraft reaches 16 to 24 KIAS. |
When hovering less than one rotor diameter above the ground.
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Compared to “In Ground Effect”, “Out of Ground Effect” hover requires
Less Power The same power More Power |
More Power
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When Translational Lift is acting on the aircraft, the angle of attack
Increases Remains constant Decreases |
Increases
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During un-accelerated forward flight
Lift = Thrust, Weight = Drag Lift = Drag, Weight = Thrust Lift = Weight, Thrust = Drag |
Lift = Weight, Thrust = Drag
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The force that pulls the helicopter to the inside of a turn is
Centrifugal force Centripetal force Turning force |
Centripetal force
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Load factor is
The difference between centrifugal force and lift. The combination of centripetal force and lift The combination of centrifugal force and weight |
The combination of centrifugal force and weight
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In a 60° bank turn the G force is
1.2 2.0 4.0 |
2.0
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If we encounter turbulence and we are flying at or near max gross weight we should
Speed up to try and minimize the time in the area with turbulence. Slow down to between 0.7 Vne and 60 KIAS but never lower than 57 KIAS. Land immediately, flight in any kind of turbulence is prohibited in the R22. |
Slow down to between 0.7 Vne and 60 KIAS but never lower than 57 KIAS.
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An autorotation is defined as
Descending flight where RPM and power comes from relative wind. Descending flight using stored kinetic energy in the rotor system. Descending flight that converts altitude into airspeed. |
Descending flight where RPM and power comes from relative wind.
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Where is the freewheeling unit located?
In the lower sheave, allowing the belts to drive the tail rotor In the upper sheave, allowing the starter to start the engine without the weight of the rotor system In the upper sheave, allowing the rotor system to disengage from the engine for autorotation. |
In the upper sheave, allowing the rotor system to disengage from the engine for autorotation.
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Maximum glide distance configuration in the R-22 is
75 KIAS and 90% RPM 53 KIAS and 90% RPM Maximum allowable RPM and 0.7 Vne |
75 KIAS and 90% RPM
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During an autorotation descent, raising the collective
Increases the pitch angle, increasing the rotor RPM. Increases the pitch angle, reducing the rotor RPM Decreases the angle of attack increasing the rotor RPM |
Increases the pitch angle, reducing the rotor RPM
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Kinetic energy in an autorotation is stored in the helicopter’s
Airspeed and Altitude Airspeed and Rotor RPM Altitude only |
Airspeed and Rotor RPM
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We are to avoid the shaded area of the Height Velocity Diagram because
The average pilot cannot perform a safe autorotation when operating at those airspeed/altitude configurations It puts us at a greater risk of getting into settling with power It puts us at a greater risk of wire strikes |
The average pilot cannot perform a safe autorotation when operating at those airspeed/altitude configurations
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The recommended takeoff profile according to the Height Velocity Diagram is
Stay at 25 ft AGL until reaching an airspeed of 45 knots, then begin climb out at 60 knots Stay below 10 ft AGL until reaching an airspeed of 60 knots for climb out Stay below 10 ft AGL until reaching an airspeed of 45 knots, then begin climb out at 60 knots |
Stay below 10 ft AGL until reaching an airspeed of 45 knots, then begin climb out at 60 knots
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Altitude in an autorotation is what?
Static energy Kinetic energy Potential energy |
Potential energy
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The combination of weight and centrifugal force is
Thrust Load Factor Lift |
Load Factor
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During an autorotational descent, forward cyclic will
Decrease rotor rpm, and increase rate of decent Increases rotor rpm and increase forward airspeed Decreases the pitch angle increasing the rotor RPM |
Decrease rotor rpm, and increase rate of decent
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At a given bank angle, an increase in airspeed will
Decrease the turning radius Increase the turning radius Decrease the load factor |
Increase the turning radius
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What is the manufacturer’s airspeed for safe operation in an autorotational descent in the R-22?
75 KIAS 60 KIAS 65 KIAS |
65 KIAS
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During an autorotational descent, a turn will make the rotor rpm
Remain constant Increase Decrease |
Increase
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The minimum rate of descent airspeed in an autorotation in the R-22 is
65 KIAS 83 KIAS 53 KIAS |
53 KIAS
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When flying at high density altitude, the same maneuvers require
More Power Less Power The Same Power |
More Power
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Critical altitude is
14,000’ DA 14,500’ DA The altitude at which full throttle produces maximum allowable power (MCP or TOP) |
The altitude at which full throttle produces maximum allowable power (MCP or TOP)
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Maximum power off rotor tachometer reading is
101% 110% 104% |
110%
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The R-22 Beta II produces
150 BHP @ 2700 RPM 160 BHP @ 2700 RPM 145 BHP @ 2700 RPM |
145 BHP @ 2700 RPM
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What is the maximum cylinder head temperature?
245°F 500°F 245°C |
500°F
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Yellow coloring for instrument markings is
Precautionary or special operating procedure range. Warning area, make necessary adjustments to bring gauge back into green. Warning area, land at the nearest airport or other facility where emergency maintenance may be performed. |
Precautionary or special operating procedure range.
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For pilots having less than 200 hours in a helicopter (50 of which is in an R22)
Flight when surface winds exceed 20 knots, including gusts, is prohibited. Flight when surface wind gust spreads exceed 15 knots is prohibited Flight in light or moderate turbulence is permitted if forward speed is reduced to between 60 KIAS and 0.7 Vne, no lower than 57KIAS. |
Flight when surface wind gust spreads exceed 15 knots is prohibited
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What equipment is required to fly in the R22?
Alternator, RPM governor, low rotor RPM warning system, and OAT gauge. Alternator, RPM governor, low RPM warning system, and two way radio capable of receiving all common aviation frequencies. RPM governor, low RPM warning system, airspeed indicator, and Mode C transponder with altitude encoding. |
Alternator, RPM governor, low rotor RPM warning system, and OAT gauge.
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Maximum Rate of climb airspeed is
60 KIAS 83 KIAS 53 KIAS |
53 KIAS
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Maximum range airspeed is
83 KIAS 53 KIAS 60 KIAS |
83 KIAS
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The lowest drag speed in the R-22 is
53 KIAS 53 KCAS 83 KIAS |
53 KIAS
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The principal reason the shaded area of a Height vs. Velocity Chart should be avoided is
Turbulence near the surface can diphase the blade dampers. Rotor RPM may decay before ground contact is made if an engine failure should occur. Insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an engine failure. |
Insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an engine failure.
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According to SN-36, to avoid over speeds during lift off,
Maintain relaxed grip on throttle allowing governor to control RPM. Always confirm governor off before increasing RPM above 80%. Roll throttle up slowly before turning governor on. |
Maintain relaxed grip on throttle allowing governor to control RPM.
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According to the POH, the RPM governor is only active above
80% 90% 97% |
80%
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After engine cut off wait at least
10 seconds before using rotor brake. 30 seconds before using rotor brake. 1 minute before using rotor brake. |
30 seconds before using rotor brake.
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The maximum operational altitude for the R-22 is
14,000’ DA 14,500’ DA Altitude at which full throttle produces maximum allowable power (MCP or TOP) |
14,000’ DA
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R-22 tail rotor tip speed @ 100% RPM is
672 FPS 599 FPS 2652 RPM |
599 FPS
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The maximum gross weight of the R-22 Beta II is
920 Lbs 1370 Lbs 1300 Lbs |
1370 Lbs
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Red coloring for instrument markings is
Precautionary or special operating procedure range. Indicates operating limits. The pointer should not enter the red during normal operation Normal operation range. |
Indicates operating limits. The pointer should not enter the red during normal operation
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The takeoff and climb airspeed is
60 KIAS 83 KIAS 53 KIAS |
60 KIAS
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The landing and approach airspeed is
83 KIAS 53 KIAS 60 KIAS |
60 KIAS
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Payload can be defined as
Maximum allowable operational weight of the helicopter Maximum gross weight minus basic empty weight The weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage |
The weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage
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Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
Unusable fuel and undrainable oil. Only the airframe, powerplant, and operational equipment. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity. |
Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
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An aircraft is loaded 110 lbs over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (100 LL) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
15.7 gallons 18.4 gallons 16.2 gallons |
18.4 gallons
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If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
Equal to pressure altitude Higher than pressure altitude Lower than pressure altitude |
Higher than pressure altitude
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What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes. Efficiency is increased due to less friction on the propeller blades. Efficiency is reduced due to the increased force of the propeller in the thinner air. |
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
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What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It decreases performance. It increases performance. It has no effect on performance |
It decreases performance.
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What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15 degrees C and 29.92”hg. 59 degrees C and 1013.2 millibars. 59 degrees F and 29.92 millibars |
15 degrees C and 29.92”hg.
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True altitude can be defined as
Altitude corrected for non-standard pressure Pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature The elevation of an object above Mean Sea Level |
The elevation of an object above Mean Sea Level
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With reference to weight and balance, an arm is defined as
An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes. The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its distance from the reference datum. The horizontal distance from the datum to the center of gravity (CG) of an item. |
The horizontal distance from the datum to the center of gravity (CG) of an item.
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If the temperature at 0 ft MSL is 18 degrees C, and the temperature lapse rate is standard, what is the temperature at 3,500 ft MSL?
11 degrees C 9 degrees C 14 degrees C |
11 degrees C
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Maximum Gross Weight can be defined as
Maximum allowable operational weight of the helicopter Basic empty weight plus payload The weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage |
Maximum allowable operational weight of the helicopter
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Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
An increase in barometric pressure An increase in ambient temperature A decrease in relative humidity |
An increase in ambient temperature
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With reference to weight and balance, a moment is defined as:
An imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes. The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm The horizontal distance from the datum to the center of gravity (CG) of an item. |
The product of the weight of an item multiplied by its arm
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What is one of the dangers of flying a helicopter with excessive forward CG?
During a flare, such as at the end of an autorotation, the pilot could run out of aft cyclic movement causing the cyclic to hit the aft stop before the flare can be completed. The aircraft will have a strong tendency to nosedive into the ground during takeoff. The aircraft will exceed Vne. |
During a flare, such as at the end of an autorotation, the pilot could run out of aft cyclic movement causing the cyclic to hit the aft stop before the flare can be completed.
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What type of landing gear does the R-22 Beta II have?
Fold under Force Spring and Yield Hydraulic Shock Absorbing |
Spring and Yield
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The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
Altimeter. Vertical-speed indicator. Airspeed indicator. |
Airspeed indicator.
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What is cyclic feathering?
The collective pitch changes of the rotor blades. The periodic and automatic pitch changes of the rotor blades independently of each other. Twisting of the blades to a -8° washout. |
The periodic and automatic pitch changes of the rotor blades independently of each other.
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If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
Altimeter will indicate .15" Hg higher. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher. Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower. |
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
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Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
Airspeed only. Altimeter only. Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed. |
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
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What is the thinnest a wear shoe on the landing gear can be prior to replacement?
1/8 in 1/16 in 1/4 in |
1/16 in
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What is the main purpose of the battery in an R-22?
To supply power for starting the engine To run the electrical system in case of an alternator failure To supply nominal voltage to the alternator |
To supply power for starting the engine
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At what rotor RPM will the low rotor rpm warning light and horn come on?
97% 80% 101% |
97%
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How many cylinders does the engine have on the R-22?
4 6 8 |
4
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What is the main rotor RPM @ 104%?
672 RPM 530 RPM 599 RPM |
530 RPM
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In the Lift Equation, V² is the velocity squared of the
Aircraft Rotor Blades Engine |
Rotor Blades
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The Angle of Attack is also known as the
Aerodynamic angle Mechanical angle Relative angle |
Aerodynamic angle
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Angle of attack is defined as the angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the
Direction of the relative wind. Pitch angle of an airfoil. Rotor plane of rotation. |
Direction of the relative wind.
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As the Angle of Attack increases, the drag on the airfoil will
Increase Decrease moderately Decrease |
Increase
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In the Lift Equation, which factors are controllable by the pilot?
V², and CL S, and ½ρ V², and S |
V², and CL
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Which type of Drag increases dramatically with an increase of aircraft velocity?
Induced Parasite Profile |
Parasite
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Drag can be best defined as
Downward force due to the pull of gravity. The retarding force due to the resistance to movement through the air. Upward force created by the Airfoils. |
The retarding force due to the resistance to movement through the air.
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If the helicopter rotates on its Vertical Axis, which flight control would be used to correct for it?
Collective Cyclic Pedals |
Pedals
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The Pitch angle is also known as the
Mechanical angle Relative angle Aerodynamic angle |
Mechanical angle
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Effective Translational Lift occurs at what air speed?
As little as 1 knot of airspeed. 10 to 20 knots of airspeed. 16 to 24 knots of airspeed |
16 to 24 knots of airspeed
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What is cyclic feathering?
The collective pitch changes of the rotor blades. The periodic pitch changes of the rotor blades independently of each other. The factory twisting of the blades to a -8° Washout (Twist). |
The periodic pitch changes of the rotor blades independently of each other.
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Translational Lift is the result of
Decreased rotor efficiency. Airspeed. Both airspeed and groundspeed. |
Airspeed.
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Coning is caused by
Lift and is resisted by Centrifugal Force. Forward airspeed and high gross weight. Effective Translational Lift. |
Lift and is resisted by Centrifugal Force
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Dynamic rollover occurs at what degree in the R-22?
51 degrees 42 degrees 15 degrees |
15 degrees
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How is Translating Tendency counteracted in the R22?
The main rotor shaft is tilted to the left slightly. The pilot must provide opposing cyclic input. The flight controls are rigged so that the disc is tilted a small amount by default. |
The pilot must provide opposing cyclic input.
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Where does Main Rotor Disc Vortex Interference LTE occur?
210 - 330° 285° - 315° 120° - 240° |
285° - 315°
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The recovery for Settling with Power is
Raise collective, left pedal, aft cyclic Lower collective, forward cyclic, climb when airspeed increases Raise collective, forward cyclic, climb when airspeed increases |
Lower collective, forward cyclic, climb when airspeed increases
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What is the FIRST step in recovering from low G conditions?
Immediately and smoothly apply gentle aft cyclic to reload the rotor system Apply full left cyclic as you raise the collective Immediately enter an autorotation |
Immediately and smoothly apply gentle aft cyclic to reload the rotor system
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During an autorotation, aft cyclic will
Increase rotor RPM and slow forward airspeed. Decrease rotor RPM and slow rate of decent. Cause a slight right turn from gyroscopic precession. |
Increase rotor RPM and slow forward airspeed.
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If an engine failure is encountered at 200 ft AGL you should immediately
Lower the collective to enter an autorotation Apply left pedal to keep the nose from yawing to the right Apply gentle aft cyclic to reload the rotor |
Lower the collective to enter an autorotation
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75 KIAS and 90% rotor rpm represents
Lowest drag speed configuration Maximum glide distance configuration Maximum endurance speed configuration |
Maximum glide distance configuration
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In a 30° bank, the G force is
1.4 1.2 3.0 |
1.2
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During an autorotation descent, lowering the collective
Increases the pitch angle, increasing the rotor RPM Increases the pitch angle, reducing the rotor RPM Decreases the pitch angle increasing the rotor RPM |
Decreases the pitch angle increasing the rotor RPM
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Airspeed and rotor rpm are examples of what in an autorotation?
Static Energy Kinetic Energy Potential energy |
Kinetic Energy
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The horizontal load component that pulls the helicopter to the outside of the turn is
Load Factor Centripetal Force Centrifugal Force |
Centrifugal Force
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During the execution of a flare, the helicopter will
Accelerate Decelerate Shudder |
Decelerate
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During an autorotational descent, an updraft will make the rotor rpm
Remain constant Decrease Increase |
Increase
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If an aircraft with high gross weight encounters turbulence, its load factor will
Remain constant Increase dramatically Decrease dramatically |
Increase dramatically
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Carburetor icing is most likely to occur between
32°F and 90°F 20°F and 90°F 20°C and 90°C |
20°F and 90°F
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Safety Notice SN-16 tells us to
Do not fly directly over towers when crossing power lines. Maintain at least 300 ft AGL to virtually eliminate the hazard of wire strikes. Constantly scan the higher terrain on either side of your flight path for towers. |
Constantly scan the higher terrain on either side of your flight path for towers.
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In the POH, chapter 4 is?
Weight and Balance Normal procedures Performance |
Normal procedures
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Maximum power on rotor tachometer reading is
101% 110% 104% |
104%
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The R-22 Beta II engine for maximum continuous use is de-rated to
124 BHP @ 2652 RPM 131 BHP @ 2652 RPM 145 BHP @ 2700 RPM |
124 BHP @ 2652 RPM
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Minimum oil pressure during flight is
55psi 115psi 95psi |
55psi
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For pilots having more than 200 hours in a helicopter (50 of which is in an R-22),
Flight when surface winds exceed 25 knots, including gusts, is permitted Flight when surface wind gust spreads exceed 25 knots is prohibited Flight in light or moderate turbulence is prohibited if forward speed is reduced to between 60 KIAS and 0.7 Vne, no lower than 57KIAS. |
Flight when surface winds exceed 25 knots, including gusts, is permitted
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The autorotation speed in the R-22 is
75 KIAS 60 KCAS 65 KIAS |
65 KIAS
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The Vne for the R-22 is
120 KIAS up to 3000’ Pressure Altitude 102 KIAS up to 3000’ Density Altitude 110 KIAS up to 3000’ Density Altitude |
102 KIAS up to 3000’ Density Altitude
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What is the 5 minute maximum brake horsepower rating for the engine on the R-22?
131 BHP 180 BHP 124 BHP |
131 BHP
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How is the engine cooled on the R-22?
Water cooled Air cooled Both water and air cooled |
Air cooled
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How many flex couplings does the drive system for the R-22 have?
2 3 4 |
3
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Total fuel capacity is
30.7 us gal 29.7 us gal 19.8 us gal |
30.7 us gal
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In the R-22, if the CG is too far forward, will it get worse or better with continued flight?
Worse Better No change |
Worse
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Which technique is recommended for use during hot weather?
Use minimum allowable RPM and maximum allowable manifold pressure during all phases of flight. During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight. During hovering flight, maintain minimum engine RPM during left pedal turns, and maximum engine RPM during right pedal turns. |
During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight.
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If a helicopter’s maximum gross weight is 1370 lbs and its basic empty weight is 895 lbs, what is the helicopter’s useful load?
475 lbs 475 lbs minus the weight of fuel 475 lbs plus the weight of fuel |
475 lbs
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Which section of the R-22 POH is Weight and Balance?
Section 4 Section 6 Section 5 |
Section 6
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Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude. |
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
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Gross Weight can be defined as
Maximum allowable operational weight of the helicopter Basic empty weight plus payload The weight of occupants, cargo, and baggage |
Basic empty weight plus payload
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An aircraft is loaded 90 lbs over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (100 LL) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
15 gallons 18 gallons 12 gallons |
15 gallons
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If the temperature at 0 ft MSL is 20 degrees C, and the temperature lapse rate is standard, what is the temperature at 2,500 ft MSL?
25̊ C 15̊ C 12̊ C |
15̊ C
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What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds. Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover. |
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
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For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast. lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin. |
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
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The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
a cloud with extensive vertical development. a rain cloud. a middle cloud containing ice pellets. |
a rain cloud.
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Clouds are divided into four families according to their
outward shape. height range. composition. |
height range.
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An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
an inactive frontal cloud. a funnel cloud. a lenticular cloud. |
a lenticular cloud.
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What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Cirrus clouds. Nimbostratus clouds. Towering cumulus clouds. |
Towering cumulus clouds.
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What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Towering cumulus. Cumulonimbus. Nimbostratus. |
Cumulonimbus.
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What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights. Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water. The movement of cold air over much warmer water. |
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights
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If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 °F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
Freezing precipitation. Thunderstorms. Fog or low clouds. |
Fog or low clouds.
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In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
A warm, moist air mass on the windward side of mountains. An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter. A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea. |
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
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What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
Radiation fog and ice fog. Steam fog and ground fog. Advection fog and upslope fog. |
Advection fog and upslope fog.
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Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
Rain-induced fog. Upslope fog. Steam fog. |
Steam fog.
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What is meant by the term 'dewpoint'?
The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal. The temperature at which dew will always form. The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated. |
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
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Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
water vapor condenses. water vapor is present. relative humidity reaches 100 percent. |
water vapor condenses.
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What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Evaporation and sublimation. Heating and condensation. Supersaturation and evaporation. |
Evaporation and sublimation.
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Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
mammatocumulus clouds. standing lenticular clouds. roll clouds. |
standing lenticular clouds.
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Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing. The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface. |
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
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The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
are thunderstorms in the area. has been cold frontal passage. is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude. |
is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
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Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
An increase in barometric pressure. An increase in ambient temperature. A decrease in relative humidity. |
An increase in ambient temperature.
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If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
the actual altitude above sea level. higher than the actual altitude above sea level. lower than the actual altitude above sea level. |
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
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One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
a change in temperature. an increase in cloud coverage. an increase in relative humidity. |
a change in temperature.
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What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 °F and the dewpoint is 48 °F?
4,000 feet MSL. 5,000 feet MSL. 6,000 feet MSL. |
6,000 feet MSL.
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If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
Stratus clouds with little vertical development. Stratus clouds with considerable associated turbulence. Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence. |
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence.
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Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
movement of air. pressure differential. heat exchange. |
heat exchange.
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One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
wind direction. type of precipitation. stability of the air mass. |
wind direction.
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A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
Showery precipitation. Turbulent air. Poor surface visibility. |
Poor surface visibility.
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Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
produce stratus type clouds. cause showers and thunderstorms. develop convective turbulence. |
produce stratus type clouds.
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Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence. cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence. |
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
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Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
squall line thunderstorms. steady-state thunderstorms. warm front thunderstorms. |
squall line thunderstorms.
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The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. friction between the wind and the surface. stronger Coriolis force at the surface. |
friction between the wind and the surface.
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A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a
prefrontal system. squall line. dry line. |
squall line.
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What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions. High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds. Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover. |
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
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Where does wind shear occur?
Only at higher altitudes. Only at lower altitudes. At all altitudes, in all directions. |
At all altitudes, in all directions.
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One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
small temperature/dewpoint spread. stratiform clouds. visible moisture. |
visible moisture.
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What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
Atmospheric pressure. Actual lapse rate. Surface temperature. |
Actual lapse rate.
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What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. Poor visibility and smooth air. Stratiform clouds and showery precipitation |
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
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A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft. Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft. An increase in temperature as altitude is increased. |
Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.
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Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
Lightning. Heavy rain. Hail. |
Lightning.
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Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds. Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation. |
Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
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What are characteristics of unstable air?
Turbulence and good surface visibility. Turbulence and poor surface visibility. Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility. |
Turbulence and good surface visibility.
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To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
a general briefing. an abbreviated briefing. a standard briefing. |
a standard briefing.
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What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations. Types of clouds between reporting stations. |
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
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AIRMET's are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMET's and are intended for dissemination to
only IFR pilots. all pilots. only VFR pilots. |
all pilots.
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From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
Low-Level Prognostic Chart. Weather Depiction Chart. Area Forecast. |
Area Forecast.
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To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
Aviation Area Forecasts. Weather Depiction Charts. Satellite Maps. |
Aviation Area Forecasts.
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What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route. Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather. Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports. |
Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
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The Federal Aviation Regulations require at least
45 minutes fuel reserve for helicopters. 30 minutes fuel reserve for helicopters. 20 minutes fuel reserve for helicopters. |
20 minutes fuel reserve for helicopters.
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What is the scale of a Sectional Aeronautical Chart?
1: 1,000,000 1: 250,000 1: 500, 000 |
1: 500, 000
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Four tick marks around the airport symbol indicate?
a dirt, gravel, or grass surface that fuel is available there are four runways |
that fuel is available
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A hollow star symbol indicates?
A rotating beacon Pilot controlled lighting Runway lighting from sunset to sunrise |
A rotating beacon
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Airports shown in blue have?
Runways longer than 8069 feet Rotating beacons Control tower |
Control tower
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An open circle with an “R” inside indicates
Runway in excess of 8069 feet Runway edge identifier lights available A private or non-use airport |
A private or non-use airport
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Dashed magenta lines indicate what type of airspace?
Echo starting at the surface Echo starting at 700 feet Echo starting at 1200 feet |
Echo starting at the surface
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Faded magenta lines indicate what type of airspace?
Echo starting at the surface Echo starting at 700 feet Echo starting at 1200 feet |
Echo starting at 700 feet
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How long after your filed planned arrival time do you have before authorities start trying to locate you, potentially resulting in you being charged for search and rescue efforts?
3 hours 1 hour 30 minutes |
30 minutes
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Airports shown as a rectangular outline of the runway indicates:
A runway length greater than 8069 feet A dirt, gravel, or grass surface A military airport |
A runway length greater than 8069 feet
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R-4809 is a designator for a?
Restricted area Wildlife reserve area Registered airspace |
Restricted area
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Faded blue lines indicate what type of airspace?
Echo starting at the surface Echo starting at 700 feet Echo starting at 1200 feet |
Echo starting at 1200 feet
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Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class A, B, and C airspace are shown in blue, Class D and E airspace are magenta. Airports with control towers underlying Class C, D, and E airspace are shown in magenta. Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue. |
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
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Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should
monitor ATIS for weather and traffic advisories. contact approach control for vectors to the traffic pattern. contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories. |
contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories.
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The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
1,200 feet AGL. 3,000 feet AGL. 4,000 feet AGL. |
4,000 feet AGL.
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What hazards to aircraft may exist in restricted areas such as R-5302B?
Military training activities that necessitate acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers. Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles. High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. |
Unusual, often invisible, hazards such as aerial gunnery or guided missiles.
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All operations within Class C airspace must be in
accordance with instrument flight rules. compliance with ATC clearances and instructions. an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability. |
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with Mode C encoding capability.
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The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
5 nautical miles. 15 nautical miles. 10 nautical miles. |
10 nautical miles.
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What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder and DME. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. |
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
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The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
remain clear of clouds. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally. |
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
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An FDC NOTAM contains?
Information includes such data as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport visual approach lighting aids, fuel closure, obstacles near runways, etc. Things like amendments to aeronautical charts, large scale TFRs for things like natural disasters or large-scale public events Information about the operational condition of Navigational Aids used in IFR navigation. VOR, ILS, DME, Marker Beacons, Localizers, Precision Radar, and Compass locators, etc. |
Things like amendments to aeronautical charts, large scale TFRs for things like natural disasters or large-scale public events
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If you are lost and follow the five C’s, you will do so in which order?
Circle, Climb, Call, Confess and Comply Conserve, Communicate, Confess, Comply, and Climb Communicate, Climb, Confess, Conserve, and Comply |
Circle, Climb, Call, Confess and Comply
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“MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY” will be transmitted when you are in a?
Urgency situation Loss of communication situation Distress situation |
Distress situation
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An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
there are obstructions on the airport. that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums. the airport is unsafe – do not land. |
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
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A lighted heliport may be identified by a
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon. flashing yellow light. blue lighted square landing area. |
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
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To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it
one time within four seconds. three times within three seconds. seven times within five seconds. |
seven times within five seconds.
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The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
009 degrees and 027 degrees true. 090 degrees and 270 degrees true. 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic. |
090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic.
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Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
Flashing green. Steady green. Flashing white. |
Flashing green.
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What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway. Denotes intersecting runways. |
Denotes intersecting runways.
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If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
0000 1200 4096 |
1200
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When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft’s
true course. ground track. magnetic heading. |
ground track.
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Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction. non-essential information to reduce frequency congestion. non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas. |
non-control information in selected high-activity terminal areas.
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Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively as heliports.
122.75 and 123.65 MHz. 123.0 and 122.95 MHz. 123.05 and 123.075 MHz. |
123.05 and 123.075 MHz.
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Safety of flight is covered in the AIM in which chapter?
Chapter 4 Chapter 5 Chapter 7 |
Chapter 7
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At uncontrolled airports, the general procedure for entering a traffic pattern is to approach at a _____ degree angle and enter the pattern on the downwind leg abeam the midpoint of the runway.
25 45 75 |
45
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After taking off to begin a standard traffic pattern, and you have completed you first turn, you have entered which leg of the pattern?
Crosswind Base Downwind |
Crosswind
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1. What are the characteristics of stable air?
a. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds. b. Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. c. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. |
c. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds.
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1. What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
a. 59 °F and 1013.2 inches Hg. b. 15 °C and 29.92 Mb. c. 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg. |
c. 15 °C and 29.92 inches Hg.
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Moisture is added to air by
sublimation and condensation. evaporation and condensation. evaporation and sublimation. |
evaporation and sublimation.
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Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front
is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. |
is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front.
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What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend?
The method by which the air is lifted. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs. |
The stability of the air before lifting occurs.
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|
What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet?
-5 °C. -15 °C. +5 °C. |
-5 °C.
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Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion?
Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude. |
Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface.
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In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the
right by Coriolis force. right by surface friction. left by Coriolis force. |
right by Coriolis force.
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During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause
a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease. a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. |
a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity.
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Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system?
A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. |
A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
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Refer to the excerpt from the following METAR report:
KTUS 08004KT 4SM HZ 26/04 A2995 RMK RAE36 At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected? 4,400 feet. 8,800 feet. 17,600 feet. |
8,800 feet
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What flight planning information can a pilot derive from Constant Pressure Analysis Charts?
Winds and temperatures aloft. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions. Frontal systems and obstructions to vision aloft. |
Winds and temperatures aloft.
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What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing. Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence. Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and icing. |
Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence.
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The station originating the following METAR observation has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is the thickness of the cloud layer? (Top of overcast reported at 7,500 feet MSL).
METAR KHOB 151250Z 17006KT 4SM OVC005 13/11 A2998 2,500 feet. 4,000 feet. 3,500 feet. |
3,500 feet.
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Which chart provides a ready means of locating observed frontal positions and pressure centers?
Surface Analysis Chart. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart. Weather Depiction Chart. |
Surface Analysis Chart.
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What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations. Types of clouds between reporting stations. |
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
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SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft?
Small aircraft only. Large aircraft only. All aircraft. |
All aircraft.
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What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
Moderate thunderstorms covering 30 percent of the area. Moderate or severe turbulence. Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers. |
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
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Which of the following would NOT be considered a source of en-route weather?
TAF’s and METAR’s PIREP’s and ATIS TWEB’s and EFAS |
TAF’s and METAR’s
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For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth’s surface of the
lowest reported obscuration and the highest layer of clouds reported as overcast. lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration. lowest layer of clouds reported as scattered, broken, or thin. |
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
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Sectional Charts are good for a period of
6 calendar months 56 days 90 days |
6 calendar months
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If a true heading of 135 degrees results in a ground track of 130 degrees and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a ground speed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
019 degrees and 12 knots. 200 degrees and 13 knots. 246 degrees and 13 knots. |
246 degrees and 13 knots.
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Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
1,000 feet AGL 2,000 feet AGL 3,000 feet AGL |
2,000 feet AGL
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Which of the following charts has a scale of 1:500,000
World Aeronautical Chart Sectional Chart Terminal Chart |
Sectional Chart
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How far will an aircraft travel in 2 ½ minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
2.45 NM. 3.35 NM. 4.08 NM. |
4.08 NM
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Navigation by use of heading, time and distance calculations is referred to as
Dead Reckoning Pilotage Radio Navigation |
Dead Reckoning
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Airports with hollow backgrounds have?
Hard-surfaced runways A dirt, gravel, or grass surface Fuel available |
A dirt, gravel, or grass surface
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Airports shown as a circle, indicates?
Control towers that fuel is available runway length between 1500 feet and 8069 feet |
runway length between 1500 feet and 8069 feet
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An open circle with an “H” inside indicates?
A hazardous runway A Heliport A high traffic airport |
A Heliport
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We can obtain local weather information for Hooks airport on which frequency?
121.8 122.95 124.95 |
124.95
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The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
4 nautical miles. 6 nautical miles. 8 nautical miles. |
4 nautical miles.
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With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include:
10,000 feet MSL. 14,500 feet MSL. 18,000 feet MSL. |
18,000 feet MSL.
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Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
1,000 feet and 1 mile. 1,000 feet and 3 miles. 2,500 feet and 3 miles. |
1,000 feet and 3 miles.
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A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Class B Class C Class D |
Class D
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Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
when the weather minimums are below basic VFR. when the associated control tower is in operation. when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation. |
when the associated control tower is in operation.
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Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Class C. Class E. Class G. |
Class C.
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What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Commercial Pilot Certificate. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. |
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
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What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver. |
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
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Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. |
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
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No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. |
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
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What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Automated Flight Service Station. Air Traffic Control Tower. Air Route Traffic Control Center |
Air Traffic Control Tower.
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Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure. The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace. The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff. |
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
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Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
When flying on airways with an ATC clearance. With the controlling agency's authorization. Regulations do not allow this. |
With the controlling agency's authorization.
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What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
Obtain a clearance from the controlling agency prior to entering the MOA. Operate only on the airways that transverse the MOA. Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted. |
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted.
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When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace designation normally will not change. The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available. The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation. |
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
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When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
‘MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’ ‘MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’ ‘MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’ |
‘MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER.’
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How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station and what service would be expected?
Call EFAS on 122.2 for routine weather, current reports on hazardous weather, and altimeter settings. Call flight assistance on 122.5 for advisory service pertaining to severe weather. Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route. |
Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.
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To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft’s position, the aircraft must have a
VHF transmitter and receiver. 4096-code transponder. VOR receiver and DME. |
VHF transmitter and receiver.
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Chapter 1 of the AIM covers?
Safety of flight Navigation Aids Air Traffic Control |
Navigation Aids
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Operations specific to helicopters are covered in which chapter of the AIM?
Chapter 6 Chapter 3 Chapter 10 |
Chapter 10
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Chapter 3 of the AIM covers?
Airspace Navigation Aids Air Traffic Control |
Airspace
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A holding pattern in which all turns are made to the left is called:
Non-standard Standard Modified |
Non-standard
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Taxiway centerline lights are?
Blue Green Yellow |
Green
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You can find definitions on commonly used acronyms in the AIM where?
Appendix 2 Pilot/ Controller Glossary Appendix 1 |
Pilot/ Controller Glossary
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A NOTAM (D) contains?
Information includes such data as taxiway closures, personnel and equipment near or crossing runways, airport visual approach lighting aids, fuel closure, obstacles near runways, etc. Things like amendments to aeronautical charts, large scale TFRs for things like natural disasters or large-scale public events Information about the operational condition of Navigational Aids used in IFR navigation. VOR, ILS, DME, Marker Beacons, Localizers, Precision Radar, and Compass locators, etc. |
Information about the operational condition of Navigational Aids used in IFR navigation. VOR, ILS, DME, Marker Beacons, Localizers, Precision Radar, and Compass locators, etc.
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“PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN” will be transmitted when you are in a?
Urgency situation Loss of communication situation Distress situation |
Urgency situation
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The standard transponder code to squawk for a radio failure is?
7500 7700 7600 |
7600
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What is the frequency range used for VOR navigation?
960.00 MHz – 1215.00 MHz 108.00 MHz - 117.95 MHz 118.00 MHz – 135.95 MHz |
108.00 MHz - 117.95 MHz
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When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
180 degrees FROM, only if the pilot is due north of the VOT 0 degrees TO or 180 degrees FROM, regardless of the pilot’s position from the VOT 0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot’s position from the VOT |
0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot’s position from the VOT
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Under which part of the FAR can a pilot find information specific to General Operating and Flight Rules
Part 71 Part 73 Part 91 |
Part 91
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Part 61 of the FAR covers
Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors Medical Standards and Certification Special Use Airspace |
Certification: Pilots, Flight Instructors, and Ground Instructors
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Part 67 of the FAR covers
FAA advisory circulars Medical Standards and Certification Pilot Schools |
Medical Standards and Certification
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Under which part of the FAR can a pilot find information specific to Designation of Class Airspace Areas; Service Routes; and Reporting Points?
Part 71 Part 73 Part 91 |
Part 71
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Part 1 of the FAR covers
Definitions and Abbreviations Medical Standards and Certification Special Use Airspace |
Definitions and Abbreviations
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Maintenance, Preventative Maintenance, Rebuilding, and Alteration is covered in which part of the FAR?
Part 41 Part 73 Part 43 |
Part 43
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When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery. Only when passengers are carried. Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember. |
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
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The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
sunset to sunrise. 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. |
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
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When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft
that has the other to its right. that is the least maneuverable. at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another. |
at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another
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Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. Private Pilot Certificate. Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate. |
Private Pilot Certificate.
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You are a rotorcraft/helicopter rated pilot with 180 hours total flight time, all of which were in an R-22. In order to act as pilot-in-command of an R-22 you must have received a flight review within the preceding
6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months. |
12 calendar months.
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