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131 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
______ is the flow of information from DNA to RNA; Then RNA to protein.
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translation
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_____ is the actual synthesis of a protein under the direction of mRNA.
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translation
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What are the four primary components of RNA translation?
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1. mRNA
2. tRNA 3. rRNA and ribosome 4. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase |
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_____ carry code for protein from DNA.
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mRNA
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_____ is an ordered series of three-nucleotide-long unit in the protein coding region of the mRNA.
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Codon
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The protein coding region of mRNA located within the mRNA is called what?
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Open reading frame (OFR)
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The ____________ defines the reading frame; first amino acid.
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start codon
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The __________ defines the end of the OFR; termination.
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stop codon
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What is the untranslated sequence located in eukaryotic mRNA called?
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UTR- Untranslated region
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The following are characteristics of what:
-Transports amino acids to ribosomes during translation - Provide the physical interface between the amino acids being added to the growing polypeptide chain and the codons in the mRNA. |
tRNA
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RNA + proteins form what?
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functional ribosome
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___________ provides a mechanism for decoding mRNA into amino acids and interacts with tRNAs during translation by providing peptidyl transferase activity.
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rRNA
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rRNA catalyzes protein synthesis by facilitating the binding of ____ to ____.
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tRNA to mRNA
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Is this the small or large subunit of the ribosome?
Contains the peptidyl transferase center for the formation of peptide bonds. |
large subunit
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Is this the small or large subunit of the ribosome?
Contains the decoding center for charged tRNAs read or decode the codon units of mRNA. |
small subunit
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Ribosomes are named by the velocity of their sedimentation called ____.
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S
(The larger the S value, the faster the sedimentation velocity and the larger the molecule.) |
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_______ is the unit for measure sedimentation velocity and named after the inventer of the ultracentrifuge.
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S=Svedberg
(Theodor Svedberg) |
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_________ catalyzes the esterification of a specific amino acid to one or more its compatible cognate tRNAs to form an aminoacyl-tRNA. This is sometimes called "charging" the tRNA with the amino acid.
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Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
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Once the tRNA is charged, a ribosome can transfer the amino acid from the ______ onto a growing peptide, according to the genetic code.
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tRNA
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What are the two steps of Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?
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1. Adenylylation of amino acid: amino acid react with ATP to become adenylylated with release of AMP.
2. Transfer of the adenylylated amino acid to tRNA |
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_____ is the template for translation. (information)
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mRNA
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_______ coordinate recognition and catalyze bond formation.
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ribosomes
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_____ is the physical interface between protein and codon.
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tRNAs
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________ couple amino acid to tRNAs.
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Amioacyl-tRNA synthetases
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What step of translation is this:
-results in the formation of an initiation complex in which the ribosome is bound to the specific initiation (start) site on the mRNA while the initiator tRNA is annealed to the initiator codon and bound to the ribosome. |
The first step- initiation
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What step of translation is this:
-consists of joining amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain according to the sequence specified by the message. Incorporation of each amino acid occurs by the same mechanism. Thus, the same steps are repeated over and over again until the termination codon is reached in the message. |
The second step- elongation
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What step of translation is this:
- termination codon gives the signal for the protein synthesis, in which the ready-made protein is released from the ribosome. |
The third step- termination
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What step of translation is this:
-ribosomal recycling after the release of polypeptide chain |
the critical last step
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Which initiation factor blocks ribosome A site
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IF1 and eIF1A
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Which initiation factor facilitates initiator tRNA binding to the P-site of the 40s subunit?
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IF2, eIF2, e1F5B
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Which initiation factor prevents ribosomal subunit association?
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IF3 and eIF3
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Which initiation factor prepares mRNA template form ribosome binding?
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eIF1, eIF4A, eIF4E, eIF4G, eIF4B
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Initiation of translation begins with the amino acid ______.
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methionine
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Which site is the binding site for aminoacylated tRNA?
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A site
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Which stie is the binding site for peptidyl tRNA?
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P site
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Which site is the exit site?
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E site
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_____ is when RNA translation shifts into elongation stage.
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Once the ribosome is assembled with the charged initiator tRNA in the P site, polypeptide synthesis
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What are the three factors that control elongation events?
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1. EF-Tu
2. EF-G 3. EF-Ts |
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mRNA are usually translated by a series of ribosomes spaced at intervals of about ________ nucleotides.
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100-200
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Translation can also be regulated by a host of proteins that interact with ______, ________ or _______.
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5' ends
3' ends The translation factors themselves |
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Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic translation?
-Shine-Delgarno sequence or ribosome binding site (RBS) base pairs with the 3’ end of 16S rRNA (small subunit) -Precedes the AUG initiation codon (codes for methionine) -the initiator tRNA that is charged with a modified form of methionine(fMet-tRNA) is annealed to the initiator codon and enters the P site in the ribosome -Three translation initiation factors (IF1,IF2,IF3) involve in initiation event in prokaryotic cell -2 initiation complexes form in initiation events 30S initiation complex and 70S initiation complex |
prokaryotic
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Prokaryotic or Eukaryotic translation?
-mRNA is bound to the 40S subunit by the 7methylG cap -Ribosome scans along until it finds an AUG -At least 8 translation initiation factors involve in initiation event in Eukaryotic cells -3 initiation complexes are formed in initiation events 43S preinitiation complex,48S preinitiation complex and 80S initiation complex |
Eukaryotic
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What are the four steps of translation?
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1. Initiation
2. Elongation 3. Termination 4. Ribosome recycling |
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____ is the coding sequences in eukaryotic genes.
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Exon
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____ is the non-coding or intervening sequences in eukarytoic genes.
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Intron
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____ is the primary transcript of DNA.
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Pre-mRNA
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____ is the process of introns removal from the pre-mRNA.
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RNA splicing
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____ is a complex of specialized RNA and protein subunits that removes introns from pre-mRNA.
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Spliceosome
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_____ is the process of the re-combination of different exons in eukaryotes.
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Alternative splicing
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What is a major source of genetic diversity in eukaryotes?
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Alternative splicing
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What are the three classes of RNA splicing?
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1. Nuclear Pre-mRNA splicing (Spliceosome mediate intron removal)
2. Group 1 introns 3. Group 2 introns (Intron itself folds into a specific conformation within the pre-mRNA and catalyzes the chemistry of released by itself and the exon ligation) |
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This pathway is mediated by spliceosome and involved in assembly, rearrangement and catalysis within the spliceosome:
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Nuclear pre-mRNA splicing
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Spliceosome compromises about ____ proteins and ____ RNAs.
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150
5 |
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What are the 5 small nuclear RNAs (snRNAs)?
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U1
U2 U4 U5 U6 100-300 nt |
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What are the 3 roles of snRNPs in splicing?
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1. Recognizing the 5' splice site and the branch site.
2. Bringing those sites together. 3. Catalyzing the RNA cleavage |
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A few rare introns can remove themselves from pre-mRNA, this process is called ______.
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self splicing
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What is it called when two exons carried different RNA molecules can be spliced together?
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Trans-splicing
Rare but occurs in almost all the mRNAs of trypanosome and nematode worm. |
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The process of ______ is vital to creating mature RNA, which is then able to undergo translation. It is a specially altered nucleotide on precursor mRNA and some other primary RNA transcripts as found in eukaryotes.
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5' capping
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The process of 5' capping generally serves what four functions?
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1. Regulation of nuclear export.
2. Prevention of degradation by exonucleases. 3. Promotion of translation 4. Promotion of 5' proximal intron excision |
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The enzymes for capping can only bind to ________ ensuring specificity to only these transcripts, which are almost entirely mRNA.
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RNA polymerase II
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________ is the covalent linkage of a polyadenlylyl moiety to mRNA molecule.
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Polyadenylation (poly (A) tail)
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The following are functions of what:
-Protects mRNA from degradation by exonucleases. -Transcription Termination. -Export of the mRNA from the nucleus. -mRNA translation |
Poly (A) tail
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________ occurs during and immediately after transcription of DNA into RNA. After transcription has been terminated, the mRNA chain is cleaved through the action of an endonuclease complex associated with RNA polymerase. After the mRNA has been cleaved, around 250 adenosine residues are added to the free 3' end at the cleavage site.
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Polyadenylation
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Polyadenylation reaction is catalyzed by _________.
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polyadenylate polymerase
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What is any heritable change in the base sequence of a DNA molecule called?
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Mutation
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A ______ is an individual, organism or new genetic character that is different from the normal organism or gene. Also referred to as a wild type.
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Mutant
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What is an agent that causes mutation called?
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Mutagen
(may be a chemical or physical agent) |
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_____ is the process of producing a mutation.
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mutangenesis
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This type of mutation occurs in nature without the addition of a mutagen:
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spontaneous mutation
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The mutation is caused by a mutagen and the process is called _________.
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induced mutagenesis
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In this type of mutation a single base is replaced by another: Base substitution can be transition and transversion:
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Point mutation-Base substitutions
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In this type of mutation one or more base are inserted or deleted in the DNA. Results in a change in the reading of codons:
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Frame shift mutations
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In this type of mutation mobile pieces of DNA sequence are inserted or deleted in the DNA molecule. Results in rearrangements in the host chromosome (chromosome mutations):
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Transposable elements
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This type of mutation involves a single base change, frequently refer to base substitutions:
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Point mutation
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Frequently ______ mutation cause a stop codon to produce a truncated protein.
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frame shift
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This type of mutation occurs in nature in the absence of mutagen: Under physical condition and occasional mistakes in DNA replication.
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Spontaneous mutations
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Spontaneous mutations all generally occur in which four events?
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1. Deamination
2. Depurination 3. Methylcystosine 4. Error in replication |
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____ is the removal of an amine group from a molecule. Often occurs in the base cytosine, adenine and guanine. About 100 times per day.
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Deamination
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_____ is the cleavage of the N-glycosidic bond between a base and deoxyribose. As a result the base "falls out" leaving an abasic site or apurinic site in the DNA.
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Depurination
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What is the most common form of DNA damage?
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Depurination
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Depurination of adenine and guanine creates ______.
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Apurinic deoxyribose
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What are the types of environmentally induced mutations?
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1. Chemical- Alkylating agents, base analogs, deaminating agents and intercalating agents.
2. UV radiation- Formation of pyrimidine dimers. 3. Ionizing radiation- Single and double-strand breaks and formation of free radicals. Cross linking. |
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What are the four consequences of the change in terms of the effect on the amino acid sequence?
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1. Silent or neutral mutations
2. Missense mutations 3. Nonsense mutations 4. Frameshift mutations |
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Base change results in no change of the amino acid sequence of the translated protein or do not yield mutant phenotype (often occur base substitutions)
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silent or neutral mutations
(Don't alter protein structure) |
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This mutation is also called chain termination mutations.
-A nucleotide change has inserted a stop codon into the middle of the protein. -These lead to the production of a nonfunctional or truncated protein to eliminate protein activity completely. |
Nonsense mutation
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In this mutation the base change results in the change of an amino acid in the translated protein:
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missense mutation
(Can cause sickle cell) |
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__________ can change the structure of a chromosome by moving from site to site in the host DNA and then cause chromosome mutations.
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transposable elements
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Genetic variation (caused by mutation) is necessary for evolutionary change of the species:
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beneficial mutation
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Mutation may cause change in the genotype which may or may not affect the phenotype.
-nutritional mutations -temp sensitive |
neutral mutation
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-Lethal mutations (RNA polymerase mutation)
-Morphological mutations (strep pneumo) -Too much genetic change |
Harmful mutation
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Direct remove damaged DNA by enzymes:
-Photolyase directly reverses the formation of pyrimidine dimers ( found in E. coli and also found in yeasts and plants) -A methyltransferase removes the methyl group from the O6methylguanine |
Reversing base modifications
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This system works by recognizing distortions to the shape of the double helix rather than recognizing any particular lesion:
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nucleotide excision repair
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What are the three steps of nucleotide excision repair?
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1. Distortions trigger a chain
of event that lead to removal of a short single-strand segment. 2. the resulting a single-strand gap in the DNA is filled in by DNA polymerase using the undamaged strand as a template 3. DNA ligase restore the original nucleotide sequence |
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______ is a system for recognizing and repairing erroneous insertion, deletion and mis-incorporation of bases that can arise during DNA replication and recombination.
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DNA mismatch repair
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What are the 3 mechanisms to repair double-strand breaks (DSBs)?
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1. Homologous recombination repair
2. Non-homologous end joining NHEJ 3. Microhomology-mediated end joining MMEJ |
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_____ is a repair system in which sequence information will retrieve from nearly identical sister chromosome by exchange and finishing the repair of DNA.
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Homologous recombination repair
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________, also knowns as translesion synthesis, is a DNA damage tolerance process that allows the DNA replication machinery to replicate past DNA lesions such as thymine dimers or AP sites.
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SOS repair system
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The sequence of nucleotides in DNA or mRNA that determines the specific amino acid sequence in the synthesis of proteins:
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genetic code
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The genetic code features ___ possible codons, which must code for 20 different amino acids and ___ stop codons.
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61
3 |
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Many amino acids are specified by more than one codon
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degenerate
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Signals the start or translation (start codon)
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AUG
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All proteins are initially translated with _____ in the first position.
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methoionine
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Which is a stronger pair:
G:C or A:U |
G:C
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what are the three stop codons? (nonsense codons)
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UAA
UAG UGA |
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3 stop codons are read not by tRNA but by specific proteins called _______.
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release factors
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UAG is called ____.
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Amber
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UGA is called ___.
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opal or umber
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UAA is called _____.
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ochre
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Most of organisms have fewer than 45 tRNAs. So, one tRNA may recognize several different codons.
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Wobble theory
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______ allows less stringent pairing between the 3' base of the codon and the 5' base of the anticodon. This allows fewer tRNAs to accommodate all codons.
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Wobble pairing
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What are the 5 anticodon bases?
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1. C
2. A 3. G 4. U 5. I (inosine-derived from adenine) |
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_____ is the process by which information from a gene is used in the synthesis of a functional gene product.
DNA>RNA>protein>trait |
gene expression
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Gene expression DOES or DOES NOT depend on size of the genome?
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Does not
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The following are characteristics of:
-Necessary for the basic function of any cell -Under minimal regulatory control -Genes are expressed all the time at the same level |
housekeeping genes
(Actin, GAPDH and ubiquitin) |
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The following are characteristic of:
-Provide the maximum growth rate under certain environmental stimuli -Allows for cellular adaption, variation, differentiation and development |
Highly regulated genes
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The following are characteristic of:
-A consecutive gene is a gene that is transcribed -A facultative gene is a gene which is only transcribed when needed -An inducible gene is a gene whose expression is either responsive to environmental change or dependent on the position in the cell cycle. |
Highly regulated genes
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The following are characteristics of:
-DNA binding protein -Positive regulation -Increases gene transcription -Up regulate |
Activators
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The following are characteristics of:
-DNA binding protein -Negative regulation -Decrease or eliminates gene transcription -Down regulate |
Repressors
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_____ is several genes with related functions that are regulated together.
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operon
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___ is the DNA site where repressors bind.
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operator
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_____ code for the enzymes/proteins of interest.
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structural genes
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___ control the expression of structural genes by expressing regulatory proteins.
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Regulatory genes
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The ______ is located between the promoter and the first structural gene and involved in transcription of structural gene in prokaryotes.
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operator
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The following are characteristics of:
-First operon discovered -contains 3 structural genes coding for E. coli proteins that permit the bacteria to use the sugar lactose in the lactose operon. |
lac operon
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_______ permeases which transports lactose into the cells (lacZ)
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galactoside
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______ cuts the lactose into galactose and glucose (lacY)
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Beta galactosidases
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__________ (lacA) rids the cell of toxic
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thiogalactoside
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The following are characteristics of:
-Regulatory element of Lac Operon -Has its own promoter region -Produced constitutively repressor protein -When lactose is absent, repressor protein binds to the operator to inhibit transcription or turns transcription off |
lacI gene
(i) |
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______ operon consist 3 genes (araA, araB ad araD) that code for three digestive enzymes involved in the breakdown of arabinose that are clustered together
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Arabinose
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The arabinose proteins (araA, araB and araD) are dependent on the initiation of transcription from _____.
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PBAD
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_____ acts as a repressor in the absence of arabinose and as an activator in the presence of arabinose.
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araC
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