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71 Cards in this Set

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Protective and offensive factors that play a role in peptic ulcer disease?

Protective - mucus andbicarbonate secretion, prostaglandins, blood flow, and the processes of restitution and regeneration after cellular injury




Offensive - acid, pepsin, bile

Cause of peptic ulcers?

90% due to infection with h pylori or NSAID usage

Describe the physiologic control of acid secretion in the stomach.

Released from parietal cells




Stimulated to secrete H+ by gastrin, ACh (M3R), Histamine (H2R).




H+ secreted by H+/K+ ATPase proton pump into the gastric lumen




Lumenal peptides or Vagal stimulation --> Antral G cells --> Gastrin --> Blood --> Gastrin/CCK-B receptor --> direct action and via ECL (enterochromaffin like cells)




ECL --> activated by gastrin and ACh --> histamine release --> activate parietal cells




Vagal stimulation - direct activation of parietal cells, activation of G antral cells (gastrin release), inhibition of Antral D cells (inhibit somatostatin), Activation of ECL (histamine release)

Which of the following are incorrect regarding gastric acid secretion:




1. Inhibition of Acid release is via Inhibition of somatostatin release from antral D cells.


2. Gastric acid secretion is due to gastrin, ACh, histamine acting directly and indirectly on parietal cells


3. Antral D cells contain somatostatin and are inhibited by Vagal stimulation but are activated by CCK


4. Gastrin binds to Gastrin-CCK-B receptors on parietal cells and enterochromaffin like cells (ECL)


5. Gastrin release from antral G cells into blood vessels is due to intraluminal dietary peptides or vagal stimulation (via GRP -gastrin releasing peptide)

1. Inhibition of Acid release is via Inhibition of somatostatin release from antral D cells. - Incorrect




Inhibition of acid release is via STIMULATION of somatostatin release by increased H+ concentration in the lumen and via CCK release from the duodenum via the blood stream

Describe the effects of Vagal stimulation of acid secretion in the stomach

Vagal stimulation -


1. direct activation of parietal cells


2. activation of G antral cells (gastrin release)


3. inhibition of Antral D cells (inhibit somatostatin)


4. Activation of ECL (histamine release)




All increase acid secretion from parietal cells in the fundus

How does histamine activate acid secretion?

Release from ECL cells


Histamine binds H2 receptors on parietal cells


Activation of adenylyl cyclase


Increases cAMP


Activated protein kinases that stimulate acid secretion by H+/K+ ATPase pump

MOA of antacids.

Antacids are weak bases that react with gastric hydrochloric acid to for a salt and water.




Either particulate (mylanta) or non-particulate (sodium bicarb)




Ie sodium bicarbonate, calcium carbonate --> both cause the formation of CO2 --> belching




Excess alkali with calcium containing dairy products leads to hypercalcaemia, renal insufficiency and metabolic alkalosis (Milk alkali syndrome)

Complication of antacids?

Excess alkali with calcium containing dairy products leads to hypercalcaemia, renal insufficiency and metabolic alkalosis (Milk alkali syndrome)




CO2 formation --> belching (calcium carbonate or sodium bicarbonate only)




Excess alkali in absorption in renal insufficiency - metabolic alkalosis




Excess NaCl absorption - fluid retention in heart failure, HTN, renal insufficiency (sodium bicarbonate)




Can inhibit absorption of other medications - avoid during this period

Benefit of magnesium hydroxide and aluminium hydroxide over sodium bicarbonate and calcium carbonate as antacids?

magnesium hydroxide and aluminium hydroxide --> not gas production, no absorption of alkali




Mg causes diarrhoea and Al causes constipation --> usually used together to balance out the effects




BUT These are PARTICULATE substances and NOT helpful in the critical care situation as aspiration of these would be +++bad

Examples of antacids?

Particulate:


magnesium hydroxide + aluminium hydroxide (combo - mylanta)






Non-particulate:


Sodium bicarb - baking soda


calcium carbonate - tums


Sodium Citrate - Best for crit care - no gas production and not a particulate

Describe the pharmacokinetics of H2 antagonists.

Rapid absorption




50% bioavailability




Half life - varies between drugs 1-4hrs




Metabolism - combination of hepatic, glomerular filtration and renal tubular secretion




Dose reduction is required in mod/severe renal insufficiency

Name commonly used H2 antagonists

cimetidine


ranititdine


famotidine

MOA of H2 antagonists?

Selective H2 competitive antagonism




Suppress histamine mediated basal and meal stimulated acid secretion




Blocks the indirect pathway of gastrin and ACh via the ECL - histamine pathway and also the direct pathway as parietal cells are less sensitive to gastrin and ACh in the presence of H2 blockers

Indications for H2 blockers?

GORD with antacids (immediate effect); H2 (prolonged effecT)




Less effective than PPIs in erosive oesophagitis




PUD - usually treated with PPI now

Which of the following are correct/incorrect regarding Gastric Acid associated disease:




1. H2 blockers are better at inhibiting nocturnal acid secretion than meal stimulated acid secretion


2. PPIs are far superior to H2 blockers in acid inhibition


3. Standard H pylori therapy involves PPI + 2 antibiotics


4. Both H2 blockers and PPIs can be given IV in situations of stress related gastritis/ulcers


5. H2 blockers are commonly associated with SE such s diarrhoea, headache, fatigue, myalgia, constipation

5. H2 blockers are commonly associated with SE such s diarrhoea, headache, fatigue, myalgia, constipation




Incorrect - these are the right side affects but they are uncommon < 3%

T/ F


Cimetidine can have endocrine effects resulting in gynecomastia and impotence with long term use

TRUE




via inhibition of binding of hydrydotestosterone to androgen receptors and inhibition of estradiol metabolism and increasing serum prolactin levels

Which of the following are incorrect/correct regarding PPIs:




1. PPIs are given as the active drug


2. Formulations are given as enteric coated capsules or tablets


3. Absorption occurs in the instestine


4. Capsules may be opened and mixed with food or drink


5. Causes irreversible inhibition of H+/K+ ATPase - class effect

1. PPIs are given as the active drug - incorrect --> are PRODRUG and is converted to the active form within the parietal cell

MOA of PPI?

Forms a covalent disulphide bond with H+/K+ ATPase irreversibly inactivating the enzyme




Inhibition of acid secretion

Describe the basic pharmacokinetics of PPIs

Intestinal absorption as a prodrug in enteric coated capsules/tablets




Distribution - rapid distribution as they are weak bases with a low pKa -- readily diffuses across lipid membranes




Bioavailability - reduced by food by 50%




Clearance - hepatic




3-4 doses for full effect to block all channels (or constant infusion)




T 1/2 = 1.5 hrs but prolonged effects

Indications for PPIs

GORD - life long - symptoms recur on cessation




PUD - Heals 90% duodenal ulcers in 4 weeks and gastric ulcers in 6-8 weeks




H.pylori eradication with clarithromycin and amoxil or metronidazole for 14 days




UGI bleeds - ulcers




Non-ulcer dyspepsia symptoms




Prevention of stress related mucosal bleeding




Gastrinoma (surgery if possible) or other hypersecretory conditions

ADRs of PPIs

SAFE


Minor - diarrhoea, headache, abdominal pain




Nutrition - reduced B12, iron, calcium, magnesium absorption = bone fractures with long term use




Infections - increased pneumonia, c diff, other enteric infections due to ? acid being protective against organisms




Raised Gastrin levels - animal models carcinoid tumours due to ECL hyperplasia

T/F


PPIs may interact with the absorption/metabolism of a number of drugs due to decreased acid suppression as the main mechanism

False




Although this is one mechanism they also affect a number of P450 enzymes which can affect drugs such as CLOPIDOGREL, warfarin, diazepam, phenytoin




Absorption of ketoconazole, digoxin and atazanavir may be affected

MOA and indication of SUCRALFATE

It is a salt of sucrose complexed to sulphated aluminium hydroxide




If binds ulcers and erosions for 6 hrs and provides protection from further damage. IT also stimulates mucosal prostaglandin and bicarb secretion




Indication - Limited - can be used in critically ill patients with UGI bleeds due to concern for PPI increasing nosocomial pneumonia




May cause constipation




Acid dependent MOA - cannot use with antacids

Which of the following are correct/incorrect regarding Misoprostol:




1. It is an analog of PGE1 a prostaglandin produced in the GIT


2. Short half life required TDS/QID administration


3. Provides both acid inhibitory and mucosal protective properties


4. It has other effects including intestinal electrolyte and fluid secretion, intestinal motility and uterine contractions


5. Used for NSAID induced ulcers as well as those due to H. pylori

5. Used for NSAID induced ulcers as well as those due to H. pylori - incorrect




Although it would help it is generally not used due to dosing regime and side effects

MOA of Bismuth?

Unknown precise mechanisms




Used in combination for H pylori eradication




Coats ulcers and erosions creating a protective layer against acid and pepsin




Stimulate prostaglandin, mucous and bicarb secretion




Antimicrobial effects, binds enterotoxins, effective against H.Pylori

Use of bismuth in travellers diarrhoea

bismuth subsalicylate - the salicylate inhibits prostaglandin production and has an anti secretory effect and is useful in the prevention of travellers diarrhoea




Also has antimicrobial effects and binds enterotoxins

Number of gastric acid pumps active during the fasting state?

10%

ADRs of bismuth?

darkening of tongue - harmless




darkening of stools - may be confused with malena




bismuth compounds mayrarely lead to bismuth toxicity, resulting in encephalopathy (ataxia,headaches, confusion, seizures).




bismuth subsalicylate - over dosage may lead to salicylate poisoning

Location of the enteric nervous system?

Submucosa - submucosal plexus - meissener




Musclularis propria - between the inner circular and outer longitudinal layers of muscle - myenteric plexus - Auerbach

Which of the following are correct/incorrect regarding the enteric nervous system:




1. 5HT activated 5HT3R on extrinsic primary afferent neurons which travel via the DRG or vagus nerve to the CNS to stimulate N/V and abdominal pain


2. Enterochromaffin cells release serotonin


3. Intrinsic primary afferent neurons (IPANs) are stimulated by 5HT1P receptors which project to myeneteric interneurons and communicate via ACh and CGRP


4. 5HT4R is located at the presynaptic site on EPANs to enhance ACh and CGRP release


5. Myenteric interneurons control peristaltic reflex, promote release of excitatory mediators proximally and inhibitory mediators distally

4. 5HT4R is located at the presynaptic site on EPANs to enhance ACh and CGRP release - incorrect




on IPANs not EPANs - ie to the interneurons

Function of dopamine in the enteric NS?

inhibitory NT




decreasing the intensity of oesophageal and gastric contractions

Location of 5HT4 receptors ?

presynaptic intrinsic primary afferent neurons - acts excitatory to increase ACh and CGRP release - promoting reflex activity

Use of neostigmine as a prokinetic?

the acetylcholinesterase inhibitor neostigmine = increase ACh concentration = increase PSNS function


+ increase in motility




It enhances gastric, small intestine and colonic emptying.




Can be used in patients with acute large bowel distension due to acute colonic pseudo-obstruction or Ogilvies syndrome




2mg = prompt colonic evacuation

MOA of metaclopramide?

Dopamine - D2 receptor antagonist




1. Blocks dopamine inhibition of cholinergic SM --> thus becomes a prokinetic




Increase oesophageal sphincter pressure (good for GORD), enhance oesophageal peristalsis, enhance gastric emptying (good for gastroparesis) but have no effect on the SI or colon




2. Blocks D2 receptors in the chemotrigger zone (area postrema) - potent anti-nausea and anti-emetic actions

MOA of Domperidone ?

Dopamine - D2 receptor antagonist




1. Blocks dopamine inhibition of cholinergic SM --> thus becomes a prokinetic




Increase oesophageal sphincter pressure (good for GORD), enhance oesophageal peristalsis, enhance gastric emptying (good for gastroparesis) but have no effect on the SI or colon




2. Blocks D2 receptors in the chemotrigger zone (area postrema) - potent anti-nausea and anti-emetic actions




Same as metoclopramide

Clinical uses of Metoclopramide and domperidone?

GORD - prokinetic but PPI usually used




Gastroparesis - ie post vagotomy, diabetic




Anti-emetic




Domperidone - PO formulation only

ADRs of metoclopramide?

CNS - restlessness, drowsiness, insomnia, anxiety, agitation 10-20%




Extrapyramidal - dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonian features due to central dopamine blockade in 25% of patients with high doses or 5% with long term therapy




Tardive dyskinesia - prolonged metoclopramide use




High prolactin levels --> galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, impotence, menstrual disorders




NOTE DOMPERIDONE is well tolerated because it does not cross the BBB to a significant degree and neuropsychiatric and extrapyramidal effects are rare.

Side effects of domperidone?

D2 antagonist




High prolactin levels --> galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, impotence, menstrual disorders




NOTE DOMPERIDONE is well tolerated because it does not cross the BBB to a significant degree and neuropsychiatric and extrapyramidal effects are rare.- unlikely metoclopramide which does

MOA of macrolides as prokinetics?

Direct stimulation of MOTILIN receptors on GIT smooth muscle and promote onset of migrating motor complex

What can cause Nausea & vomiting?

Systemic infections / disorders


Pregnancy


Vestibular dysfunction


CNS infection


Raised ICP


Peritonitis


Hepatobiliary problems


Radiation or chemotherapy


GI obstruction


Dysmotility


Gastroenteritis


Poisoning

Location of the vomiting center?




Main inputs?

Brainstem vomiting center = Lateral medullary reticular formation coordinated vomiting through interactions with CN VIII and X and Nucleus tractus solitarius (resp, salivation, vasomotor centers)




Inputs:


1. Chemotrigger zone / area postrema - responds to blood and CSF


2. Vestibular system - motion sickness


3. Vagal and spinal afferents from the GIT via the nucleus tractus solitarius - 5HT3 - distention, radiation, gastroenteritis, gag reflex


4. CNS - psych, stress etc

Main NTs at the chemotrigger zone?

D2


Opioid




ACh - M


5HT3


NK1


H1

MOA of ondansetron?

5HT-3-R antagonist




Mainly effect via blockade of peripheral 5HT3 receptors on extrinsic intestinal vagal and spinal afferents




Also partly - central blockade at the vomiting center and chemotrigger zone 5HT3R

Which of the following are correct/incorrect regarding anti-emetics?




1. Ondansetron works effectively against both vagal sources of vomiting (chemotherapy, PONV etc) and motion sickness


2. Ondansetron is metabolised mainly by the liver and excreted by both the liver and kidneys


3. Ondansetron causes constipation where as metoclopramide is a prokinetic


4. Ondanestron works synergistically with dexamethasone and NK1 receptor antagonists in chemotherapy induced N&V


5.

1. Ondansetron works effectively against both vagal sources of vomiting (chemotherapy, PONV etc) and motion sickness - incorrect - poor effect on motion sickness

What is the preferred antacid in critical care?

Sodium citrate




IT produces no gas and is not a particulate.




Acts to neutralise stomach acid so that in the event of aspiration - less damage is done

Drugs that reduce gastric acid secretion?

H2 antagonists




PPI




Misoprostol

H2 blockers inhibit which CYP enzymes

CYP -


12A4


2C9


2D6


3A4




Resulting in creased levels of some important drugs




SIGNIFICANT with CIMETIDINE - but much less with Ranitidine

Enzymes involved with PPI metabolism?

CYP 2C19


CYP 3A4




Theoretical risk of inhibition of activation of the prodrug clopidogrel

Onset of action of PPI is delayed - why?

PPI do not block already active proton pumps but inhibit further manufacture and bind inactive pumps




But prolonged effect due to covalent binding - irreversible until PP is recycled



Misoprostol




MOA

PGE1 - prostaglandin analog




Reduces acid secretion


Increases Bicarb production


Enhances mucosal protective effects


Promotes mucosal blood flow




100% Contraindication in pregnancy

Regurgitation is ?

the passive movement of stomach contents into the mouth

Factors that increase PONV?

Female


History of PONV


Young children > young adults > elderly


Hx Motion sickness


Non smoker


Full stomach




Surgery - prolonged, laparotomy, laparoscopy, middle ear/ENT, strabismus




Anaesthetic - General anaesthesia, volatiles, N2O, opioids

Usual rate of PONV?

30% in general population




but up to 80% with risk factors

Give an overview of the vomiting center and inputs

Side effects of ondansetron:

Headaches


Flushing


Constipation


QTc prolongation

Examples of D2 Receptor antagonists?

Benzamides:


- Metoclopramide


- Domperidone




Butyrophenones


- Droperidol




Phenothiazenes


- Prochlorperazine




These drugs also work at other receptors - not selective for D2

Side effects of droperidol?

Sedation


Prolong QTc


Extrapyramidal


Exacerbate parkinsons


Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

MOA of droperidol?

D2 antagonists




Also 5HT3, H1 --> CTZ and NTS

Prochloperazine MOA and Side effects?

Phenothiazene - same as Chlorpromazine (largactil)




MOA - D2 antagonist, also 5HT3, H1 - CTZ + NTS


H1/M - vestibular system




ADRs


- sedation, long QTc, extrapyramidal, parkinson exacerbation, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, dry mouth, blurred vision

Anti-histamine Anti emetics?

H1 receptor antagonist




Examples - promethazine, cyclizine (less sedating)




MOA - H1




Indications: PONV, motion sickness, vertigo




ADRs: sedation, anticholinergic (dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, glaucoma)

Common classes of anti-emetics?

5HT3R antagonists - ondansetron




D2 antagonists - metoclopramide, domperidone, droperidol, prochlorperazine




Histamine H1 antagonists - cyclizine, promethazine




Anticholinergics - uncommon




Steroids - dexamethasone




NK1 receptor antagonists - Aprepitant




Also - propofol, midazolam, canabanoids

Use of scopolamine?

Skin patch for motion sickness




Anticholinergic action - M1

MOA of dexamethasone for anti-emetic properties?

Not known

Aprepitant - MOA and ADRS

MOA - NK1 receptor antagonist - at CTZ + NTS (Substance P receptor)




ADRs - minor - fatigue, HA, diarrhoea, hiccups




Tablet form




Only approved in AUS for chemotherapy N&V

Natural ligand for NK1 receptor?

substance P

Describe the main receptors involved in anti-emetic drug therapy.




What are the main drugs ?

Which of the following are correct/incorrect regarding ant-emetics?




1. Ondansetron routinely interacts with other drugs by inducing P450 enzymes


2. The MOA of dexamethasone as an antiemetic is unknown


3. Aprepitant is a selective NK1 receptor antagonist that crosses the BBB


4. Aprepitant is metabolised by CYP3A4 and thus may reduce metabolism of some chemotherapeutic agents such as paclitaxel, vincristine....

1. Ondansetron routinely interacts with other drugs by inducing P450 enzymes - incorrect




Ondansetron is metabolised by P450 enzymes but does not usually affect other drug metabolism

Examples of phenothiazines?

prochlorperazine


promethazine

MOA of phenothiazines ?

prochlorperazine + promethazine




Antiemetic - Inhibition of dopamine and muscarinic receptors




Sedation via antihistamine activity

Example of butyrophenones and MOA?

Droperidol




Central dopamine inhibition




Extremely sedating, extrapyramidal effects, long QT

MOA of hyosine?




Use?

muscarinic antagonist '




transdermal patch for motion sickness prevention