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176 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1) The motor actions of the tongue and swallowing are controlled by the
A) thalamus.
B) mamillary bodies.
C) cerebral nuclei.
D) fornix.
E) pons.
B) mamillary bodies.
2) What is the connecting tract between halves of the limbic system?
A) fornix
B) brain stem
C) reticular formation
D) corpus callosum
E) both A and B
A) fornix
3) The medial partition between the lateral ventricles is (the)
A) diaphragma sellae.
B) arachnoid villi.
C) intermediate mass.
D) septum pellucidum.
E) none of the above.
D) septum pellucidum.
4) The telencephalon becomes the
A) diencephalon.
B) pons.
C) medulla.
D) cerebrum.
E) midbrain.
D) cerebrum.
5) The cortical surface of the cerebral hemispheres forms a series of grooves called
A) nuclei.
B) lobes.
C) gyri.
D) sulci.
E) none of the above.
D) sulci.
6) After flowing through the dural sinuses, CSF and blood flow into (the)
A) external jugular vein.
B) carotid artery.
C) subdural space.
D) internal jugular vein.
E) none of the above.
D) internal jugular vein.
7) The major function of the superior colliculi includes reflexes involved with
A) the taste buds.
B) the eyes.
C) the ears.
D) the nose.
E) none of the above.
B) the eyes.
8) Which area of the basal nuclei is responsible for controlling appendicular muscle tone?
A) thalamus and hypothalamus
B) globus pallidus
C) caudate nucleus
D) amygdaloid body
E) claustrum
B) globus pallidus
9) Blood and cerebrospinal fluid drain from the brain in (the)
A) epidural space.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) dural sinuses.
D) ventricles.
E) none of the above.
C) dural sinuses.
10) Which cranial nerve is associated with balance?
A) IX B) VIII C) VI D) XII E) XI
B) VIII
11) Which cerebral nucleus is most lateral and lies immediately adjacent to the insula?
A) globus pallidus
B) caudate nucleus
C) claustrum
D) putamen
E) amygdala
C) claustrum
12) The term subdural hematoma refers to blood accumulation
A) under the pia.
B) between the layers of the dura.
C) in the endothelial linings of the brain capillaries.
D) in the subarachnoid space.
E) outside of the dura.
B) between the layers of the dura.
13) The visual cortex is located in the ________ lobe.
A) insular B) occipital C) temporal D) parietal E) frontal
B) occipital
14) The condition of dysmetria often indicates damage to which brain region?
A) medulla oblongata
B) frontal lobes of cerebrum
C) pons
D) cerebellum
E) none of the above
D) cerebellum
15) The extensions of the dura mater that enters the longitudinal fissure is the
A) falx cerebri.
B) falx cerebelli.
C) tentorium cerebelli.
D) all of the above.
E) A and C.
A) falx cerebri.
16) The caudate nucleus and the lentiform nucleus are anatomically separated by (the)
A) corpus callosum.
B) fornix.
C) longitudinal fissure.
D) internal capsule.
E) all of the above.
D) internal capsule.
17) The choroid plexus
A) is located on the entire surface area of the brain- ventricle interface.
B) is the site of production of the cerebrospinal fluid.
C) is the site where the spinal nerves first enter the medulla.
D) is the site of drainage of used cerebrospinal fluid from neural tissues.
E) is none of the above.
B) is the site of production of the cerebrospinal fluid.
18) Arachnoid granulations
A) line the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone.
B) occur along the inferior sagittal sinus.
C) are projections of the dura mater into the arachnoid mater.
D) absorb CSF into the venous circulation.
E) have none of the above attributes.
D) absorb CSF into the venous circulation.
19) If the trochlear nerve of the right eye were damaged, which movement would a person be unable to make?
A) rolling the eye straight to the left (medially)
B) rolling the eye down and to the right (laterally)
C) looking straight downward
D) rolling the eye upward and to the left (medially)
E) looking straight upward
B) rolling the eye down and to the right (laterally)
20) Antidiuretic hormone from the hypothalamus
A) targets the hypothalamus itself, stimulating the thirst center.
B) is secreted from the supraoptic nucleus and restricts water loss at the kidneys.
C) is secreted from the preoptic area.
D) coordinates the autonomic activities that regulate heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration.
E) has none of the above attributes.
B) is secreted from the supraoptic nucleus and restricts water loss at the kidneys.
21) Damage to which cranial nerve(s) would reduce a person's ability to taste salty and sweet foods?
A) IX B) IX, X, XI C) VII D) XII E) VII, IX, X
E) VII, IX, X
22) Conscious thought processes and all intellectual functions originate in (the)
A) cerebral hemispheres.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) corpus callosum.
D) cerebellum.
E) none of the above.
A) cerebral hemispheres.
23) Information in the optic tract synapses in the
A) pulvinar nucleus.
B) lateral geniculate nucleus.
C) medial geniculate nucleus.
D) infundibulum.
E) ventral posterior nucleus.
B) lateral geniculate nucleus.
24) Cranial nerves that have autonomic components include
A) IV, V, VI, VII.
B) I, II, III.
C) III, VII, IX, X.
D) VIII, XI, XII.
E) none of the above combinations.
C) III, VII, IX, X.
25) Which organ contains 98 percent of the neurons in the body?
A) brain
B) spinal cord
C) nerves
D) thalamus
E) none of the above
A) brain
1) Which cranial nerves are responsible for all aspects of eye function?
A) I, II, VII
B) II, III, IV, V, VI
C) V, VII, VIII
D) IX, XI, XII
E) none of the above combinations.
B) II, III, IV, V, VI
2) The largest region of the brain is (the)
A) cerebrum.
B) brain stem.
C) cerebellum.
D) diencephalon.
E) none of the above.
A) cerebrum.
3) Another name for the pituitary gland is the
A) medulla.
B) diencephalon.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hypophysis.
E) pineal gland.
D) hypophysis.
4) The cerebral hemispheres are separated by (the)
A) lateral ventricles.
B) central sulcus.
C) coronal fissure.
D) longitudinal fissure.
E) none of the above.
D) longitudinal fissure.
5) A person who has a very difficult time in controlling the amount of food that he or she eats might have which of the following problems in the brain?
A) a lesion in the frontal lobes of the cerebrum
B) damage to the pons
C) a tumor in the thalamus
D) damage to the corpus callosum
E) a lesion in the hypothalamus
E) a lesion in the hypothalamus
6) Swelling of the jugular vein as it leaves the skull could compress which of the following cranial nerves?
A) VIII, IX, XII
B) IX, X, XI
C) V, VII
D) I, IV, V
E) II, IV, VI
B) IX, X, XI
7) The thalamus
A) is the initial processing center for most motor output to the spinal cord.
B) contains centers that are involved with emotions and visceral processes.
C) performs many voluntary functions.
D) forms the walls of the diencephalon around the third ventricle.
E) has none of the above attributes.
D) forms the walls of the diencephalon around the third ventricle.
8) Structurally, the blood- brain barrier exists because
A) only water- soluble compounds are permitted to enter by passive diffusion.
B) the endothelial cells lining the CNS are extensively interconnected by tight junctions.
C) normal blood flow is at a pressure too high for the delicate brain tissue.
D) the hypothalamus regulates the permeability of the blood vessels.
E) None of the above explains the existence of the blood- brain barrier.
B) the endothelial cells lining the CNS are extensively interconnected by tight junctions.
9) The substance that surrounds the brain and is very similar to blood plasma minus proteins is
A) arachnoid granulations.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
C) subarachnoid fluid.
D) choroid.
E) none of the above.
B) cerebrospinal fluid.
10) Physical connections of the medulla include
A) descending tracts, but not ascending tracts, to the brain.
B) all fibers connecting the brain to the spinal cord.
C) direct links between the spinal cord and cerebral hemispheres.
D) ascending tracts, but not descending tracts, from the brain.
E) both B and C
B) all fibers connecting the brain to the spinal cord.
11) In the mesencephalon, integrating visual information with other sensory inputs and initiating involuntary motor responses are functions of the
A) red nucleus.
B) substantia nigra.
C) superior colliculi.
D) cerebral peduncles.
E) A and B.
C) superior colliculi.
12) The suprachiasmatic nucleus
A) outputs to the hypothalamic nuclei.
B) coordinates daily cycles.
C) regulates the pineal gland.
D) receives input directly from the retina.
E) does all of the above.
B) coordinates daily cycles.
13) Together the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are called the
A) cerebellum.
B) diencephalon.
C) rhombencephalon.
D) gray matter.
E) brain stem.
B) diencephalon.
14) Where is the headquarters of the reticular formation located?
A) diencephalon
B) myelencephalon
C) mesencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) telencephalon
C) mesencephalon
15) Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI all exit the cranium through (the)
A) superior orbital fissure.
B) optic canal.
C) internal acoustic meatus.
D) inferior orbital fissure.
E) none of the above.
A) superior orbital fissure.
16) Components of the metencephalon include the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) thalamus and cerebellum.
C) cerebrum and cerebellum.
D) cerebellum and pons.
E) C and D.
D) cerebellum and pons.
17) The anterior portion of the insula is responsible for
A) taste.
B) smell.
C) sight.
D) speech.
E) none of the above.
A) taste.
18) Which white matter fibers connect adjacent gyri?
A) arcuate fibers
B) commissural fibers
C) projection fibers
D) longitudinal fasciculi fibers
E) association fibers
A) arcuate fibers
18) The trigeminal nerve
A) is the smallest of the cranial nerves.
B) has motor neurons that originate on the pons.
C) provides sensory information only from the mandibular region.
D) transmits motor information only through its ophthalmic and maxillary branches.
E) does none of the above.
B) has motor neurons that originate on the pons.
19) The hippocampus
A) lies in the lateral wall of the lateral ventricle.
B) is a tract of white matter that connects the fornix to the cingulate gyrus.
C) functions to control mood.
D) lies in proximity to the parahippocampal gyrus.
E) has the attributes of B and D.
D) lies in proximity to the parahippocampal gyrus.
20) Damage to which cranial nerve(s) would render you unable to blink your eye when a small bug flew into it?
A) II B) VIII, IX C) III D) V, VII E) I
D) V, VII
21) Deep white matter of the cerebrum is called
A) cerebral nuclei.
B) projection fibers.
C) the cerebral cortex.
D) fissures.
E) none of the above.
B) projection fibers.
22) The primary motor cortex is connected with motor neurons in the brain stem and spinal cord, and ascending sensory information is carried to the thalamus by (the)
A) red nucleus.
B) tectum.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) inferior colliculi.
E) none of the above.
C) cerebral peduncles.
23) The epithalamus controls day and night cycles through the secretion of the hormone
A) acetylcholine.
B) melatonin.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) DHEA.
E) oxytocin.
B) melatonin.
24) The fornix
A) is an integral part of the reticular formation.
B) connects the parahippocampal gyrus with the thalamus.
C) contains many fibers that end in the caudate nucleus.
D) links the hippocampus with the hypothalamus.
E) is present in only one cerebral hemisphere, typically the left.
D) links the hippocampus with the hypothalamus.
25) The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain is (the)
A) parieto- occipital sulcus.
B) longitudinal fissure.
C) lateral sulcus.
D) central sulcus.
E) none of the above.
D) central sulcus.
1) Regulating motor output associated with muscle tone is the function of which mesencephalic center?
A) amygdaloid body
B) inferior colliculi
C) substantia nigra
D) cerebral peduncles
E) red nucleus
E) red nucleus
2) The somatic motor association area, also called the premotor cortex, is responsible for
A) voluntary skeletal activity.
B) subconscious, voluntary activity.
C) patterned, learned activity.
D) involuntary motor skills.
E) none of the above.
C) patterned, learned activity.
3) The inferior portion of the prosencephalon becomes the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) diencephalon.
D) medulla.
E) pons.
C) diencephalon.
4) Within the medulla oblongata, heart rate and force of contraction are regulated in the
A) cardiac centers.
B) olivary nuclei.
C) nucleus cuneatus.
D) decussation of the pyramids.
E) ascending tracts of white matter.
A) cardiac centers.
5) The sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles are innervated by which cranial nerve?
A) VII B) XII C) X D) IX E) XI
E) XI
6) Which of the following is true of the dura mater?
A) It follows precisely and adheres closely to the contours of the brain tissue.
B) It consists of three layers around the brain only.
C) The outer (endosteal) layer is fused to the periosteum of the cranial bones.
D) It contains the subarachnoid spaces.
E) None of the above are true.
C) The outer (endosteal) layer is fused to the periosteum of the cranial bones.
7) Compounds that diffuse passively across the blood- brain barrier
A) move equally freely in both directions.
B) are water soluble.
C) do so in proportions equal to their presence in the bloodstream.
D) are lipid soluble.
E) do all of the above.
D) are lipid soluble.
8) The limbic system
A) includes nuclei and tracts along the border between the diencephalon and metencephalon.
B) establishes emotional states and related behavioral drives.
C) induces an individual to go to sleep.
D) maintains consciousness.
E) does none of the above.
B) establishes emotional states and related behavioral drives.
9) The olfactory nerves exit the cranium through the
A) cribriform plate.
B) optic foramen.
C) olfactory bulbs.
D) nasal conchae.
E) olfactory canal.
A) cribriform plate.
10) Which unique function of the brain occurs in the postcentral gyrus?
A) returns cerebrospinal fluid into the circulatory system
B) provides voluntary motor control to the skeletal muscles
C) provides visceral motor responses, serving as center of the autonomic nervous system
D) receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste, and temperature
E) none of the above
D) receives primary sensory information of touch, pressure, pain, taste, and temperature
11) In which ways does the olfactory nerve (N I) differ from the other cranial nerves?
A) It contains somatic motor as well as autonomic components.
B) The olfactory tract is actually a part of the cerebrum, and not truly a nerve.
C) It is made up of many small, slender fibers that pass through openings in the skull.
D) It does not differ from the other cranial nerves in any significant way.
E) Both B and C describe ways the olfactory nerve differs from other cranial nerves.
E) Both B and C describe ways the olfactory nerve differs from other cranial nerves.
12) Which of the following apply to the cranial nerves?
A) They all connect directly to peripheral receptors or effectors.
B) They are all mixed nerves, with both sensory and motor functions.
C) They are motor only, from the brain to peripheral effectors.
D) They are components of the PNS that connect to the brain.
E) None of the above apply to the cranial nerves.
B) They are all mixed nerves, with both sensory and motor functions.
13) Which cranial nerves have their nuclei housed in the pons?
A) V, VII, VIII, IX
B) IV, V, VI, VII
C) IV, V, VII
D) V, VI, VII, VIII
E) VII, VIII, IX
D) V, VI, VII, VIII
14) The parietal lobe is primarily used for
A) sensory functions.
B) motor functions.
C) perception of auditory stimuli.
D) perception of visual stimuli.
E) none of the above.
A) sensory functions.
15) Thalamic nuclei function to
A) relay information to the occipital lobes.
B) relay sensory information to the cerebral nuclei and cerebral cortex.
C) pass motor information to the descending tracts and to the spinal cord.
D) relay information to the mamillary bodies.
E) do none of the above.
B) relay sensory information to the cerebral nuclei and cerebral cortex.
16) The central sulcus separates which regions of the cerebrum?
A) the sensory and motor areas
B) the pyramidal cells and the frontal lobes
C) the temporal and insular lobes
D) the parietal and occipital lobes
E) none of the above
A) the sensory and motor areas
17) Materials are able to enter the CSF from the blood supply because
A) the capillaries of the choroid plexus are highly permeable, allowing free exchange.
B) there is always a lower concentration gradient in the CSF of all needed molecules.
C) specialized ependymal cells use both active and passive transport to secrete CSF.
D) both A and B are true.
E) of none of the above.
C) specialized ependymal cells use both active and passive transport to secrete CSF.
18) The CSF produced by the choroid plexus of the brain circulates through the
A) ventricles of the brain.
B) central canal of the spinal cord.
C) dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerves.
D) cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexuses.
E) A and B.
E) A and B.
19) The primary purpose of the blood- brain barrier is to
A) isolate the CNS from general circulation.
B) hook areas of the brain together.
C) drain blood from the brain.
D) provide the brain with oxygen.
E) do none of the above.
A) isolate the CNS from general circulation.
20) Which is the only cranial nerve to leave the head and neck region?
A) XII
B) X
C) VII
D) V
E) all of the above
B) X
21) If damaged or diseased, which part of the brain would make a person unable to control and regulate the rate of respiratory movements?
A) the olivary nucleus of the medulla oblongata
B) the vasomotor center of the medulla
C) the pneumotaxic center of the pons
D) the respiratory rhythmicity center of the medulla
E) the cerebral peduncles of the mesencephalon
C) the pneumotaxic center of the pons
22) The largest cerebral lobe is the ________ lobe.
A) insular B) frontal C) temporal D) parietal E) occipital
B) frontal
23) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
A) the ability to taste.
B) the ability to hear.
C) voluntary motor control.
D) perception of pain.
E) the ability to see
C) voluntary motor control.
24) Which event occurs first as an individual grows and ages?
A) The ossification centers of the occipital bone fuse.
B) The adult dentition appears.
C) The hyoid bone finishes ossifying and fusing.
D) The metopic suture closes.
E) The styloid process fuses to the temporal bone
A) The ossification centers of the occipital bone fuse.
25) Muscles of the head and neck that are innervated by the facial nerve are associated with
A) those that govern feeding.
B) those that govern verbal communication.
C) actions that orient the eyes.
D) actions that form facial expressions.
E) none of the above.
D) actions that form facial expressions.
1) Which of the following is the major action of the neck musculature?
A) moving the rib cage.
B) positioning the head.
C) stabilizing the pectoral girdle to allow more precise forelimb movements.
D) positioning the spinal column.
E) none of the above.
B) positioning the head.
2) Which muscle has three attachments to bone?
A) mylohyoid
B) sternohyoid
C) stylohyoid
D) sternocleidomastoid
E) thyrohyoid
D) sternocleidomastoid
3) Muscles of facial expression most often insert into the
A) eyes.
B) skin.
C) bones of the face.
D) tongue.
E) muscles adjacent to them.
B) skin.
4) Nodding of the head as a person falls asleep sitting up involves primarily the muscles of (the)
A) cervicis region only.
B) cervicis and thoracis regions.
C) capitis and cervicis regions.
D) upper limb and pectoral girdle.
E) none of the above.
C) capitis and cervicis regions.
5) The trigeminal nerve controls which group of muscles?
A) muscles of facial expression
B) muscles of the pharynx
C) muscles of mastication
D) muscles of the tongue
E) muscles of the eye
C) muscles of mastication
6) Cranial nerve VII supplies the muscles of
A) the eyes.
B) the anterior neck.
C) mastication.
D) the tongue.
E) facial expression.
E) facial expression.
7) Which of the following muscles attach to the temporal bone?
A) geniohyoid.
B) mylohyoid.
C) stylohyoid.
D) styloglossus.
E) C and D both attach to the temporal bone.
E) C and D both attach to the temporal bone.
8) Which of the following is the deepest muscle of the floor of the oral cavity?
A) digastric
B) genioglossus
C) mylohyoid
D) thyrohyoid
E) geniohyoid
C) mylohyoid
9) The diaphragm muscle is innervated by
A) phrenic nerves.
B) subcostal nerves.
C) intercostal nerves.
D) cranial nerve X.
E) thoracic nerves.
A) phrenic nerves.
10) Which of the following features are common to the muscles of mastication?
A) They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint.
B) They allow a person to smile.
C) They share an oculomotor nerve innervation.
D) They are considered among the muscles of facial expression.
E) A and C are true.
A) They move the mandible at the temporomandibular joint.
11) Orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi, and platysma are part of the group of muscles known as muscles of
A) facial expression.
B) the extra- ocular region.
C) the tongue.
D) the pharynx.
E) mastication.
A) facial expression.
12) Which of the following muscles is the most massive muscle involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth?
A) temporalis
B) masseter
C) pterygoid
D) omohyoid
E) hyoglossus
A) temporalis
13) Which of the following muscles is involved in frowning?
A) masseter
B) risorius
C) depressor anguli oris
D) frontalis
E) zygomaticus major
C) depressor anguli oris
14) Which muscles permit a person to curl the tongue into a roll along its long axis?
A) extrinsic tongue muscles
B) genioglossus muscle
C) hyoglossus muscle
D) styloglossus muscle
E) none of the above
D) styloglossus muscle
15) How do the extrinsic eye muscles differ in action from the intrinsic eye muscles?
A) The extrinsic eye muscles cannot produce the smooth movements of the intrinsic eye muscles.
B) The two muscle groups do not differ in movement types, only in when the movements occur.
C) Extrinsic eye muscles move the eyeball in relation to the rest of the body, whereas intrinsic muscles move structures within the eyeball.
D) The extrinsic muscles cause faster movements than do the intrinsic muscles.
E) None of the above explain the differences.
C) Extrinsic eye muscles move the eyeball in relation to the rest of the body, whereas intrinsic muscles move structures within the eyeball.
16) Which cranial nerve controls swallowing?
A) IV B) V C) VII D) X E) III
D) X
17) Which of the following bones bear teeth?
A) maxillae
B) mandible
C) palatine bones
D) all of the above
E) A and B only
E) A and B only
18) Which of the following describes the temporal bone?
A) covers the occipital lobes of the brain.
B) bears occipital condyles.
C) is paired in the adult.
D) contains the foramen magnum.
E) no exceptions; all of the above are true.
C) is paired in the adult.
19) The facial bone that is midsagittal structure is the
A) vomer.
B) lacrimal.
C) zygomatic.
D) palatine.
E) maxilla.
A) vomer.
20) Which bone makes up most of the floor of the orbit?
A) maxilla B) frontal C) sphenoid D) ethmoid E) palatine
A) maxilla
21) Which of the following is the largest paranasal sinus?
A) ethmoid B) maxillary C) temporal D) sphenoid E) frontal
B) maxillary
22) Which of the following is true of the foramen magnum?
A) It is located between the parietal and occipital bones.
B) It is the second largest foramen in the cranium.
C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone.
D) It allows passage of the carotid arteries into the head.
E) None of the above are true.
C) It is located in the inferior surface of the occipital bone.
23) Bones within the temporal bone that are important to hearing are called
A) external acoustic meatus.
B) acoustic bones.
C) auditory ossicles.
D) internal acoustic meatus.
E) none of the above.
C) auditory ossicles.
24) The small depression on temporal bone that the mandibular condyle fits into is called (the)
A) mandibular fossa.
B) temporal foramen.
C) temporal fossa.
D) mandibular foramen.
E) none of the above.
A) mandibular fossa.
25) Which of the following features belongs to the occipital bone?
A) mandibular foramen
B) hypoglossal canal
C) mental foramen
D) coronoid process
E) mylohyoid line
B) hypoglossal canal
1) Someone who is referred to as having a "strong jaw" likely has a very prominent
A) mandibular notch.
B) mandibular body.
C) mandibular angle.
D) maxilla.
E) none of the above.
C) mandibular angle.
2) The bony structure of the orbit is composed of which of the following?
A) maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine only
B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine
C) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, sphenoid, palatine, lacrimal, and temporal
D) zygomatic, nasal, frontal, and sphenoid only
E) none of the above
B) ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, lacrimal, maxilla, zygomatic, and palatine
3) The structure that houses the pituitary gland is called the
A) lesser wing.
B) sella turcica.
C) crista galli.
D) dorsum sellae.
E) greater wing.
B) sella turcica.
4) The point of attachment for muscles that extend and rotate the head is the
A) styloid process.
B) posterior clinoid process.
C) inion.
D) articular tubercle.
E) mastoid process.
E) mastoid process.
5) Which of the following is a feature of the mandible?
A) coronoid process
B) palatal process
C) inferior orbital fissure
D) infraorbital foramen
E) orbital margin
A) coronoid process
6) Which of the following lists includes only facial bones?
A) frontals, nasals, parietals, and occipital
B) inferior conchae, vomer, ethmoid, nasal, lacrimals, and sphenoid
C) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals
D) sphenoid, ethmoid, maxillae, and mandible
E) None of the above combinations is correct.
C) maxillae, palatines, mandible, zygomatics, lacrimals
7) Bones of the skull that articulate with the zygomatic bone include (the)
A) maxillary bone.
B) frontal bone.
C) temporal bone.
D) sphenoid.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
8) Which of the following problems might be due to injury of structures associated with the hyoid bone?
A) difficulty in swallowing
B) laryngitis
C) soreness upon movement of the back of the tongue
D) A and B
E) A and C
E) A and C
9) Which of the following bones contain the cribriform foramina?
A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) frontal D) zygomatic E) maxillanjury
A) ethmoid
10) Which of the following features belongs to the maxillary bone?
A) metopic suture
B) supraorbital margins
C) lacrimal fossa
D) supraciliary arches
E) infraorbital foramen
E) infraorbital foramen
11) The death by strangulation of a murder victim in one of Agatha Christie's novels could be explained in anatomical terms as
A) irritation that caused rapid swelling of the tongue.
B) fracture of the hyoid bone and resultant collapse of the trachea.
C) compression of the upper portion of the chest.
D) blocking of the sinus passages.
E) none of the above.
B) fracture of the hyoid bone and resultant collapse of the trachea.
12) Which of the following is true of the inferior nasal conchae?
A) They are a part of the ethmoid bone.
B) They support the olfactory epithelium.
C) They form a part of the bridge of the nose.
D) They are located lateral to the nasal septum.
E) All of the above are true.
D) They are located lateral to the nasal septum.
13) Which of the following openings is found within the frontal bone?
A) optic canal
B) foramen ovale
C) foramen spinosum
D) foramen lacerum
E) superior orbital fissure
D) foramen lacerum
14) Paranasal sinuses are located within which of the following bones?
(1) frontal bone
(2) sphenoid
(3) ethmoid
(4) maxilla
(5) nasal bone
A) 1, 3, 5 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D) 1, 2, 3, 4 E) 3, 4, 5
D) 1, 2, 3, 4
15) The mastoid processes are part of what bone?
A) temporal B) sphenoid C) maxilla D) zygomatic E) occipital
A) temporal
16) Features of the maxillae include
A) sinuses.
B) alveolar processes.
C) inferior orbital foramina.
D) orbital rims.
E) all of the above.
E) all of the above.
17) The temporomandibular joint is
A) the suture between the temporal and maxillary bones.
B) the location of the insertion of the temporalis muscle.
C) the first suture to be completely ossified in the adult skull.
D) the site of the articulation between the cranium and mandible.
E) none of the above.
D) the site of the articulation between the cranium and mandible.
18) The large "soft spot" on top of an infant's head
A) is covered in fibrous connective tissue and is usually diamond shaped.
B) occurs where the parietal and frontal bones have not yet grown together.
C) is one of several fontanels in an infant skull.
D) is all of the above.
E) is A and B only.
D) is all of the above.
19) Which of the following structures makes up the inferior portion of the nasal septum?
A) cribriform plate
B) inferior nasal concha
C) vomer
D) perpendicular plate
E) none of the above
C) vomer
20) Which bone is not part of the skull?
A) sphenoid B) ethmoid C) zygomatic D) palatine E) hyoid
E) hyoid
21) The parietal, temporal, frontal, and occipital bones are part of (the)
A) skull.
B) facial bones.
C) cranium.
D) axial skeleton.
E) none of the above.
C) cranium.
22) Which of the following bones supports some of the weight of the brain?
A) parietal bones.
B) lacrimal bones.
C) the ethmoid bone.
D) frontal bones.
E) zygomatic bones.
D) frontal bones.
23) The coronal suture is the boundary between which bones?
A) parietal and temporal
B) nasal and vomer
C) frontal and nasal
D) frontal and sphenoid
E) frontal and parietal
E) frontal and parietal
24) Which of the following sutures is found in the infant but sometimes has no evident marking in the adult?
A) metopic B) coronal C) lambdoid D) sagittal E) squamous
A) metopic
25) Another name for the adenohypophysis is
A) hypophysis.
B) neurohypophysis.
C) anterior lobe.
D) pars intermedia.
E) none of the above.
C) anterior lobe.
1) How do the cells of the suprarenal medulla differ from other glandular cells?
A) They do not differ from other cells.
B) They are chief cells that have migrated from the kidneys.
C) They are a modified parasympathetic ganglion.
D) They form from modified sympathetic ganglionic neurons.
E) None of the above are differences between suprarenal medulla and other glandular cells.
D) They form from modified sympathetic ganglionic neurons.
2) Which of the following results from the overproduction of thyroid hormone?
A) Addison's disease
B) Graves' disease
C) aldosteronism
D) gynecomastia
E) diabetes mellitus
B) Graves' disease
3) The thyroid gland is located just anterior to the
A) trachea.
B) heart.
C) larynx.
D) esophagus.
E) spinal column.
A) trachea.
4) Hypothalamic centers regulate nervous and endocrine system activities by
A) acting as an endocrine organ, releasing ADH and oxytocin.
B) direct control over endocrine cells.
C) secreting regulatory hormones to control pituitary gland activities.
D) all of the above.
E) none of the above.
D) all of the above.
5) The lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the
A) isthmus.
B) infundibulum.
C) medulla.
D) thyroid chiasm.
E) cortex.
A) isthmus.
6) The two hormones released by the neurohypophysis are
A) thyroid hormone and somatotropin.
B) GH and prolactin.
C) ADH and oxytocin.
D) estrogen and progesterone.
E) none of the above.
C) ADH and oxytocin.
7) Hormones released into the interstitial fluid by the anterior pituitary enter the circulation easily because
A) they are brought through the choroid plexus by active transport.
B) a strong countercurrent mechanism maintains a concentration gradient that draws them in.
C) the adjacent capillaries are fenestrated to permit passage of large molecules into the circulation.
D) they pass easily through the infundibulum.
E) of none of the above
C) the adjacent capillaries are fenestrated to permit passage of large molecules into the circulation.
8) Calcitriol is
A) released in response to PTH.
B) a form of vitamin D.
C) used to increase blood calcium levels.
D) a steroid.
E) all of the above.
A) released in response to PTH.
9) Which of the following describes the function of C cells?
A) They produce the hormone calcitonin.
B) Their secretions assist the function of parathyroid hormone.
C) They lie among the cuboidal follicle cells in the thyroid gland.
D) They are larger than the cells of the follicular epithelium.
E) These cells do not stain as clearly as do the follicular cells.
A) They produce the hormone calcitonin.
10) Releasing hormones (RH) directly cause
A) an increase in thyroid function.
B) androgen secretion.
C) all types of hormones to increase secretion.
D) increased pancreatic secretion.
E) increased secretion from the anterior pituitary.
E) increased secretion from the anterior pituitary.
11) The hormone that acts to oppose the effects of calcitonin is
A) secreted by the parathyroid glands.
B) triiodothyronine.
C) parathyroid hormone.
D) secreted by the thymus.
E) A and C.
C) parathyroid hormone.
12) Decreased levels of parathyroid hormone could result in
A) muscle spasms.
B) a depressed immune system.
C) profuse urination.
D) increased sweating.
E) all of the above.
A) muscle spasms.
13) The hypophyseal portal system allows
A) wastes from the brain to stimulate the pituitary.
B) the blood brain barrier to include the pituitary gland.
C) regulating hormones to go directly from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
D) blood from the brain to drain to the internal jugular vein.
E) all of the above.
C) regulating hormones to go directly from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
14) The anterior pituitary can be divided into three regions:
A) pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia.
B) adenohypophysis, hypophyseal portal, and neurohypophysis.
C) neurohypophysis, infundibulum, and adenohypophysis.
D) supraoptic, suprachiasmatic, and paraventricular nuclei.
E) none of the above.
A) pars distalis, pars tuberalis, and pars intermedia.
15) The most important hormone produced by the pineal gland is
A) melatonin.
B) renin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) somatostatin.
E) none of the above.
A) melatonin.
16) Steps in the swallowing process, in the correct order, include:
(1) isolation of the nasopharynx
(2) compression of the bolus against the hard palate
(3) elevation of the soft palate
(4) opening of the upper esophageal sphincter and peristaltic movement of the bolus
(5) retraction of the tongue to force the bolus into the pharynx
(6) elevation of the larynx and folding of the epiglottis to direct the bolus past the glottis
A) 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4, 6
D) 6, 3, 4, 2, 1, 5
E) 2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4
E) 2, 5, 3, 1, 6, 4
17) Teeth that appear in the first two years of life are called
A) milk teeth.
B) primary teeth.
C) baby teeth.
D) deciduous teeth.
E) All of the above are acceptable terms.
E) All of the above are acceptable terms.
18) The mouth opens into the
A) pharynx.
B) nasal cavity.
C) buccal cavity.
D) oral cavity.
E) C and D.
E) C and D.
19) The mouth opens into the
A) pharynx.
B) nasal cavity.
C) buccal cavity.
D) oral cavity.
E) C and D.
E) C and D.
20) Which of the following are salivary glands?
(1) parotid
(2) sublingual
(3) submandibular
(4) geniculate
(5) maxillary
A) all of the above
B) none of the above
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 4
E) 1, 2, 3
E) 1, 2, 3
21) Damage to which nerve would make it impossible for a person to protrude the tongue?
A) N VII B) N IX C) N X D) N XII E) A and B
D) N XII
22) The hardest substance in the body is
A) pulp.
B) cementum.
C) bone.
D) enamel.
E) dentine.
D) enamel.
23) The hardest substance in the body is
A) pulp.
B) cementum.
C) bone.
D) enamel.
E) dentine.
D) enamel.
24) The tongue has many bumps called the
A) body. B) papillae. C) septa. D) frenulum. E) lingum
B) papillae.
25) The periodontal ligament is part of a strong joint known as the
A) gomphosis.
B) tooth socket.
C) cemental joint.
D) suture.
E) alveolus.
A) gomphosis.
1) The visible portion of a tooth is the
A) body. B) crown. C) neck. D) root. E) head.
B) crown.
2) Which phase or phases of the swallowing process are voluntary?
A) pharyngeal phase
B) esophageal phase
C) buccal phase
D) laryngeal phase
E) B and D
C) buccal phase
3) Premolars are also called
A) bicuspids.
B) cuspids.
C) incisors.
D) canines.
E) wisdom teeth.
A) bicuspids.
4) The upper and lower teeth close on one another by touching their ________ surfaces.
A) buccal B) occlusal C) distal D) lingual E) mesial
B) occlusal
5) A blockage of the ducts from the parotid salivary glands would
A) eliminate the sense of taste.
B) result in the production of a more viscous saliva.
C) impair the lubricating properties of the saliva.
D) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
E) do all of the above.
D) interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.
6) What structures are being irritated when a person is hiccoughing?
A) all of the nerves of the brachial plexus
B) the infrahyoid and intrinsic laryngeal muscles
C) the diaphragm and the phrenic nerve
D) the suprahyoid muscles
E) none of the above
C) the diaphragm and the phrenic nerve
7) The surface of the teeth of the lower jaw nearest the tongue is called the ________ surface.
A) buccal B) lingual C) palatal D) mesial E) occlusal
B) lingual
8) Salivary amylase is secreted by the
A) frenulum.
B) submandibular salivary gland.
C) papillae.
D) parotid salivary gland.
E) sublingual salivary gland.
D) parotid salivary gland.
9) The esophagus
A) is reinforced by cartilaginous structures.
B) is under both voluntary and autonomic nervous control.
C) always remains open.
D) is a hollow muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach.
E) has all of the above attributes
D) is a hollow muscular tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach.
10) The bulk of a tooth that is very similar to bone is called
A) cementum.
B) root.
C) pulp.
D) dentine.
E) enamel.
D) dentine.
11) ________ are large lymphoid nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.
A) Peyer's patches
B) Lymph nodes
C) Tonsils
D) thymic corpuscles
E) Thymus glands
C) Tonsils
12) Adenoids are the ________ tonsil.
A) palatine
B) laryngeal
C) pharyngeal
D) lingual
E) none of the above
C) pharyngeal
13) If the thyroid gland of a person is removed because of hyperthyroidism or some other disease, what lymphoid organ may also be removed or damaged inadvertently?
A) the thoracic lymph nodes
B) the cervical lymph nodes
C) the spleen
D) Peyer's patches
E) None of the lymphoid organs is at risk when the thyroid gland is removed.
B) the cervical lymph nodes
14) When is the thymus most active?
A) during old age
B) from puberty to adulthood
C) during infancy and youth
D) during middle age
E) throughout life
C) during infancy and youth
15) The capsule that covers the thymus divides it into
A) many lobules.
B) several reservoirs for storage of hormones.
C) several unstructured nodules.
D) two thymic lobes.
E) B and D.
D) two thymic lobes.
16) Tonsils located at the base of the tongue are called the
A) lingual tonsils.
B) epiglottal tonsils.
C) esophageal tonsils.
D) palatine tonsils.
E) pharyngeal tonsils
A) lingual tonsils.
17) The lobes of the thymus are separated by connective tissue into
A) lobules.
B) septa.
C) cortices.
D) medullae.
E) none of the above.
A) lobules.
18) Antibodies attack
A) B cells.
B) foreign cells.
C) viruses.
D) antigens.
E) A and C.
D) antigens.
19) In which of the following "glands" is a physician checking for infection when palpating under the mandible and ear?
A) submandibular lymph nodes
B) cervical lymph nodes
C) submental lymph nodes
D) parotid lymph nodes
E) all of the above
E) all of the above
20) The middle ear includes which of the following?
A) pinna.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) external auditory canal.
D) auditory tube.
E) ceruminous glands.
D) auditory tube.
21) Information about pressure and gas concentration in the common carotid artery travels to the medulla via (the)
A) vagus nerve.
B) glossopharyngeal nerve.
C) thoracic nerves.
D) cervical nerves.
E) none of the above.
B) glossopharyngeal nerve.
22) The auditory ossicles connect (the)
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) cochlea to the tympanic membrane.
C) cochlea to the round window.
D) tympanic membrane to the round window.
E) none of the above.
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
23) Calcium carbonate crystals in the utricle and saccule are called
A) otoliths.
B) statoconia.
C) stones.
D) maculae.
E) none of the above.
B) statoconia.
24) Damage to the fovea of the eye interferes with the ability to
A) focus the image.
B) regulate the amount of light striking the retina.
C) see color.
D) bleach visual pigments.
E) do none of the above.
C) see color.
25) Most taste buds are located on (the)
A) filiform papillae.
B) pharyngeal wall.
C) fungiform papillae.
D) circumvallate papillae.
E) none of the above.
D) circumvallate papillae.