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111 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
how is growth defined in the context of bacteria
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an increase in cell number
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How do microbes increase their cell number (forms of replication 3)
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binary fission, budding, filamentous growth
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describe binary fission
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separation of the mother cell into two daughter cells of aproximately equal size
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describe budding
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asymmetric creation of a bud on the mother cell that eventually is severed, demonstrated by yeast and some bacteria like caulobacter
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describe filamentous growth
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formation of long, branching, non divided filaments containing multiple chromosomes, sometimes have cross walls, some filaments become form spores
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what is plotted on each axis of a growth curve graph?
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x axis- time in hours
y axis- cell number on log scale |
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What are the four phases of growth
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lag, exponential (aka log or balanced), stationary, death
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describe the lag phase
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MO adapts to new nutrients, synthesize RNA, protein, and replicate DNA before starting division, no net increase in cell number
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describe the exponential growth phase
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enzymes are available, maximal division rate, can last for hour or days
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describe the stationary phase
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no increase in cell number because cells stop divding or rate of division equals the rate of death, limitation or nutrients or accumulation of waste products, can last for hours or days
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describe the death phase
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exponential decrease in cell number due to cell death, some MO's don't have a death phase or it is dealyed because they can survive w/o nutreints
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How can growth be measured?
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increase in cell number or increase in cellular macromolecule such as DNA or protein
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How can cell numbers be measured?
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viable plate count, turbidometric measurement
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define turbidity
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the light scattering of a culture, visable as cloudiness, measured with spectrophotometer
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describe the equation T=I/Io and what it meanse
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this is the equation to measure transmitence (T), Io is the light that enters the sample and I is the light that reaches the detector, the amount of light scattered correlates to the turbidity and thus cell number of a culture
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Why is transmittence not a good unit for measuring growth
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Since T=I/Io, T decreases as the turbidity of the culture i.e. growth increases, also it is logarithmically related to the concentration
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given that transmitence is not a conveniant way to measure growth, what unit is used instead?
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Absorbance, A=-log(T)
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How can the light scattering ability or absorption of a sample be measured effectivley
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a small portion of the spectrum emitted must be used, if more than one part is used, they will absorb or sactter differntly destroying the correlation of cell number with abs
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how is a single wavelength selected in a spectrophometer
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a monochromator contains a filter, a prism, or a diffraction grating slit taht breaks white light into its component wavelengths
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Which wavelength is typically used to meausre cell number and why?
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600nm, in general shorter wavelengths are better because they are more sensitive but some cannot be used because cellular components absorb light (proteins @280), the color of the media also matters so for our experiment, 600 works well with clear yellow media
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describe the cuvette and how to handle it properly
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it is used to contain the sample, it must be clean and free of aberrations which could scatter light ans mess up results
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What must you zero the spec?
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zeroing it sets the transmitence to 100% and makes sure that only turbidity from the bacteria is measured and not the media or other things
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why is it bad to let a sample dry in a cuvette
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the proteins and amino acids stick to the sides and mess up readings
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what is the range of acceptable abs values
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0.1- 1.0, below 0.1 is below the limit of the spec because it is not that sensitive concentrate with centrifuge, above 1 results in MOs shaddowing one another and they cannot be detected properly dilute with sterile medium
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what is the equation for growth rate
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k= (3.32 log10 (N2/N1))/ (t2-t1)
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what is the equation for generation time
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Tgen= T/n= 1/k
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why are growth rate equations useful
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they can compare growth between two cultures
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what does the growth rate depend on
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conditions of incubation and the medium used
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what is a response to changes in environment often dependent on?
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the de novo production of enzymes to metabolism the nutrient in uestion aka enzyme induction
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what does the bgal enzyme do?
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it adds water to the beta linkage of lactose splitting it into glucose and galactose
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What 3 genes compose the lac operon
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lacZ, lacY, and lacA
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where is the gene for the repressor of the operon, lacI located
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it is located upstream of the lacZYA genes, before the operon!
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what does the lacZ gene encode
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the bgalactosidase enzyme
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what does the lac Y gene code for
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galactose permease which transports lactose across the cellular membrane
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what does the lacA gene encode for?
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thigalactoside transacetylase, the purpose in lactose metabolism is unknown
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describe the promoter for LacZ,Y, and A
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they are transcribed by RNA polymerase from one promoter (plac) located upstream of the LacZ gene
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what happens to the operon when lactose is not present
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the repressor binds to the operator sequence which is located between plac and lacZ, this prevents RNA polymerase from biding
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When lactose reaches the cell, bgal acts on this. How can this occur if bgal is not produced in the absence of lactose
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a small amount of transcription occurs consituativley, this small amount of Bgal acts on the lactose and converts a small amount into allolactose (also makes glucose and galactose) this allolactose binds to the repressor and casues it to fall off the operator and allows transcription to occur
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how is the repressor removed from the operator site
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the small amount of bgal avaiable turns the lactose into allolactose. the allolactose binds to the repressor and causes it to fall off the operator site
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In addition to the repressor being removed from the operator, what else must occur to get significant transcription from the lac operon
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CRP must bind near the promoter, this protein is activated by high levels fo cAMP which is high when the cell is starving for energy
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Describe how CRP becomes active
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when the cell is starving for energy, cAMP levels are high. cAMP bindsto CRP and activates it. The complex binds to the lac operon and activates it
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why is beneficial to require CRP to activate the lac operon
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it prevents the lac operon from being turned on when glucose is present. Glucose is a more efficeint source of energy so it is beneficial not to induce the operon when glucose could be used instead
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describe an end point assay
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an enzyme, its substrate, and necessary compounds are mixed together, the enzyme then converts the substrate to product, the increase in product or decrease in substrate is measured over a set period of time. the final amount of product produced or substrate lost in the time period is proportional to the concentration of teh enzyme present
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What are the 4 features of a good enzyme assay
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1. absolute specificity
2. high sensitivity 3. accuracy and precision 4. convenience |
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what is ONPG used instead of lactose in the bgal assay
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it is more conveient to measure because bgal breaks the galactosdie bond and splits it into colorless galactose and yellow and basic ONP which can be easily measured w/ spec or pH
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How is enzyme activity represented?
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units defined as the number of micromoles of substrate converted to product in 1 minute usually at 30C
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why is toluene added to the bgal assay
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it permeablizes the cell and allows substrates to pass in and out
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explain how to calculate bgal activity from absorbance (4 steps)
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1. use beer's law to figue out the concentration of ONP from A 420, concentration= absorbance/ extinction coefficient * length of light path c= Abs/ 1.1x10^3 x1
2. multiply by the total voume of the assay 3. divide by the assay time 4. divide by A600 |
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how can MOs be controlled
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killing or inhbiting their growth
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define antimicrobial agent
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any compound capale of killing or inhbiting the growth of an MO
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what term is used to describe compounds that inhibit MO growth but don't kill
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static ex "bacteriostatic", bacteriostatics at low [] can be bactericidal at high []
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define disinfectant
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bactericidal agents that are also toxic to humans and cannot be applied to living tissue ex Lysol
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define antispetics
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kill MOs but are safte to use on skin and mucous membranes (contrast w/ disinfectants which are unsafe on humans) ex lyserine, scope
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define antibiotic
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chemical compound that is produced by one MO and kills or inhibits another, for it to be useful it cannot be a toxic to the patient at a concentration that kills MOs, most successful antibiotics attack MO enzymatic systems that are different or not present in humans
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what determines an MOs sensitivity to antibiotics
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enzymatic and structural constitution
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define broad spectrum antibiotic
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effective against many diverse MOs
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how does the disk agar diffusion test show the efficacy of an anitibiotic agent
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if a zone of clearing appears around the disk, the agent is effective, the degree of clearing is compared to definitions of resistent, intermediate, or suceptible
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an important consideration of an isolation protocol
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the need for seletice enrichment, depends on population of the desired organism in the source material, if high plate directly onto selective media, if low enrich using seletive enrichment first
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name the four major considerations of enrichment that take advantage of the microbe's biochemical and physiological properteies that favor growth
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1. choice of inoculum, the source needs to contain the desired bacteria at a resonable concentration
2. pretreatment- heat shocking, etc to remove other microbes 3. choice of medium- compounds inhibit the growth of unwanted contaminants 4. suitable incubation conditions |
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what does Enteric Enrichment browth contain that inhibits unwanted organisms
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bile salts (oxgall) and brilliant green
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describe streptomyces
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gram positive, spore forming bacteria. chemoorganoheterotrophs, grow best at 25C, pH 8-9, break down complex carbons, important for soil enrichment
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describe streptomyces colonies
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tough, leathery, frequently pigmented colonies, filamnetous growth
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what are geosmins
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volatile low molecular weight compunds producted by streptomyces that give soil its characteristic smell
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how does actionmycete isolation agar (AIA) help select for streptomyces?
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an enrichment step is not necessary because soil has tons of streptomyces, AIA contains starch and sodium caseinate as teh sole carbon and energy sources, only organisms that can break these down like molds and streptomyces can grow. sodium propinoate is also added to inhibit mold
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describe enterobacteriaceae
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gram negative, non sporulating, short rods, motile by peritrichous flagella or non motle, simple nutritional requirements, faculatitive anaerobes that ferment glucose to acid under anaerobic conditions
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Describe how the method used to ferment glucose can differentiate between differnt enteric bacteria
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mixed acid- ferment glucose anaerbically to lactic, succinic, acetic, and formic acid, ethanol, CO2, and H2,
Butanediol- all of these products plus butanediol, less acid is produced b/c neutral end products |
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what tests can be preformed to distinguish between the two types of fermentation used by enteric bacteria?
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Vogues-Proskauer test
methyl red test |
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Describe shigella
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close relative of E coli, pathogenic, diarrheal ilness with colonization and attack of the intestines, fever, cramps, bloody diarrhea w/ mucous, can be caused by ingestion of fewer than 100 organisms, improperly prepared food and contaminated water
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describe salmonella
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infects humans, mammals, birds, retpiles, two species S. bongori and S. choleraesuis w/ 7 subgroups and 2500 serovars distinguished by cell wall and flagellar antigens, important serovars include S. enterica, S. enteritidis, and S. heidelberg, cause gastroenteritis of varying degrees w or w/o bacteremia, contaiminated food >106 cells/ml or g, sxs 8-30 hrs after ingestion, nausea, fever, diarrhea, abdominal pain, usually subside post 1-2 days
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give and example of exceptionally dangerous salmonella
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host dapted biochemically distinct serovars, S. typhi- typhoid fever, S. cholerae-suis "hog cholera" and S> gallinarum "fowl typhoid"
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Describe the genus Edwardsiella
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disease in humans and vertebrates, E. tarda opportunistic pathogen for humans woudn infection and gastroenteritis, E. tarda and E. ictaluri cased incetions of comercially raised catfish
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Describe the genus Yersinia
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Y. enterololitica- gastroenteritis, Y. pestis- bubonic plage
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describe the genera proteus, providencia and morganella
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nonpathogenic, can deaminate phenylalanine, fish and seafood spoilage, Proteus forms wierd swarming patterns that have concentric ring shape
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describe citrobacter
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nonpathogenic enteric, can give false positives to salmonella food tests
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describe Erwinia
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pathogenic for plants, cause soft rots and wilts of crops and veggies
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describe serratia
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red pigmented colonies
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define coliform
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non-sporeforming, facultatively anaerobic gram negative rod which ferments lactose to acid and gas withing 48 hrs at 35C, usually enterobacteriaceae of genera enterobacter, klebsiella, and escherichia
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describe Klebsiella
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use N2 as sole nitrogen source, insights into nitrogen fixation, K. pneumoniae can cause pneumonia in hiumans found in water, soil, plant material
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name some diseases that can be transmitted by fecal contamination in the water supply
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polio, typhoid, cholera, hepatitis, shigellosis, salmonellosis
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What are the four properties that an indicator organism must have to be useful for water analysis
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1. the only natural environemtn of the microbe should be in assocation with feces and it should be always present
2. it should not grow outside of its natural environment 3. the bacterium should survive longer than the most viable pathogen but not so long so that historical events are detected 4. It shoudl be easy to detect |
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Why are enterobacter and klebsiella not good indicators of fecal pollution
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they are able to survive and multiply in the environment
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what is the water quality demand for drinking water and swiming pool
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>1 coliform/100ml
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which bacteria make up the fecal coliforms that are good indicators of fecal pollution
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E. coli and K. pneumoniae
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what coliform levels are unacceptable for treated sewage or natural bathing beaches
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> 400/ 100ml or monthly geometric average > 200/ml
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describe the multiple tube fermentation test
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3 steps,presumptive, confirmed, completed, moderately seletive lactose broth medium with durham tube is used in the presumptive test to grow coliforms in from the sample, if tube has growth and gas the test is positive, confrimed tests makes sure that these were acutally coliforms, use seletive medium to elimate orther organisms if these are positive, completed test is used by streaking the highest dilution tube which gave a postive results onto EMB agar, after incubation colonies are evaluated for enteric properties
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what is the disadvantage of the multiple tube fermentation test for coliforms
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takes 3-5 days to complete
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describe the membrane filter technique to test for coliforms
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100ml or grate of sample passed through filter that retains bacteria, filter is placed onto seletive medium for coliforms
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what are the advantages of the membrane filter technique for testing for coliforms
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shorter time, low cost, higher accuracy in couting, simple
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what are the disadvantages to the membrane filter technique for testing for coliforms
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particulate samples can clog the filter, metals and phenols can stick to the filter and inhibit growth, non coliforms in the test sample may interfere wit hthe formation of coliform colonies on the plate
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Describe the presence-absence (P-A) test for coliforms
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large water sample (100ml) is mixed with tripple strength LLTB in single culture bottle. Brom cresol purple is added as pH indicator. If present, coliforms will ferment the lactose to acid and gase turning the media from purple to yellow
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Describe the Colilert defined substrate test for colifroms and e coli
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A 100ml sample is mixed with medium containing ONPG and MUG as the only nutrients, if coliforms are present, ONPG is metabolised resulting in yellow color, if E coli is present it will degreade MUG to a fluorescent product that can be detected by observation under long wave length UV light.
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What do the Colilert and P-A tests have in common
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they are preliminary, any positive results warrent further analysis of the sample
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breifly, how is the bacterial concentration determined in the MPN test
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we innoculate several tubes of ten fold dilutions. If the 10^-5 tube has growth but the 10^-6 doesn't, we know that the sample has more than 10^5 but less than 10^6 bacteria, by using multiple replicates of each diultion and statistical analysis, we can estimate the conentration
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How is the number of organisms assed in the MPN test
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counting the number of positives in the last three diltions showing growth
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Describe MAGC agar
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it's the same thing as MAC agar but uses glucose instead of lactose, inhibits gram positives, bacteria that form red colonies are probably enterics because the acid from fermentation leads to the precipitation of bile salts and absportion fo the red indicator
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describe EMB agar
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use to isolate enterics and gram negative bacteria, lactose fermenters will look dark purple because they absor eosin-methylene blue complex that forms in the presence of acid, E coli are blue black with green metallic sheen, media strongly inhibits gram positive bacteria
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describe KIA agar
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kligler's iron agar,used to differntiate entrics, organisms which ferment glucose but not lactose will produce acids indicated by yellow color, amount of acid from glucose fermentation is not sufficient to conteract teh alkaline reaction from teh aerbic deamination of amino acits in the medium, the slant region will appear red (alkaline) and the butt yellow, organisms which ferment lactose will produce enough acid to produce a yellow color, need to make obs in 18-24 hours, gas formation detected by bubbles or cracks in agar, hydrogen sulfide detected by black coloration, FeSO4 provides ferrous ions which react with the sulfide to pruduce the black indicator compound FeS
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What does it mean If a KIA slant has a red or orange butt
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the tube is negative for glucose fermentation because no net acid production occured
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what does it mean if a KIA slant has a yellow butt
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fermentation occured because the net acid produced was able to turn the KIA yellow
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What does it mean if a KIA slant has a red slant
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the isolate was only able to ferment the small amount of glucose in the medium, if it were able to ferment lactose, enough acid would have been produced to overwhelm the amino acid deamination in the slant causing a yellow color througout the medium
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what does it mead if a KIA media turns black
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the isolate producted H2S from tiosulfate, the H2S reacts with the Fe in the medium to form FeS which is black
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describe the ornithine decarboxylation test
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ornithine can be decarboxylated by some enterics, in a negative test, the glucose in the medium is fermented to cause a net acidic reaction and a yellow color. in a positive reaction, ornithine is decarboxylated anaerobically to produce a net alkaline reaction which turns the media purple or blue
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describe the lysine decraboxylase test
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two tubes are used, one tube contains DCB which has everything but lysine the other, LDB, has lysine. The bacteria is put in both broths. In the DCB tube, acid produced from glucose fermentation turns the medium yellow, all enterics should show this reaction, this tube is compared to the LDB tube. If lysine is decarboxylated the LDB tube will be darker than the DCB because the decarboxylation is an alkaline reaction. A positive result is if the DCB tube is aidic (yellow) and the LDB tube is alkaline (purple, grey, or less yellow than LDB)
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in DCB, all enterics will...
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show a net acidic reaction (turn media yellow) because of glucose fermentation
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A positve result for Lysine decarboxylation is...
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the LDB tube is alkaline (purple, grey, or less yellow than DCB) and the DCB is yellow (acidic)
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describe the phenylalanine deamination test
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a product of Phenylalaine deamination is phenylpyruvic acid. Phenylpruvic acid will react with Fe3+ to form a green complex. Add a few drops of FeCl3 to the phenyalaline agar and look for an immediate green color
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describe the citrate agar test
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if citrate is used as a carbon and energy source, a net alkaline reaction will occur and the medium will turn blue because the citrate is removed
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describe the methyl red test
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use to distinguish between the two types of fermentation. Butanediol fermentation after 1-2 days results in production of alkaline products and a rise in pH. Methyl red is an indiactor dye. If mixed acid fermentation occured the medium will be acidic and the dye will turn red or pink (pH 4.4), if butanediol fermentation occured the medium will be more alkaline producing a yellow color (pH 6.2) orange indicates an equivocal reaction
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Describe the Voges-Proskauer test
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detects the production of acetoin, a intermediate of the butanediol pathway, alpha naphthol and KOH are added to bacteria in an MRVP broth. a positve reaction will turn red which indicates the presence of the neutral end product acetoin
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how do you pick which three tubes to use when doing MPN
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you pick the last three (most dilute) tubes showing growth and then you count the number of positives at these dilutions
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describe APT + azide media
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For optimal enrichment, isolation, and growth of lactic acid bacteria. Oleic acid in the Tween 80 has divalnet cations and thiamine are required by nutritionally fastidious lactic acid bacteria
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