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152 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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When did Charles Darwin publish The Origin of Species?
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1859
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Which phrase did Darwin use to define evolution?
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Descent with modification
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How did Carolus Linnaeus interpret organismal adaptations?
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As evidence that the Creator had designed each species for a specific purpose
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Which branch of biology was Linnaeus responsible for? Explain the purpose of this branch
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Taxonomy, a branch of biology concerned with classifying organisms
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The study of ______ helped lay the groundwork for Darwin's ideas
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Fossils
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Paleontology (the study of fossils) was largely developed by French scientist _______________
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Georges Cuvier
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Georges Cuvier advocated catastrophism. Explain.
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Cuvier speculated that each boundary between strata (layers of rock) represents a catastrophe.
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Explain Lamarck's hypothesis of evolution.
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Lamarck hypothesized that species evolve through the use and disuse of body parts and the inheritance of acquired characteristics. For example, a giraffe "acquired" the long neck because it needed to be able to reach the tall trees to eat.
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Give a few examples of how Darwin observed adaptation and the origin of new species at the Galapagos islands.
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There were many species of almost identical finches that had different beaks specialized for feeding on different things. For example, one species had adapted its beak to feed on cactus, the other on insects, while another could feed on nuts
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In 1858 ___________ had sent a manuscript to Darwin containing a similar theory about natural selection.
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Alfred Russel Wallace.
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What two main ideas did Darwin develop in The Origin of Species?
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1) Descent with modification explains life's unity and diversity.
2) Natural selection is the cause of adaptive evolution. |
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List the 4 crucial observations of nature Darwin drew two inferences from.
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1) Members of a population often vary greatly in their traits
2) Traits are inherited from parents to offspring 3) All species are capable of producing more offspring than the environment can support 4) Owing to lack of food or other resources, many of these offspring do not survive. |
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What two inferences could Darwin draw from his 4 crucial observations?
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1) Individuals whose inherited traits give them a higher probability of surviving and reproducing in a given environment tend to leave more offspring than others.
2) This unequal ability of individuals to survive and reproduce will lead to the accumulation of favorable traits in populations over time. |
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Thomas Malthus, an influence to Darwin, noted ________________________
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Darwin was influenced by Thomas Malthus who
noted the potential for human population to increase faster than food supplies and other resources. |
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Natural selection increases the _________ of organisms to their environment over time
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Natural selection increases the adaptation of organisms to their environment over time
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________ do not evolve, __________ evolve over time.
a.) populations, individuals b.) individuals, populations. |
B
individuals do not evolve, populations evolve over time. |
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True or False?
Natural selection does not edit or select for traits already present in the population, but creates new traits instead. |
False
Natural selection does not create new traits, but edits or selects for traits already present in the population |
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Describe the contributions to evolutionary theory made by Linnaeus, Cuvier, Lyell, Lamarck, Malthus, and Wallace
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Linnaeus: developed taxonomy.
Cuvier: paleontology; study of fossils. Lyell: principles of geology; slow, continuous changes in Earth's surface. Lamarck: (incorrect) theory of evolution through use or disuse of body parts. Malthus: noted the potential for human population to increase faster than food supplies and other resources Wallace: sent his hypothesis of natural selection and evolution to Darwin a year before Darwin publishes The Origin of Species. They had developed similar ideas at the same time. |
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Explain why an individual organism cannot evolve.
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Natural selection needs to occur in order for organisms to adapt. Adaptations can only occur in different generations of species, not individual species. Only the fittest will survive, eventually evolving a population.
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________ and _________ produce the genetic variation that makes evolution possible.
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Mutation and sexual repoduction produce the genetic variation that makes evolution possible.
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________ is a change in allele frequencies in a population over generations
A. Microevolution B. Macroevolution |
A. Microevolution
Microevolution is a change in allele frequencies in a population over generations |
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List the potential effects of point mutations
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The change in one base of a gene can result in:
1) Mutations in noncoding regions of DNA are often harmless 2) Mutations in a gene might not affect protein production because of redundancy 3) Mutations that result in CHANGE in protein production are often harmful 4) Mutations that result in CHANGE in protein production can also increase the fit between organism and environment. |
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What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation used for?
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The Hardy-Weinberg equation can be used to test
whether a population is evolving |
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True or False:
A locus is fixed if all individuals in a population are homozygous for the same allele |
True
A locus is fixed if all individuals in a population are homozygous for the same allele |
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What will the frequency of all alleles in a population add up to?
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p + q = 1
where p = one allele/locus, and p = other allele/locus |
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What does the Hardy-Weinberg principle describe?
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The Hardy‐Weinberg principle describes a
population that is not evolving. If a population does not meet the criteria of the Hardy‐Weinberg principle, it can be concluded that the population is evolving |
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Explain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
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Hardy‐Weinberg equilibrium describes the constant
frequency of alleles in such a gene pool If p and q represent the relative frequencies of the only two possible alleles in a population at a particular locus, then Hardy‐Weinberg Equilibrium p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 where p2 and q2 represent the frequencies of the homozygous genotypes and 2pq represents the frequency of the heterozygous genotype |
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List the five conditions that must be met in order for a population to be nonevolving
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--No mutations
– Random mating –No natural selection –Extremely large population size –No gene flow |
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List the three major factors that alter allele frequencies and
bring about most evolutionary change: |
Natural selection, genetic drift, genetic gene flow.
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Sexual selection can result in sexual dimorphism. Explain the term sexual dimorphism.
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Sexual dimorphism: marked differences between the sexes in secondary sexual characteristics (such as appearance).
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Why is natural selection the only mechanism that consistently produces adaptive change?
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Natural selection chooses only the fittest to survive, therefore only beneficial genes are passed on, causing adaptive changes. Natural selection can therefore always be predicted
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Why can natural selection not fashion perfect species?
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1.)Selection can act only on existing variations
2.)Evolution is limited by historical constraints 3.)Adaptations are often compromises 4.)Chance, natural selection, and the environment it t |
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What is speciation?
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Speciation is the origin of new species. It is the focal point of evolutionary theory.
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What are the differences between microevolution and macroevolution?
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Microevolution consists of adaptations that evolve
within a population, confined to one gene pool Macroevolution refers to evolutionary change above the species level |
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How are species grouped according to the biological species concept?
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The biological species concept groups organisms according to their ability to interbreed and produce viable, fertile offspring. They do not breed successfully with other populations.
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Define reproductive isolation
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Reproductive isolation is the existence of biological
factors (barriers) that impede two species from producing viable, fertile offspring. It is the basis of the biological species concept. |
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Define temporal isolation
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Temporal isolation: Species that breed at different
times of the day, different seasons, or different years cannot mix their gametes |
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Define mechanical isolation
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Mechanical isolation: Morphological differences can
prevent successful mating |
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Define gametic isolation
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Gametic isolation: Sperm of one species may not be
able to fertilize eggs of another species |
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Define postzygotic barriers
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Postzygotic barriers prevent the hybrid zygote from
developing into a viable, fertile adult: – Reduced hybrid viability – Reduced hybrid fertility –Hybrid breakdown |
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What is the difference between reduced hybrid viability and reduced hybrid fertility?
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Reduced hybrid viability: Genes of the different
parent species may interact and impair the hybrid’s development Reduced hybrid fertility: Even if hybrids are vigorous, they may be sterile |
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Define the morphological species concept
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The morphological species concept defines a
species by structural features |
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Define the ecological species concept
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The ecological species concept views a species in
terms of its ecological niche |
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Define the phylogenetic species concept
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The phylogenetic species concept: defines a species
as the smallest group of individuals on a phylogenetic tree |
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What are the two types of speciation? Explain them
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In allopatric speciation, gene flow is interrupted or
reduced when a population is divided into geographically isolated subpopulations In sympatric speciation, speciation takes place in geographically overlapping populations. In sympatric speciation, a reproductive barrier isolates a subset of a population without geographic separation from the parent species |
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What are the two causes of macroevolution?
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Macroevolution is the cumulative effect of many
speciation and extinction events |
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Of all the mutations that occur, why do only a small fraction become widespread in a gene pool?
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Most mutations do not act on gamete producing cells. Many that do do not have a phenotypic effect that natural selection could act on. Those that do can have a harmful effect that will not be beneficial to the reproductive success of the bearers.
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How does sexual recombination produce variation?
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Sexual recombination shuffles genes into a different combination each generation.
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Distinguish genetic drift and gene flow in terms of a. how they occur, b. their implications for future genetic variation in a population.
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Genetic drift results from chance fluctuations
of allele frequencies from generation to generation; it tends to decrease variation over time. Gene flow is the exchange of alleles between populations; it tends to increase variation within a population but decrease allele frequency differences between populations. |
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Does nucleotide variability in a population always correspond to phenotypic polymorphism? Why or why not?
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Nucleotide variability does not always correspond to phenotypic changes because they can occur in noncoding regions or have no effect because of redundancy
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What are the steps in the cell cycle?
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Prophase - centrioles move apart, chromosomes condense into chromatids, spindles of kinetochore microtubules start to form between centrioles, nuclear envelope starts disappearing.
Metaphase - nuclear membrane has disappeared, spindles align twin-chromatid chromosomes to midline. Anaphase - centrioles pull apart centromeres and pull chromatids towards opposite ends of the cell. Telophase - Cell splits and new nuclear membranes form, DNA expands again. Interphase - nucleolus visible, replication of DNA occurs, centrioles replicated. |
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The cell cycle has three checkpoints, what are they?
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G1, G2, M
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Which proteins are involved in the checkpoints of the cell cycle?
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Cyclin - protein which is produced gradually in a cell
CDKs - cyclin dependent kinases, signal proteins that drive cell cycle. |
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True or False?
DNA + associated proteins = chromatin; arranged in long, thin strands called chromosomes. |
True
DNA + associated proteins = chromatin; arranged in long, thin strands called chromosomes. |
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Diploid = N or 2N?
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Diploid = 2N, two copies of each chromosome.
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The center of a chromosome where the two chromatids are attached is called the __________
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The center of a chromosome where the two chromatids are attached is called the centromere
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How many times does the DNA replicate and how many times does the cell split in meiosis?
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In meiosis the DNA replicates once, the cell divides twice.
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Meiosis: from ___ploid to ___ploid
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Meiosis: from diploid (2N) to haploid (N)
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What are the typical characteristics of a family tree where a rare X-linked recessive allele is inherited?
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Men will be affected the most and will have a 50% chance of inheriting the recessive allele from a heterozygous mother and being affected by the disease. Men will always inherit the gene from a homozygous mother and be affected by it. Women will have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene from a heterozygous mother, making them a carrier. They will always be a carrier if their mom is homozygous. If the father also has the allele they will always get the disease if their mother is homozygous. They will have a 50% chance of getting the disease if their mother is heterozygous
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Define epistasis
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Epistasis: when one gene is modified by another, masking it. The phenotype of the modified gene will not be expressed
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What is metaphase and prometaphase analysis and when are they used?
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Metaphase analysis: a karyotype is made to determine whether there are any structural abnormalities present.
Prometaphase analysis: performed when subtle chromosal abnormalities that could not be identified on a karyotype are suspected. Much more detail is obtained making it possible to identify small mutations |
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Define karyotype
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Karyotype: complete set of all the metaphase chromatid pairs in a cell. Humans have 46 and are diploid (2N)
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List the types of nondisjunction errors that can occur during meiosis
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Trisomy: three copies of a particular chromosome instead of two.
Monosomy: only one copy of a particular chromosome instead of two These are both forms of aneuploidy |
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List the 4 types of structural mutations
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Inversion
ABCDEFG > ABEDCFG Deletion ABCDEFG > ABFG Translocations ABCDEFG > CDEFGAB Amplifications ABCDEFG > ABABABABCDEFG |
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From the karyotype practical, which chemical was responsible for stimulating cell division and which chemical was responsible for 'freezing' cell division during metaphase?
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PHA (Phytohaemagglutinin) - stimulates cell division
colcemid - freezes cell division |
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What are the differences between genotype and phenotype?
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Genotype - contains genetic information, but may not always be expressed.
Phenotype - genetic information that is actually expressed (visible changes) |
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Define gene, allele, and locus
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Gene - unit of genetic information that can contain more than two alleles. More than two alleles can contribute to a trait, for example, eye color.
Allele - sequence of DNA that codes for a trait. Locus - location of allele on DNA strand |
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Define incomplete dominance and codominance
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Incomplete dominance - two alleles create an intermediate phenotype. For example, rR (red alleles) codes for pink in carnations.
Codominance - Neither allele is recessive. A common example is the ABO blood group system. The gene for blood types has three alleles: A, B, and i. i causes O type and is recessive to both A and B. The A and B alleles are codominant with each other. When a person has both an A and a B allele, the person has type AB blood. |
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Archae and bacteria are _________
A. prokaryotic B. eukaryotic |
A
Archae and bacteria are prokaryotic |
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List the 4 typical characteristics of a living cell
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Typical characteristics of a living cell:
-Metabolism -Reproduction -Complexity -Adaptation |
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How old is the oldest organism?
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3.5 billion years old. They were filamentous bacteria found in stromatolites.
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List the 5 kingdoms of life
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Plantae, Fungi, Animalia, Protista, Monera
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What are the 3 domains of life?
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Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya
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What are ribosomes and what is their function?
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Ribosomes consist of a large and small subunit. They are involved in translation from genome to protein. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain ribosomes.
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Was the universal ancestor prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
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Prokaryotic, prokaryotes and eukaryotes both contain ribosomes
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Contrast the structure of prokaryotes and eukaryotes
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Prokaryotes: small cells (1-5µm), unicellular, no nucleus or organelles, cell wall.
Eukaryotes: large cells (10-100µm), unicellular or multicellular, nucleus and organelles, different cell wall when present |
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How are archaea different from bacteria?
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Archaea can inhabit extreme environments such as hot springs and salt ponds, similar to early Earth. Archaea lack peptidoglycan in their cell walls, some bacteria have it.
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List the three most common cell shapes of bacteria
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Spherical (cocci)
Helical (spirilla) Rod (bacilli) |
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What is the purpose of a gram stain?
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A gram stain classifies bacteria based on the content of peptidoglycan in the cell walls.
Gram-negative: complex cell walls with small amounts of peptidoglycan. Gram negative bacteria are more threatening and are more resistant to antibiotics. Gram-positive: simple cell walls with large amounts of peptidoglycan. Many antibiotics attack peptidoglycan crosslinks. |
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Explain what taxis means
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Taxis - movement towards or away from a stimulus
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What are plasmids?
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Plasmids carry additional genetic information that can for example provide the bacteria with more resistance to antibiotics.
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Bacteria reproduce asexually through binary fission. What are their three methods of genetic recombination?
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Transformation - genes taken up from the environment.
Conjugation - genes transferred directly from one prokaryote to another through sex pilli. Transduction - genes transferred from viruses to prokaryotes. |
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What is the major source of genetic variation in bacteria?
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Mutation
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Bacteria can form highly resistant _______ that can only be killed by an autoclave
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Bacteria can form highly resistant spores that can only be killed by an autoclave
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What allows bacteria to rapidly adapt to their environment?
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Their generation time is only 20 minutes - 3 hours.
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Competition
Bacteria can produce ________ that inhibit the growth of of other organisms. |
Bacteria can produce antibiotics that inhibit the growth of of other organisms.
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What are the 4 categories of prokaryote metabolism?
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Photoautotrophs - photosynthetic
Chemoautotrophs - only need CO2, no light Photoheterotrophs - use light to generate ATP, but get carbon in organic form (eat other organisms) Chemoheterotrophs - consume organic molecules for both energy and carbon |
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What is nitrogen fixation? Name an organism that uses this ability.
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Nitrogen fixation - the ability to convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonium which can then be used by organisms for organic compounds such as proteins and nucleic acids.
An example is Anabaena, a photoautotroph that has specialized cells called heterocysts that can fix nitrogen. |
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Explain the following terms:
obligate aerobe: facultative aerobe: obligate anaerobe: |
Obligate aerobe: need oxygen to survive
Facultative aerobe: use oxygen whenever available, but can also grow through fermentation. Obligate anaerobe: oxygen is poisonous to them. |
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Which of the following evolved in prokaryotes?
A. The origin of metabolism. B. The origin of photosynthesis. C. The oxygen revolution and aerobic respiration. D. All of the above |
D. All of the above
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What are the three types of archaea?
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Methanogens - anaerobe organisms that produce methane.
Extreme halophile - salt lovers. Extreme thermophile - hot temperature lovers. |
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What is the ecological importance of prokaryotes?
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Decomposers - recycle nutrients from dead organisms (carbon, nitrogen, etc)
Pathogens - cause human disease Mutualism - live with other organisms, both benefit |
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Bacteria can cause disease through two types of toxins, what are they?
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Exotoxins - proteins secreted by prokaryotes
Endotoxins - toxins that are a part of the outer membrane of some bacteria |
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How old is the origin of eukaryotes?
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1.4 billion years
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True or false?
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek invented the microscope |
True
Antonie van Leeuwenhoek invented the microscope |
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Are eukaryotic flagella more complex than prokaryotic flagella?
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Yes
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Describe the origin of the nucleus and ER in eukaryotes
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It is believed that the prokaryote membrane folded in. These infoldings created several membranes such as the nucleus and ER.
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What is endosymbiosis, and how does it relate to the origin of eukaryotes?
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Endosymbiosis - when one organism engulfs another. The engulfed organism and the other organism are symbionts and benefit from each other. It is believed that mitochondria occur in eukaryotes as a result of endosymbiosis.
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How old are the earliest known fossils of protists?
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1.8 billion years old
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Describe the structure of flagella in protists
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"9+2 arrangement"
Structurally similar to centriole |
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_______ occurs in most protists
A. Mitosis B. Meiosis |
A. Mitosis
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Are diplomonads (Giardia) and pasabasala (Trichomonas vaginalis) archaeozoa?
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Yes
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What two groups are euglenozoa?
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Euglenids, Kinetoplastids (Trypanosoma)
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Do the groups ciliates (paramecium), apicomplexans (plasmodium), and dinoflagellates (phytoplankton) belong to alveolata?
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Yes, they all have small membrane-bound cavities (alveoli)
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What are stramenopila? List the 4 different groups
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Stramenophila have "hairy" flagella
Oomycota Bacillariophyta (diatoms) Chrysophyta (golden algae) Phaeophyta (brown algae) |
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Immediately after a eukaryotic cell ingests a gram-negative cyanobacterium during primary endosymbiosis, how many membranes separate the cytoplasm of the bacterium from the fluid outside the eukaryotic cell? Identify each membrane.
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Four, the inner and outer membranes of the bacterium, and the food vacuole membrane and plasma membrane of the host cell.
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How is Trypanosoma's ability to produce an array of cell-surface proteins advantageous to its survival?
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The proteins have slightly different structures, but only one protein at a time is expressed. This bait-and-switch technique prevents the host from developing immunity due to the frequent changes in expression.
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What does the condenser diaphragm setting determine?
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The balance between resolution and contrast
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Opening the aperture of a microscope wider ___________ resolution and __________ contrast
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increases, decreases
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What is the rule of thumb when it comes to setting aperture on a microscope?
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Start off with about 70% and adjust as needed.
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What is the rule of thumb when it comes to necessary magnification?
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M (microscope) > 500 NA
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What is the structure of the plasma membrane and what is its function?
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The plasma membrane is made up of a phospholipid bilayer. It serves to regulate traffic into and out of the cell.
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In which two places do ribosomes carry out protein synthesis?
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In the cytosol (free ribosomes) and on the outside of endoplasmic reticulum or the nuclear envelope (bound ribosomes)
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The following are components of what system?
-Nuclear envelope -Endoplasmic reticulum -Golgi apparatus -Lysosomes -Vacuoles -Plasma membrane |
Endomembrane system
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How are the components of the endomembrane system connected?
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Vesicles
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What are the functions of rough vs smooth ER?
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Rough ER:
-Studded with ribosomes -Protein synthesis -Protein movement -Protein proofreading Smooth ER: -Synthesizes lipids -Metabolizes carbohydrates -Detoxifies poison -Stores calcium |
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What is the function of the Golgi apparatus?
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Golgi apparatus:
-Modifies products of the ER -Manufactures certain macromolecules -Sorts and packages materials into transport vesicles |
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What is the function of a lysosome?
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Lysosome:
-Membranous sac of hydrolytic enzymes that can digest macromolecules -Can hydrolyze proteins, fats, polysaccharides, and nucleic acids. -Can fuse with food vacuoles to digest the molecules inside them. |
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Lysosomes also use
enzymes to recycle the cell’s own organelles and macromolecules, a process called _________ |
Lysosomes also use
enzymes to recycle the cell’s own organelles and macromolecules, a process called autophagy |
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The cytoskeleton is composed of three different types of molecular structures? List them
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-Microtubules: thickest of the three
-Microfilaments: thinnest structure -Intermediate filaments: fibers with diameter in the middle |
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What type of cytoskeletal structures do muscle cells use for contractions?
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Muscle cells use microfilaments
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A mitochondrion consists of ____ phospholipid bilayers
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Two
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What is tissue and what are the four main types of tissues?
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A tissue is a group of cells with common structure and function.
-Epithelium -Connective tissue -Nervous tissue -Muscle tissue |
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List the types of epithelium
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Cuboidal - specialized for secretion. Found on kidney tubules, glands
Squamous - simple (thin and leaky, suitable for diffusion. blood vessels and lung alveoli). stratified (rapid regeneration. outer skin, esophagus, etc). Columnar - simple (absorption and secretion. intestines), stratified (urethra), pseudostratified (nose). |
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List the types of connective tissue
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Collagenous fibers:
-Collagen -Nonelastic, connects flesh to bone and teeth Elastic fibers: -Elastin -Skin Reticular fibers: -Collagen -Thin and branched Loose connective tissue: -Holds organs in place -Fibroblasts (production of fiber) -Macrophages (phagocytosis, defense) Adipose tissue: -Insulation, fuel stores Fibrous: -Large number of connective fibers -Tendons and ligaments Cartilage: -Strong yet flexible Bone: -Mineralized connective tissue Blood: -Plasma |
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List the characteristics of nervous tissue
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Neurons:
-Transmitting nerve impulses -Long cells (up to 1m) -In the synapse, signals are transmitted through substances called neurotransmitters. |
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List the characteristics of muscle tissue
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Long cells: muscle fibers
Contraction (actin and mysosin) Striated: -Striped appearance through overlapping fibers -Skeletal muscle: attached to bones by tendons, voluntary contractions. -Cardiac muscle: branched cells, connected through signal transmission Smooth: -Spindle shaped -Digestive tract, urinary bladder, arteries -Involuntary contractions -Slower contractions, can remain contracted longer. |
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List the 11 organ systems
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Muscle, urinary, respiratory, digestive, endocrine, reproductive, skeletal, lymphatic, integumentary, nervous, cardiovascular
Mnemonic: MURDERS LINC |
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Describe the functions of the stomach
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-Storage of food
-Secretion of gastric juice: antibacterial, hydrolysis of proteins. |
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Describe the function of the small intestine
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-Major organ of digestion and absorption
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Describe the functions of the large intestine
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-Reclaiming water
Houses a rich flora of microorganisms: -Fermentation of undigested nutrients -Immunology |
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What is metabolic rate? What units is it expressed in?
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The amount of energy used in a unit of time. It is expressed as joules (SI) or calories (1 cal = 4.2 J)
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List the two strategies (-thermic) for maintining constant body temperature
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Endothermic: body temperature is maintained by heat generated by energy metabolism. Warm-blooded.
Exothermic: metabolic heat is insufficient to regulate body temperature. Cold-blooded. |
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What are the advantages/disadvantages to endotherms?
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Advantages:
Stable body temperature, very high levels of aerobic activity, long duration of vigorous activity. Stable body temperature allows animals to live under highly variable temperature conditions Disadvantage: energetically expensive, may not be optimal strategy if food supply is limited |
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How do vasodilation and vasoconstriction affect heat loss?
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Vasodilation increases heat loss. Vasoconstriction decreases heat loss.
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The success of the human species is determined by which two factors?
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Human adaptation to the environment.
Environmental adaptation to humans. |
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List the 4 different types of environmental factors
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Physical: nuclear energy, cell phone towers, noise.
Chemical: nitrate in drinking water, particulate matter, smog, exhaust fumes. Biological: bacterial pollution, salmonella, dust mites. Psychological: Risk (stress) |
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List the steps to the environmental impact chain
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Emission > environmental concentration > human exposure > internal dose > health effect
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Demonstrate the steps to the risk assessment model
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Risk characterization > hazard identification, dose-response assessment, exposure assessment
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What is the difference between a dose-response curve and dose-effect curve?
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Dose-response curve: describes number of individuals with response at given dose.
Dose-effect curve: describes severity of effect in relation to dose given. |
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List the four types of greenhouse gases
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CO2, CH4, N2O, CFCs
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Which two gases are responsible for an increase in greenhouse gases?
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CO2 and CFCs
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Describe the troposphere and stratosphere
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The troposphere is the lowest layer, and contains about 75% of the mass of the atmosphere. The average depth is 11km. The stratosphere is about 2km deep
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What's the difference between primary and secondary air pollutants?
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Primary pollutants form directly in a reaction (exhaust gases), while secondary gases form when the primary pollutants react with the environment.
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How do you find the oxidation number of an atom in a molecule?
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1. Find the most electronegative atom using periodic table.
2. (valence e-) - (attracted e-). |
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How do you find the formal charge of an atom?
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(valence e-) - (e- directly surrounding atom)
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True or false?
The oxidation numbers of all atoms in a molecule add up to the total charge of the molecule. The formal loads all add up to the total charge of the molecule |
True
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How do you find the hybridization of a molecule?
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(number of atoms central atom is bonded to) + (number of pairs of free e-)
2 = sp 3 = sp2 4 = sp3 |
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What are the two formulas for finding ∆G?
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∆G = ∆H - T∆S
Where ∆G = energy freed to do useful work, ∆H = enthalpy, heats of reaction, T = temperature in Kelvin, and ∆S = entropy, randomness or chaos of reaction. Reaction: a + b = c + d ∆G = ( G⁰f(c) + G⁰f(d) ) - ( G⁰f(a) - G⁰f(b) ) |
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What are the two formulas for finding ∆S?
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∆S = (∆H - ∆G)/T
Where ∆S = entropy, randomness or chaos, ∆H = enthalpy, heats of reaction, ∆G = free energy, and T = temperature in Kelvin Reaction: a + b = c + d ∆S = ( S⁰f(c) + S⁰f(d) ) - ( S⁰f(a) + S⁰f(b) ) |
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What are the two formulas for finding ∆H?
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∆H = ∆G + T∆S
Where ∆S = entropy, randomness or chaos, ∆H = enthalpy, heats of reaction, ∆G = free energy, and T = temperature in Kelvin Reaction: a + b = c + d ∆H = ( H⁰f(c) + H⁰f(d) ) - ( H⁰f(a) + H⁰f(b) ) |
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What is the formula for finding the equilibrium constant Keq?
NOTE: Keq is Kev in Dutch |
Keq = [products]^x / [reactants]^y
Where x and y indicate coefficients of products and reactants |
